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  • Diffrernce between BackgroundWorker.ReportProgress() and Control.Invoke()

    - by ohadsc
    What is the difference between options 1 and 2 in the following? private void BGW_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { for (int i=1; i<=100; i++) { string txt = i.ToString(); if (Test_Check.Checked) //OPTION 1 Test_BackgroundWorker.ReportProgress(i, txt); else //OPTION 2 this.Invoke((Action<int, string>)UpdateGUI, new object[] {i, txt}); } } private void BGW_ProgressChanged(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { UpdateGUI(e.ProgressPercentage, (string)e.UserState); } private void UpdateGUI(int percent, string txt) { Test_ProgressBar.Value = percent; Test_RichTextBox.AppendText(txt + Environment.NewLine); } Looking at reflector, the Control.Invoke() appears to use: this.FindMarshalingControl().MarshaledInvoke(this, method, args, 1); whereas BackgroundWorker.Invoke() appears to use: this.asyncOperation.Post(this.progressReporter, args); (I'm just guessing these are the relevant function calls.) If I understand correctly, BGW Posts to the WinForms window its progress report request, whereas Control.Invoke uses a CLR mechanism to invoke on the right thread. Am I close? And if so, what are the repercussions of using either ? Thanks

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  • How to control virtual memory management in linux?

    - by chmike
    I'm writing a program that uses an mmap file to hold a huge buffer organized as an array of 64 MB blocks. The blocks are used to aggregate data received from different hosts through the network. As a consequence the total data size written in each block is not known in advance. Most of the time it is only 2MB but in some cases it can be up to 20MB or more. The data doesn't stay long in the buffer. 90% is deleted after less than a second and the rest is transmitted to another host. I would like to know if there is a way to tell the virtual memory manager that ram pages are not dirty anymore when data is deleted. Should I use mmap and munmap when a block is used and released to control the virtual memory ? What would be the overhead of doing this ? Also, some colleagues expressed concerns about the performance impact of allocating such a big mmap space. I expect it to behave like a swap file so that only dirty pages are to be considered.

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  • Manually Trigger or Prevent Javascript Lazy Loading in Website from Bookmarklet

    - by stwhite
    One of the problems with using a bookmarklet for grabbing images on a page is that if a website uses lazy loading, the bookmarklet won't detect the image because it will have a placeholder, e.g. "grey.gif" and not the actual source of the image. Javascript on page load, is run to replace these urls. I'm looking for a solution to retrieve those images that are not being displayed by either triggering or preventing Lazy Loading from running. This bookmarklet isn't limited to one specific domain. So far some ideas I've had are: Ping the domain and retrieve the page html if no images are found the first time around: Problem: this then requires parsing the actual html. Problem: with lazy loading, a few images will always show, just none below the fold. Scroll page to initiate lazy loading when bookmarklet is clicked, then scroll back to top. Trigger Lazy Loading from inside bookmarklet using script. Lazy Loader adds the "original" attribute, potentially could check if attribute exists w/ value. Problem: ???

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  • C# Virtual method call in constructor - how to refactor?

    - by Cristi Diaconescu
    I have an abstract class for database-agnostic cursor actions. Derived from that, there are classes that implement the abstract methods for handling database-specific stuff. The problem is, the base class ctor needs to call an abstract method - when the ctor is called, it needs to initialize the database-specific cursor. I know why this shouldn't be done, I don't need that explanation! This is my first implementation, that obviously doesn't work - it's the textbook "wrong way" of doing it. The overridden method accesses a field from the derived class, which is not yet instantiated: public abstract class CursorReader { private readonly int m_rowCount; protected CursorReader() { m_rowCount = CreateCursor(sqlCmd); //virtual call ! } protected abstract int CreateCursor(string sqlCmd); } public class SqlCursorReader : CursorReader { private SqlConnection m_sqlConnection; public SqlCursorReader(string sqlCmd, SqlConnection sqlConnection) { m_sqlConnection = sqlConnection; //field initialized here } protected override int CreateCursor(string sqlCmd) { //uses not-yet-initialized member *m_sqlConnection* //so this throws a NullReferenceException var cursor = new CustomCursor(sqlCmd, m_sqlConnection); return cursor.Count(); } } I will follow up with an answer on my attempts to fix this...

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  • Executing untrusted code

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

    - by user1461135
    I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

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  • git rebase onto remote updates

    - by Blake Chambers
    I work with a small team that uses git for source cod management. Recently, we have been doing topic branches to keep track of features then merging them into master locally then pushing them to a central git repository on a remote server. This works great when no changes have been made in master: I create my topic branch, commit it, merge it into master, then push. Hooray. However, if someone has pushed to origin before i do, my commits are not fast-forward. Thus a merge commit ensues. This also happens when a topic branch needs to merge with master locally to ensure my changes work with the code as of now. So, we end up with merge commits everywhere and a git log rivaling a friendship bracelet. So, rebasing is the obvious choice. What I would like is to: create topic branches holding several commits checkout master and pull (fast-forward because i haven't committed to master) rebase topic branches onto the new head of master rebase topics against master(so the topics start at masters head), bringing master up to my topic head My way of doing this currently is listed below: git checkout master git rebase master topic_1 git rebase topic_1 topic_2 git checkout master git rebase topic_2 git branch -d topic_1 topic_2 Is there a faster way to do this?

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  • Can I commit changes to actual database while debugging C# in Visual Studio?

    - by nathant23
    I am creating a C# application using Visual Studio that uses an SQLExpress database. When I hit f5 to debug the application and make changes to the database I believe what is happening is there is a copy of the database in the bin/debug folder that changes are being made to. However, when I stop the debugging and then hit f5 the next time a new copy of the database is being put in the bin/debug folder so that all the changes made the last time are gone. My question is: Is there a way that when I am debugging the application I can have it make changes to the actual database and those changes are actually saved or will it only make changes to the copy in the bin/debug folder (if that is what is actually happening)? I've seen similar questions, but I couldn't find an answer that said if it's possible to make those changes persistent in the actual .mdf file. The reason I ask is because as I build this application I am continuously adding pieces and testing to make sure they all work together. When I put in test data I am using actual data that I would like to stay in the database. This would just help me not have to reenter the data later. Thanks in advance for any help or information that could help me better understand the process.

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  • 'LINQ query plan' horribly inefficient but 'Query Analyser query plan' is perfect for same SQL!

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I have a LINQ to SQL query that generates the following SQL : exec sp_executesql N'SELECT COUNT(*) AS [value] FROM [dbo].[SessionVisit] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[VisitedStore] = @p0) AND (NOT ([t0].[Bot] = 1)) AND ([t0].[SessionDate] > @p1)',N'@p0 int,@p1 datetime', @p0=1,@p1='2010-02-15 01:24:00' (This is the actual SQL taken from SQL Profiler on SQL Server 2008.) The query plan generated when I run this SQL from within Query Analyser is perfect. It uses an index containing VisitedStore, Bot, SessionDate. The query returns instantly. However when I run this from C# (with LINQ) a different query plan is used that is so inefficient it doesn't even return in 60 seconds. This query plan is trying to do a key lookup on the clustered primary key which contains a couple million rows. It has no chance of returning. What I just can't understand though is that the EXACT same SQL is being run - either from within LINQ or from within Query Analyser yet the query plan is different. I've ran the two queries many many times and they're now running in isolation from any other queries. The date is DateTime.Now.AddDays(-7), but I've even hardcoded that date to eliminate caching problems. Is there anything i can change in LINQ to SQL to affect the query plan or try to debug this further? I'm very very confused!

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • Problem with OnSubmit in Validation plugin in jQuery

    - by novellino
    Hello, I an quite new to jQuery and I have a problem while trying to create a form. I am using the Validation plugin for validate the email (one the form's field). When I click the Submit button I want to call my own function because I want to save the data in an XML file. This is my button: (as I understood the plugin uses "submit" for understand the button) <input type="submit" name="submit" class="submit" id="submit_btn" value="Send"/> and here is the script for the validation: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //this is my form $("#contactForm").validate(); /*save the valid data in the xml*/ $(".submit").click(function() { var email = $("input#email").val(); var subject = $("input#subject").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); if (email == "" || !$("#contactForm").valid()) { return false; } var dataString = 'email='+ email + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message; //alert("DATA: " +dataString); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "SaveData.jsp", data: dataString, success: function(data){} }); return false; }); }); </script> In general it works ok but I have two basic problems. When I click the button in the beginning having all the form empty, I get no message for the field required. Also when the data are valid and I am doing the submit, the form does not become clear after the submit. If I deleted this script code, these actions are working properly but I can not save the data! Does anyone know what is wrong? Thanks a lot!

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  • Using WIndows PowerShell 1.0 or 2.0 to evaluate performance of executable files.

    - by Andry
    Hello! I am writing a simple script on Windows PowerShell in order to evaluate performance of executable files. The important hypothesisi is the following: I have an executable file, it can be an application written in any possible language (.net and not, Viual-Prolog, C++, C, everything that can be compiled as an .exe file). I want to profile it getting execution times. I did this: Function Time-It { Param ([string]$ProgramPath, [string]$Arguments) $Watch = New-Object System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch $NsecPerTick = (1000 * 1000 * 1000) / [System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch]::Frequency Write-Output "Stopwatch created! NSecPerTick = $NsecPerTick" $Watch.Start() # Starts the timer [System.Diagnostics.Process]::Start($ProgramPath, $Arguments) $Watch.Stop() # Stops the timer # Collectiong timings $Ticks = $Watch.ElapsedTicks $NSecs = $Watch.ElapsedTicks * $NsecPerTick Write-Output "Program executed: time is: $Nsecs ns ($Ticks ticks)" } This function uses stopwatch. Well, the functoin accepts a program path, the stopwatch is started, the program run and the stopwatch then stopped. Problem: the System.Diagnostics.Process.Start is asynchronous and the next instruction (watch stopped) is not executed when the application finishes. A new process is created... I need to stop the timer once the program ends. I thought about the Process class, thicking it held some info regarding the execution times... not lucky... How to solve this?

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  • Powershell - Using variables in -Include filter

    - by TheD
    (again!) My final question for the night. I have a function which uses the Get-ChildItem to work out the newest file within a folder. The reason being I need to find the latest incremental backup in a folder and script an EXE to mount it. However, within this same folder there are multiple backup chains for all different servers: i.e. SERVER1_C_VOL_b001_i015.spi SERVER2_D_VOL_b001_i189.spi SERVER1_C_VOL_b002_i091.spi SERVER1_E_VOL_b002_i891.spi (this is the newest file created) I want only to look at SERVER1, look at only the C_VOL and look at only b001 - nothing else. I have all these seperate components: the drive letter, the Server Name, the b00X number stored in array. How then can I go and use the Get-ChildItem with the -Include filter to only look at: .spi SERVER1 C_VOL b001 Given I have all of these separate components in an array taken from a text file: Get-Content .\PostBackupCheck-TextFile.txt | Select-Object -First $i { $a = $_ -split ' ' ; $locationArray += "$($a[0]):\$($a[1])\$($a[2])" ; $imageArray += "$($a[2])_$($a[3])_VOL_b00$($a[4])_i$($a[5]).spi" } I then go onto try and filter then and then get stuck: $latestIncremental = Get-ChildItem -Path ${shadowProtectDataLocation}\*.* -Include *.spi | Sort-Object LastAccessTime -Descending | Select-Object -First 1 I have the .spi filtered, but how can I also just include the C (for volume), the number for the b00x and the server name. Thanks!

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  • Iterate with binary structure over numpy array to get cell sums

    - by Curlew
    In the package scipy there is the function to define a binary structure (such as a taxicab (2,1) or a chessboard (2,2)). import numpy from scipy import ndimage a = numpy.zeros((6,6), dtype=numpy.int) a[1:5, 1:5] = 1;a[3,3] = 0 ; a[2,2] = 2 s = ndimage.generate_binary_structure(2,2) # Binary structure #.... Calculate Sum of result_array = numpy.zeros_like(a) What i want is to iterate over all cells of this array with the given structure s. Then i want to append a function to the current cell value indexed in a empty array (example function sum), which uses the values of all cells in the binary structure. For example: array([[0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0], [0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0], [0, 1, 2, 1, 1, 0], [0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 0], [0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0], [0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0]]) # The array a. The value in cell 1,2 is currently one. Given the structure s and an example function such as sum the value in the resulting array (result_array) becomes 7 (or 6 if the current cell value is excluded). Someone got an idea?

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  • White Screen of Death (WSOD) in Browser

    - by nickyt
    Here's the specs: ASP.NET 3.5 using ASP.NET AJAX AJAX Control Toolkit jQuery 1.3.2 web services IIS6 on Windows Server 2003 SP1 SP1 SQLServer 2005 SP3 Site is SSL Here's the problem: I'm getting the White Screen of Death (WSOD) in pretty much any browser (at least FireFox and IE 7/8). We have an application that uses one popup window for updating records. Most of the time when you click on the [Edit] button to edit a record, the popup window opens and loads the update page. However, after editing records for a while, all of a sudden the popup window will open, but it stays blank and just hangs. The URL is in the address bar. Loading up Fiddler I noticed that the request for the update page is never sent which leads me to believe it's some kind of lockup on the client-side. If I copy the same URL that's in the popup window into a new browser window, the page generally loads fine. Observations: - Since the request is never sent to the server, it's definitely something client-side - Only appears to happen when there is some semblance of traffic on the site which is weird because this appears to be contained within client-side code - There is a web service being called in the background every few seconds checking if the user is logged on, but this doesn't cause the freeze. I'm really at a loss here. I've googled WSOD but not much seems to appear related to my specific WSOD. Any ideas?

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  • php class scope when calling a non-method function not accessing all class members

    - by Aglystas
    So I'm using a stand alone function from within a class that that uses the class it's being called from. Here's the function function catalogProductLink($product_id,$product_name,$categories=true) { //This is the class that the function is called from global $STATE; if ($categories) { //The $STATE->category_id is the property I want to access, which I can't if (is_array($STATE->category_id)) { foreach($STATE->category_id as $cat_id) { if ($cat_id == 0) continue; $str .= "c$cat_id/"; } } } $str .= catalogUrlKeywords($product_name).'-p'.$product_id.'.html'; return $str; } And here's the function call, which is being made from within the $STATE class. $redirect = catalogProductLink($this->product_id, $tempProd->product_name, true, false); The object that I need access to is the $STATE object that has been declared global. Prior to this function call there are lots of public properties populated, but when I look at the $STATE object within the function scope it loses all the properties but one, product_id. The property that matters for this function is the category_id property, which is an array of category id's. I'm wondering why I don't have access to all the public properties of the $STATE object and how I can get access to them.

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  • .htaccess redirect or rewrite to default language url

    - by Saif Bechan
    I have a website that is currently in Dutch. Now I want to make the website multi-language starting with English. I am not that good at .htaccess files and the information on the web is quite confusing. The website I have now uses pretty urls, so all my urls look like this: http://mydomain.com/about/info http://mydomain.com/about/contact The code that I use for that is the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-l RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?rt=$1 [L,QSA] </IfModule> I really do not know what this means, esp the [L,QSA]. But it's ok, it works for now. But now I want to add a default redirect to the code. So it becomes as follow http://mydomain.com becomes http://mydomain.com/nl I assume all my old links http://mydomain.com/about/info will not work anymore, but that is a step I am willing to take. Can someone please help me with this code. I have seen a lot of peaces of code, but I can not find the right one.

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  • what use does the javascript forEach method have (that map can't do)?

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, The only difference I see in map and foreach is that map is returning an array and foreach is not. However, I don't even understand the last line of the foreach method "func.call(scope, this[i], i, this);". For example, isn't "this" and "scope" referring to same object and isn't this[i] and i referring to the current value in the loop? I noticed on another post someone said "Use forEach when you want to do something on the basis of each element of the list. You might be adding things to the page, for example. Essentially, it's great for when you want "side effects". I don't know what is meant by side effects. Array.prototype.map = function(fnc) { var a = new Array(this.length); for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) { a[i] = fnc(this[i]); } return a; } Array.prototype.forEach = function(func, scope) { scope = scope || this; for (var i = 0, l = this.length; i < l; i++) func.call(scope, this[i], i, this); } Finally, are there any real uses for these methods in javascript (since we aren't updating a database) other than to manipulate numbers like this: alert([1,2,3,4].map(function(x){ return x + 1})); //this is the only example I ever see of map in javascript. Thanks for any reply.

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  • Formating Date in Freemarker to say "Today", "Yesterday", etc.

    - by egervari
    Is there a way in freemarker to compare dates to test if the date is today or yesterday... or do I have to write code in Java to do these tests? I basically want to do this: <#------------------------------------------------------------------------------ formatDate -------------------------------------------------------------------------------> <#macro formatDate date showTime=true> <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?is_today> Today <#elseif date?is_yesterday> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if> </#macro> EDIT: My best guess to implement this is to pass "today" and "yesterday" into the model for the pages that use this function and then compare the date values against these 2 objects in the model. I am out of out of options, but I'd rather not have to do this for every page that uses this macro. Any other options that are nicer? <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?date?string.short == today?date?string.short> Today <#elseif date?date?string.short == yesterday?date?string.short> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if>

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  • Using capistrano to deploy from different git branches

    - by Toms Mikoss
    I am using capistrano to deploy a RoR application. The codebase is in a git repository, and branching is widely used in development. Capistrano uses deploy.rb file for it's settings, one of them being the branch to deploy from. My problem is this: let's say I create a new branch A from master. The deploy file will reference master branch. I edit that, so A can be deployed to test environment. I finish working on the feature, and merge branch A into master. Since the deploy.rb file from A is fresher, it gets merged in and now the deploy.rb in master branch references A. Time to edit again. That's a lot of seemingly unnecessary manual editing - the parameter should always match current branch name. On top of that, it is easy to forget to edit the settings each and every time. What would be the best way to automate this process? Edit: Turns out someone already had done exactly what I needed.

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  • Androids ExpandableListView - where to put the button listener for buttons that are children

    - by CommonKnowledge
    I have been playing around a lot with the ExpandableListView and I cannot figure out where to add the button listeners for the button that will be the children in the view. I did manage to get a button listener working that uses getChildView() below, but it seems to be the same listener for all the buttons. The best case scenario is that I would be able to implement the button listeners in the class that instantiates the ExpandableListAdapter class, and not have to put the listeners in the actual ExpandableListAdapter class. At this point I don't even know if that is possible I have been experimenting with this tutorial/code: HERE getChildView() @Override public View getChildView(int set_new, int child_position, boolean view, View view1, ViewGroup view_group1) { ChildHolder childHolder; if (view1 == null) { view1 = LayoutInflater.from(info_context).inflate(R.layout.list_group_item_lv, null); childHolder = new ChildHolder(); childHolder.section_btn = (Button)view1.findViewById(R.id.item_title); view1.setTag(childHolder); childHolder.section_btn.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(info_context, "button pushed", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }); }else { childHolder = (ChildHolder) view1.getTag(); } childHolder.section_btn.setText(children_collection.get(set_new).GroupItemCollection.get(child_position).section); Typeface tf = Typeface.createFromAsset(info_context.getAssets(), "fonts/AGENCYR.TTF"); childHolder.section_btn.setTypeface(tf); return view1; } Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you and I will be standing by.

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  • RegisterStartupScript doesn't appear to be working on page postback within update panel

    - by Jen
    OK - so am working on a system that uses a custom datepicker control (I know there are other ones out there.. but for consistency would like to understand why my current issue is happening and fix it). So its a custom user control with a textbox and on Page_PreRender does this: protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { string clientScript = @" $(function(){ $('#" + this.Date1.ClientID + @"').datepicker({dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy', constrainInput: true}); });"; Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), this.ClientID, clientScript, true); //Type t = this.GetType(); //if (!Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered(t, this.ClientID)) //{ // Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(t, this.ClientID, clientScript, true); //} } Ignore commented out stuff - that was me trying something different - didn't help. My issue is that this all works fine when I load the page. But if I select something from a dropdownlist causing a page postback - when I click into my date fields they stop working. As in I should be able to click into the textbox and a nice calendar control appears. But after postback there is no nice calendar control appearing! It's currently all wrapped (in the hosting page) inside an update panel. So I comment out the update panel stuff and the dates are working after page postback. So it appears to be something related to that update panel. Any suggestions please? Thanks!!

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  • URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

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  • Exception calling UpdateModel - Value cannot be null or empty

    - by James Alexander
    This is probably something silly I'm missing but I'm definitely lost. I'm using .NET 4 RC and VS 2010. This is also my first attempt to use UpdateModel in .NET 4, but every time I call it, I get an exception saying Value cannont be null or empty. I've got a simple ViewModel called LogOnModel: [MetadataType(typeof(LogOnModelMD))] public class LogOnModel { public string Username { get; set; } public string Password { get; set; } public class LogOnModelMD { [StringLength(3), Required] public object Username { get; set; } [StringLength(3), Required] public object Password { get; set; } } } My view uses the new strongly typed helpers in MVC2 to generate a textbox for username and one for the password. When I look at FormCollection in my controller method, I see values for both coming through. And last but not least, here's are post controller methods: // POST: /LogOn/ [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(FormCollection form) { var lm = new LogOnModel(); UpdateModel(lm, form); var aservice = new AuthenticationService(); if (!aservice.AuthenticateLocal(lm.Username, lm.Password)) { ModelState.AddModelError("User", "The username or password submitted is invalid, please try again."); return View(lm); } return Redirect("~/Home"); } Can someone please lend some insight into why UpdateModel would be throwing this exception? Thanks!

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