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• Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

  - by bert

  How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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• Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

  - by typeof

  I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

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• Parallel.Foreach loop creating multiple db connections throws connection errors?

  - by shawn.mek

  Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication I wanted to get my code running in parallel, so I changed my foreach loop to a parallel foreach loop. It seemed simple enough. Each loop connects to the database, looks up some stuff, performs some logic, adds some stuff, closes the connection. But I get the above error? I'm using my local sql server and entity framework (each loop uses it's own context). Is there some problem with connecting multiple times using the same local login or something? How did I get around this? I have (before trying to covert to a parallel.foreach loop) split my list of objects that I am foreach looping through into four groups (separate csv files) and run four concurrent instances of my program (which ran faster overall than just one, thus the idea for parallel). So it seems connecting to the db shouldn't be a problem? Any ideas? EDIT: Here's before var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); ForEach(cloneIdAndAccessions in allAccessionsFromObs) DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); after var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); Parallel.ForEach(allAccessionsFromObs, cloneIdAndAccessions => DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); Inside the DoWork I use the BioEntities using (var bioEntities = new BioEntities(connectionString)) {...}

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• what use does the javascript forEach method have (that map can't do)?

  - by JohnMerlino

  Hey all, The only difference I see in map and foreach is that map is returning an array and foreach is not. However, I don't even understand the last line of the foreach method "func.call(scope, this[i], i, this);". For example, isn't "this" and "scope" referring to same object and isn't this[i] and i referring to the current value in the loop? I noticed on another post someone said "Use forEach when you want to do something on the basis of each element of the list. You might be adding things to the page, for example. Essentially, it's great for when you want "side effects". I don't know what is meant by side effects. Array.prototype.map = function(fnc) { var a = new Array(this.length); for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) { a[i] = fnc(this[i]); } return a; } Array.prototype.forEach = function(func, scope) { scope = scope || this; for (var i = 0, l = this.length; i < l; i++) func.call(scope, this[i], i, this); } Finally, are there any real uses for these methods in javascript (since we aren't updating a database) other than to manipulate numbers like this: alert([1,2,3,4].map(function(x){ return x + 1})); //this is the only example I ever see of map in javascript. Thanks for any reply.

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• Is there a Scala version of .irbrc or another way to define some default libraries for REPL use?

  - by Tom Morris

  I've written a little library that uses implicits to add functionality that one only needs when using the REPL in Scala. Ruby has libraries like this - for things like pretty printing, firing up text editors (like the interactive_editor gem which invokes Vim from irb - see this post), debuggers and the like. The library I am trying to write adds some methods to java.lang.Class and java.lang.reflect classes using the 'pimp my library' implicit conversion process to help you go and find documentation (initially, with Google, then later possibly with a JavaDoc/ScalaDoc viewer, and maybe the StackOverflow API eventually!). It's an itch-scratching library: I spend so much time copying and pasting classnames into Google that I figured I may as well automate the process. It is the sort of functionality that developers will want to add to their system for use only in the REPL - they shouldn't really be adding it to projects (partly because it may not be something that their fellow developers want, but also because if you are doing some exploratory development, it may be with just a Scala REPL that's not being invoked by an IDE or build tool). In my case, I want to include a few classes and set up some implicits - include a .jar on the CLASSPATH and import it, basically. In Ruby, this is the sort of thing that you'd add to your .irbrc file. Other REPLs have similar ways of setting options and importing libraries. Is there a similar file or way of doing this for the Scala REPL?

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• Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

  - by vivek m

  I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

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• iPhone weather forecast application

  - by Joy

  I am working with an iphone application in xcode that uses the google weather api. But when i connects to the api then its giving me the following output <3c3f786d 6c207665 7273696f 6e3d2231 2e30223f 3e3c786d 6c5f6170 695f7265 706c7920 76657273 696f6e3d 2231223e 3c776561 74686572 206d6f64 756c655f 69643d22 30222074 61625f69 643d2230 22206d6f 62696c65 5f726f77 3d223022 206d6f62 696c655f 7a697070 65643d22 31222072 6f773d22 30222073 65637469 6f6e3d22 3022203e 3c666f72 65636173 745f696e 666f726d 6174696f 6e3e3c63 69747920 64617461 3d224b6f 6c6b6174 612c2057 65737420 42656e67 616c222f 3e3c706f 7374616c 5f636f64 65206461 74613d22 4b6f6c6b 61746122 2f3e3c6c 61746974 7564655f 65362064 6174613d 22222f3e 3c6c6f6e 67697475 64655f65 36206461 74613d22 222f3e3c 666f7265 63617374 5f646174 65206461 74613d22 32303130 2d30342d 3238222f 3e3c6375 7272656e 745f6461 74655f74 696d6520 64617461 3d223230 31302d30 342d3238 2030363a 32303a30 30202b30 30303022 2f3e3c75 6e69745f 73797374 656d2064 6174613d 22555322 2f3e3c2f 666f7265 63617374 5f696e66 6f726d61 74696f6e 3e3c6375 7272656e 745f636f 6e646974 696f6e73 3e3c636f 6e646974 696f6e20 64617461 3d224861 7a65222f 3e3c7465 6d705f66 20646174 613d2239 37222f3e 3c74656d 705f6320 64617461 3d223336 222f3e3c 68756d69 64697479 20646174 613d2248 756d6964 6974793a 20363025 222f3e3c 69636f6e 20646174 613d222f 69672f69 6d616765 732f7765 61746865 722f6861 7a652e67 6966222f 3e3c7769 6e645f63 6f6e6469 74696f6e 20646174 613d2257 696e643a 20532061 74203133 206d7068 222f3e3c 2f637572 72656e74 5f636f6e 64697469 6f6e733e 3c666f72 65636173 745f636f 6e646974 696f6e73 3e3c6461 795f6f66 5f776565 6b206461 74613d22 57656422 2f3e3c6c 6f772064 6174613d 22383222 2f3e3c68 69676820 64617461 3d223931 222f3e3c 69636f6e 20646174 613d222f 69672f69 6d616765 732f7765 61746865 722f6368 616e6365 5f6f665f 7261696e 2e676966 222f3e3c 636f6e64 6974696f 6e206461 74613d22 4368616e 6365206f 66205261 696e222f 3e3c2f66 6f726563 6173745f 636f6e64 6974696f 6e733e3c 666f7265 63617374 5f636f6e 64697469 6f6e733e 3c646179 5f6f665f 7765656b 20646174 613d2254 6875222f 3e3c6c6f 77206461 74613d22 3832222f 3e3c6869 67682064 6174613d 22393622 2f3e3c69 636f6e20 64617461 3d222f69 672f696d 61676573 2f776561 74686572 2f726169 6e2e6769 66222f3e 3c636f6e 64697469 6f6e2064 6174613d 22526169 6e222f3e 3c2f666f 72656361 73745f63 6f6e6469 74696f6e 733e3c66 6f726563 6173745f 636f6e64 6974696f 6e733e3c 6461795f 6f665f77 65656b20 64617461 3d224672 69222f3e 3c6c6f77 20646174 613d2238 32222f3e 3c686967 68206461 74613d22 3936222f 3e3c6963 6f6e2064 6174613d 222f6967 2f696d61 6765732f 77656174 6865722f 73756e6e 792e6769 66222f3e 3c636f6e 64697469 6f6e2064 6174613d 22436c65 6172222f 3e3c2f66 6f726563 I can't figure it out how to read this data. Looking for your's valuable suggetion. I am using this url(http://www.google.com/ig/api?weather=kolkata) Thanks in advance

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• How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

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• What is the fastest way for reading huge files in Delphi?

  - by dummzeuch

  My program needs to read chunks from a huge binary file with random access. I have got a list of offsets and lengths which may have several thousand entries. The user selects an entry and the program seeks to the offset and reads length bytes. The program internally uses a TMemoryStream to store and process the chunks read from the file. Reading the data is done via a TFileStream like this: FileStream.Position := Offset; MemoryStream.CopyFrom(FileStream, Size); This works fine but unfortunately it becomes increasingly slower as the files get larger. The file size starts at a few megabytes but frequently reaches several tens of gigabytes. The chunks read are around 100 kbytes in size. The file's content is only read by my program. It is the only program accessing the file at the time. Also the files are stored locally so this is not a network issue. I am using Delphi 2007 on a Windows XP box. What can I do to speed up this file access?

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• URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

  - by Rudy

  Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

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• Is there any other way of using signed applets

  - by 640KB

  Hi There, If I want to deploy high privileged applets they need to be signed. For that a certificate is created and then a jar file is signed with a jarsigner. After that in the HTML code one has to specify code,codebase AND archive (jar) which we signed before. However I wrote a servlet which acts as two things: it sits at the URL pointed by the codebase and serves class bytecode to the applet. The same servlet also uses serialization to communicate with the applet whereby whenever the applet gets a class it does not know it goes to the codebase which ends up back at the servlet. Almost like a mini RMI setup but simpler. I hope you can see the power in this. Unfortunately for signed applets one needs the archive. Now the servlet is also able to load a Certificate object and can send it to the applet too. So here is the setup: At one point the applet receives class bytecode and it also has the Certificate. It would be nice if the applet could instantiate all received classes using that certificate (otherwise code from jar is signed and outside is not which prompts nasty messages to the user). So my question to you fine Java aficionados: Would there by any way for me to use the bytecode data and the Certificate to instantiate the class as a signed object so that the plugin pops the Security dialog, accepts teh certificate and elevates the object's privileges. What I could find is that the there is a class CodeSource that accepts codebase URL and certificate and is essential to the signing process. What I am not sure is how one could intercept the class loading inside applets to install additional certificates not obtained through a JAR file via archive. What do you say? Thanks a bunch.

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• Are there any security issues to avoid when providing a email-or-username-can-act-as-username login

  - by Tchalvak

  I am in the process of moving from a "username/password" system to one that uses email for login. I don't think that there's any horrible problem with allowing either email or username for login, and I remember seeing sites that I consider somewhat respectable doing it as well, but I'd like to be aware of any major security flaws that I may be introducing. More specifically, here is the pertinent function (the query_row function parameterizes the sql). function authenticate($p_user, $p_pass) { $user = (string)$p_user; $pass = (string)$p_pass; $returnValue = false; if ($user != '' && $pass != '') { // Allow login via username or email. $sql = "SELECT account_id, account_identity, uname, player_id FROM accounts join account_players on account_id=_account_id join players on player_id = _player_id WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) AND phash = crypt(:pass, phash)"; $returnValue = query_row($sql, array(':login'=>$user, ':pass'=>$pass)); } return $returnValue; } Notably, I have added the WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) ...etc section to allow graceful backwards compatibility for users who won't be used to using their email for the login procedure. I'm not completely sure that that OR is safe, though. Are there some ways that I should tighten the security of the php code above?

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• Where to prompt for required file location at start of Win Forms application

  - by Murph

  I have an application that uses a file to store its data. I store the location of the file in the app settings so have two tests at startup: Do I have a setting for the file and Does the file (if I have a setting) exist If I fail either test I want to prompt the user for the file location - the mechanics of the are not the problem, I can read and write the app settings, fire off dialogs and otherwise request the data. If the user refuses to choose a file (or at least a file location) I want to exit the app. My problem is where to do this i.e. at what point in the flow of code. In an ideal world you start the app, show a splash screen, load the main form and run from there... I'm looking for a general pattern that allows me to slot the test for parameters into the right place so that I can prompt the user for whatever (and allowing that I have to worry about the fact that my splash screen is currently topmost for my app). I appreciate that this is a bit vague so will update this with code as we go along.

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• C++ Declarative Parsing Serialization

  - by Martin York

  Looking at Java and C# they manage to do some wicked processing based on special languaged based anotation (forgive me if that is the incorrect name). In C++ we have two problems with this: 1) There is no way to annotate a class with type information that is accessable at runtime. 2) Parsing the source to generate stuff is way to complex. But I was thinking that this could be done with some template meta-programming to achieve the same basic affect as anotations (still just thinking about it). Like char_traits that are specialised for the different types an xml_traits template could be used in a declaritive way. This traits class could be used to define how a class is serialised/deserialized by specializing the traits for the class you are trying to serialize. Example Thoughs: template<typename T> struct XML_traits { typedef XML_Empty Children; }; template<> struct XML_traits<Car> { typedef boost::mpl::vector<Body,Wheels,Engine> Children; }; template<typename T> std::ostream& Serialize(T const&) { // my template foo is not that strong. // but somthing like this. boost::mpl::for_each<typename XML_Traits<T>::Children,Serialize>(data); } template<> std::ostream& Serialize<XML_Empty>(T const&) { /* Do Nothing */ } My question is: Has anybody seen any projects/decumentation (not just XML) out there that uses techniques like this (template meta-programming) to emulate the concept of annotation used in languges like Java and C# that can then be used in code generation (to effectively automate the task by using a declaritive style). At this point in my research I am looking for more reading material and examples.

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• Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

  - by Pretzel

  So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

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• .htaccess redirect or rewrite to default language url

  - by Saif Bechan

  I have a website that is currently in Dutch. Now I want to make the website multi-language starting with English. I am not that good at .htaccess files and the information on the web is quite confusing. The website I have now uses pretty urls, so all my urls look like this: http://mydomain.com/about/info http://mydomain.com/about/contact The code that I use for that is the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-l RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?rt=$1 [L,QSA] </IfModule> I really do not know what this means, esp the [L,QSA]. But it's ok, it works for now. But now I want to add a default redirect to the code. So it becomes as follow http://mydomain.com becomes http://mydomain.com/nl I assume all my old links http://mydomain.com/about/info will not work anymore, but that is a step I am willing to take. Can someone please help me with this code. I have seen a lot of peaces of code, but I can not find the right one.

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• Polling servers at the same port - Threads and Java

  - by John

  Hi there. I'm currently busy working on an IP ban tool for the early versions of Call of Duty 1. (Apparently such a feature wasn't implemented in these versions). I've finished a single threaded application but it won't perform well enough for multiple servers, which is why I am trying to implement threading. Right now, each server has its own thread. I have a Networking class, which has a method; "GetStatus" -- this method is synchronized. This method uses a DatagramSocket to communicate with the server. Since this method is static and synchronized, I shouldn't get in trouble and receive a whole bunch of "Address already in use" exceptions. However, I have a second method named "SendMessage". This method is supposed to send a message to the server. How can I make sure "SendMessage" cannot be invoked when there's already a thread running in "GetStatus", and the other way around? If I make both synchronized, I will still get in trouble if Thread A is opening a socket on Port 99999 and invoking "SendMessage" while Thread B is opening a socket on the same port and invoking "GetStatus"? (Game servers are usually hosted on the same ports) I guess what I am really after is a way to make an entire class synchronized, so that only one method can be invoked and run at a time by a single thread. Hope that what I am trying to accomplish/avoid is made clear in this text. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

  - by wahrhaft

  I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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• Using Everyauth/Express and Multiple Configurations?

  - by Zane Claes

  I'm successfully using Node.js + Express + Everyauth ( https://github.com/abelmartin/Express-And-Everyauth/blob/master/app.js ) to login to Facebook, Twitter, etc. from my application. The problem I'm trying to wrap my head around is that Everyauth seems to be "configure and forget." I set up a single everyauth object and configure it to act as middleware for express, and then forget about it. For example, if I want to create a mobile Facebook login I do: var app = express.createServer(); everyauth.facebook .appId('AAAA') .appSecret('BBBB') .entryPath('/login/facebook') .callbackPath('/callback/facebook') .mobile(true); // mobile! app.use(everyauth.middleware()); everyauth.helpExpress(app); app.listen(8000); Here's the problem: Both mobile and non-mobile clients will connect to my server, and I don't know which is connecting until the connection is made. Even worse, I need to support multiple Facebook app IDs (and, again, I don't know which one I will want to use until the client connects and I partially parse the input). Because everyauth is a singleton which in configured once, I cannot see how to make these changes to the configuration based upon the request that is made. What it seems like is that I need to create some sort of middleware which acts before the everyauth middleware to configure the everyauth object, such that everyauth subsequently uses the correct appId/appSecret/mobile parameters. I have no clue how to go about this... Suggestions? Here's the best idea I have so far, though it seems terrible: Create an everyauth object for every possible configuration using a different entryPath for each...

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• Can I commit changes to actual database while debugging C# in Visual Studio?

  - by nathant23

  I am creating a C# application using Visual Studio that uses an SQLExpress database. When I hit f5 to debug the application and make changes to the database I believe what is happening is there is a copy of the database in the bin/debug folder that changes are being made to. However, when I stop the debugging and then hit f5 the next time a new copy of the database is being put in the bin/debug folder so that all the changes made the last time are gone. My question is: Is there a way that when I am debugging the application I can have it make changes to the actual database and those changes are actually saved or will it only make changes to the copy in the bin/debug folder (if that is what is actually happening)? I've seen similar questions, but I couldn't find an answer that said if it's possible to make those changes persistent in the actual .mdf file. The reason I ask is because as I build this application I am continuously adding pieces and testing to make sure they all work together. When I put in test data I am using actual data that I would like to stay in the database. This would just help me not have to reenter the data later. Thanks in advance for any help or information that could help me better understand the process.

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• Program to format every media in c++

  - by AtoMerZ

  Problem: I'm trying to write a program that formats any type of media. So far I've managed to format Hard disk partitions, flash memories, SDRAM, RDX. But there's this last type of media (DVD-RAM) I need to format. My program fails to format this media. I'm using the FormatEx function in fmifs.dll. I had absolutely no idea how to use this function Except for its name and that it resides in fmifs.dll. with the help of this I managed to find a simple program that uses this library. Yet still it doesn't give complete information about how to use it. What I've tried: I'm looking for a full documentation about FormatEx, its parameters, and exactly what values each parameter can take. I tried searching on google and MSDN. This is what I found. First of all this isn't the function I'm working with. But even putting that aside there's not enough information on how to use the function (Like which headers/libraries to use). EDIT: I don't have to use FormatEx if there's an alternative to use please tell.

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• Comparing all properties of an object using expression trees

  - by stringargs

  Hi, I'm trying to write a simple generator that uses an expression tree to dynamically generate a method that compares all properties of an instance of a type to the properties of another instance of that type. This works fine for most properties, like int an string, but fails for DateTime? (and presumably other nullable value types). The method: static Delegate GenerateComparer(Type type) { var left = Expression.Parameter(type, "left"); var right = Expression.Parameter(type, "right"); Expression result = null; foreach (var p in type.GetProperties()) { var leftProperty = Expression.Property(left, p.Name); var rightProperty = Expression.Property(right, p.Name); var equals = p.PropertyType.GetMethod("Equals", new[] { p.PropertyType }); var callEqualsOnLeft = Expression.Call(leftProperty, equals, rightProperty); result = result != null ? (Expression)Expression.And(result, callEqualsOnLeft) : (Expression)callEqualsOnLeft; } var method = Expression.Lambda(result, left, right).Compile(); return method; } On a DateTime? property it fails with: Expression of type 'System.Nullable`1[System.DateTime]' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Object' of method 'Boolean Equals(System.Object)' OK, so it finds an overload of Equals that expects object. So why can't I pass a DateTime? into that, as it's convertible to object? If I look at Nullable<T>, it indeed has an override of Equals(object o). PS: I realize that this isn't a proper generator yet as it can't deal with null values, but I'll get to that :)

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• Castle windsor security exception

  - by Sunil

  I developed a small WCF service that uses Castle Windsor IoC container and it works fine on my PC. When I deploy it onto a Win 2008 R2 server and host the WCF service in IIS 7 it fails with the following error. I checked the server level web.config and the trust level is set to "Full". What do I need to do to get this to work. As a test I deployed the same service as it is onto a Windows 2003 server with the trust level set to "Full" and it works fine. I am unable to figure out what setting/configuration I am missing on the 2008 server that is making the service fail. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers.] Castle.Windsor.WindsorContainer..ctor() +0 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCInstanceProvider..ctor(Type serviceType) in D:\WCF\WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices \WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC\IoCInstanceProvider.cs:19 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCServiceBehavior.ApplyDispatchBehav­ior(ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase) in D:\WCF \WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices\WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC \IoCServiceBehavior.cs:24 System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.InitializeServiceHost(Ser­viceDescription description, ServiceHostBase serviceHost) +377 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.InitializeRuntime() +37 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnBeginOpen() +27 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) +49 System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) +261 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.ActivateService(String normalizedVirtualPath) +121 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.EnsureServiceAvailable(String normalizedVirtualPath) +479

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• When to drop an IT job

  - by Nippysaurus

  In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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• Silverlight 4: StackPanel doesn't resize, when content gets more narrow

  - by Aaginor

  I am using Silverlight 4 with Blend 4. I have a (horizontal) stackpanel that includes some TextBoxes and a Button. The stackpanel is set to stretch to the size that the content uses. The TextBoxes are on autosize too. When I add text to the Textboxes, the textbox size grows and the stackpanel grows too. So far so good. When I remove text from the textboxes, the textbox size shrinks (as excepted), but the stackpanel size doesn't. Is there any trick to make the stackpanel change size, when the content (textboxes) getting smaller? Thanks in advance, Frank Here is the XAML for the UserControl: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <StackPanel x:Name="StackPanelBorder" Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBox x:Name="TextBoxCharacteristicName" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="Tex"> </TextBox> <TextBox x:Name="TextBoxSep" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="=" IsReadOnly="True"> </TextBox> <Button x:Name="ButtonRemove" Content="-" Click="ButtonAddOrRemove_Click"> </Button> </StackPanel> </Grid>

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