Search Results

Search found 14384 results on 576 pages for 'custom paging'.

Page 504/576 | < Previous Page | 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511  | Next Page >

  • how to set a fixed color bar for pcolor in python matplotlib?

    - by user248237
    I am using pcolor with a custom color map to plot a matrix of values. I set my color map so that low values are white and high values are red, as shown below. All of my matrices have values between 0 and 20 (inclusive) and I'd like 20 to always be pure red and 0 to always be pure white, even if the matrix has values that don't span the entire range. For example, if my matrix only has values between 2 and 7, I don't want it to plot 2 as white and 7 as red, but rather color it as if the range is still 0 to 20. How can I do this? I tried using the "ticks=" option of colorbar but it did not work. Here is my current code (assume "my_matrix" contains the values to be plotted): cdict = {'red': ((0.0, 1.0, 1.0), (0.5, 1.0, 1.0), (1.0, 1.0, 1.0)), 'green': ((0.0, 1.0, 1.0), (0.5, 1.0, 1.0), (1.0, 0.0, 0.0)), 'blue': ((0.0, 1.0, 1.0), (0.5, 1.0, 1.0), (1.0, 0.0, 0.0))} my_cmap = matplotlib.colors.LinearSegmentedColormap('my_colormap', cdict, 256) colored_matrix = plt.pcolor(my_matrix, cmap=my_cmap) plt.colorbar(colored_matrix, ticks=[0, 5, 10, 15, 20]) any idea how I can fix this to get the right result? thanks very much.

    Read the article

  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

    - by marue
    I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

    Read the article

  • Programatically rebuild .exd-files when loading VBA

    - by aspartame
    Hi, After updating Microsoft Office 2007 to Office 2010 some custom VBA scripts embedded in our software failed to compile with the following error message: Object library invalid or contains references to object definitions that could not be found. As far as I know, this error is a result of a security update from Microsoft (Microsoft Security Advisory 960715). When adding ActiveX-controls to VBA scripts, information about the controls are stored in cache files on the local hard drive (.exd-files). The security update modified some of these controls, but the .exd-files were not automatically updated. When the VBA scripts try to load the old versions of the controls stored in the cached files, the error occurs. These cache-files must be removed from the hard drive in order for the controls to load successfully (which will create new, updated .exd-files automatically). What I would like to do is to programatically (using Visual C++) remove the outdated .exd-files when our software loads. When opening a VBA project using CApcProject::ApcProject.Open I set the following flag:axProjectThrowAwayCompiledState. TestHR(ApcProject.Open(pHost, (MSAPC::AxProjectFlag) (MSAPC::axProjectNormal | MSAPC::axProjectThrowAwayCompiledState))); According to the documentation, this flag should cause the VBA project to be recompiled and the temporary files to be deleted and rebuilt. I've also tried to update the checksum of the host application type library which should have the same effect. However none of these fixes seem to do the job and I'm running out of ideas. Help is very much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Wordpress/CSS: List Style Problem.

    - by Ben
    Hi all! I am reasonably new to Wordpress custom themes but I do have some knowlege of CSS, although I am terrible at customising other peoples code which is why I have the problem I am about to explain. I have started a website that my girlfriend and I are doing together. It uses the Simplo Wordpress theme which is pretty cool but when you add a post that has a list in it. It doesn't show the bullets on each of the items. I have tried adding 'list-style:circle;' to a the.postItem class and a couple of other divs and classes that I thought were relevant but it doesn't work. You can take a look for yourself, it may be easier to understand my problem that way. If you go to: http://brokeandstarving.com/234/bennos-shepherds-pie/ there is a list of ingredients and also the steps under the method is a list as well. My question is, where do I edit the CSS to make the bullets appear next to the list items? I hope that makes sense. Thanks in advance, - Ben

    Read the article

  • how to make a div element edit-able ,like a textarea when i click..

    - by zjm1126
    this is my code: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, user-scalable=no"> </head> <body> <style type="text/css" media="screen"> </style> <!--<div id="map_canvas" style="width: 500px; height: 300px;background:blue;"></div>--> <div class=b style="width: 200px; height: 200px;background:pink;position:absolute;left:500px;top:100px;"></div> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8rc3.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> </script> </body> </html> thanks

    Read the article

  • What Color is the Windows' System.Control? (Visual Studio Design View)

    - by jp2code
    In Visual Studio Design View, the selection of Form Colors in the Properties Pane are selectable from the "Custom", "Web", and "System" tabs. Of course, the color number can be used, too. When the "System" Tab is selected, the colors in the list depend on what type of Theme the Computer User has set on the PC. I'd like to stick with this, but I need to know how to "read in" the colors. I have controls that I create "on-the-fly" or often need to change a color back after getting the person's attention using a blink/flicker technique. How do I get the list of System Theme colors? Most forms have a BackColor that defaults to "Control", which looks like a very light gray under Windows 7, running the default Windows 7 Theme. I've managed to grab a color by physically reading the ARGB value in code, but I'd rather have a way to access the colors by their Theme Name, if that can be done. public Form1() { Color cControl = this.BackColor; Console.WriteLine(cControl.Name); // there is not always a name! } Does anyone know what I'm talking about?

    Read the article

  • Zend Routes conflict

    - by meder
    I have defined 2 custom routes. One for threads/:id/:name and the other for threads/tags/:tagName however the second one conflicts with the first because if I enable both then the first breaks and treats :id literally as an action, not obeying the \d+ requirement ( I also tried using pure regex routes, see bottom ). Action "1" does not exist and was not trapped in __call() I tried re-arranging the order of the routes but if I do that then the threads/tags/:tagName doesnt correctly capture the tagName. I also tried disabling default routes but the routes still don't properly work after that. Here's my route init function: protected function _initRoutes() { $fc = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $router = $fc->getRouter(); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/:id/:name', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 'id' => '\d+' ) ) ); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/tags/:tagName', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'tags', ), array( 'tagName' => '[a-zA-Z]+' ) ) ); } I also tried using a pure regex route but was unsuccessful, most likely because I did it wrong: $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex( 'threads/(\d+)/([a-zA-Z]+)', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 1 => 'tagName', 2 => 'name' ) ) );

    Read the article

  • noncopyable static const member class in template class

    - by Dukales
    I have a non-copyable (inherited from boost::noncopyable) class that I use as a custom namespace. Also, I have another class, that uses previous one, as shown here: #include <boost/utility.hpp> #include <cmath> template< typename F > struct custom_namespace : boost::noncopyable { F sqrt_of_half(F const & x) const { using std::sqrt; return sqrt(x / F(2.0L)); } // ... maybe others are not so dummy const/constexpr methods }; template< typename F > class custom_namespace_user { static ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_; public : F poisson() const { return custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(M_PI); } static F square_diagonal(F const & a) { return a * custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(1.0L); } }; template< typename F > ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_user< F >::custom_namespace_(); this code leads to the next error (even without instantiation): error: no 'const custom_namespace custom_namespace_user::custom_namespace_()' member function declared in class 'custom_namespace_user' The next way is not legitimate: template< typename F ::custom_namespace< F const custom_namespace_user< F ::custom_namespace_ = ::custom_namespace< F (); What should I do to declare this two classes (first as noncopyable static const member class of second)? Is this feaseble?

    Read the article

  • DataSets to POCOs - an inquiry regarding DAL architecture

    - by alexsome
    Hello all, I have to develop a fairly large ASP.NET MVC project very quickly and I would like to get some opinions on my DAL design to make sure nothing will come back to bite me since the BL is likely to get pretty complex. A bit of background: I am working with an Oracle backend so the built-in LINQ to SQL is out; I also need to use production-level libraries so the Oracle EF provider project is out; finally, I am unable to use any GPL or LGPL code (Apache, MS-PL, BSD are okay) so NHibernate/Castle Project are out. I would prefer - if at all possible - to avoid dishing out money but I am more concerned about implementing the right solution. To summarize, there are my requirements: Oracle backend Rapid development (L)GPL-free Free I'm reasonably happy with DataSets but I would benefit from using POCOs as an intermediary between DataSets and views. Who knows, maybe at some point another DAL solution will show up and I will get the time to switch it out (yeah, right). So, while I could use LINQ to convert my DataSets to IQueryable, I would like to have a generic solution so I don't have to write a custom query for each class. I'm tinkering with reflection right now, but in the meantime I have two questions: Are there any problems I overlooked with this solution? Are there any other approaches you would recommend to convert DataSets to POCOs? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • UITableViewCell Problem....

    - by balu
    Hi friends... i am creating a Custom reusable UITableViewCell with Three labels and one imageView,and i am removing them in cell's dealloc method... all is working fine but the problem is the text in cell getting Dark while selected... it and it is kind of overlapping on each other help me to avoid that problem... - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewCellStyle)style reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)reuseIdentifier { if (self = [super initWithStyle:style reuseIdentifier:reuseIdentifier]) { NSLog(@"Address for cel called"); NameLbl = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5,5,140,20)]; [self.contentView addSubview:NameLbl]; NameLbl.font =[UIFont fontWithName:@"Times New Roman" size:15]; NameLbl.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:15]; NameLbl.opaque=YES; NameLbl.tag = 1001; AddressLbl = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5,25,140,20)]; [self.contentView addSubview:AddressLbl]; AddressLbl.font =[UIFont fontWithName:@"Times New Roman" size:15]; AddressLbl.opaque=YES; AddressLbl.tag = 1002; CityStateZipLbl = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5,50,150,20)]; [self.contentView addSubview:CityStateZipLbl]; CityStateZipLbl.opaque=YES; CityStateZipLbl.tag = 1003; CityStateZipLbl.font =[UIFont fontWithName:@"Times New Roman" size:15]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [CityStateZipLbl release]; [NameLbl release]; [AddressLbl release]; [super dealloc]; }

    Read the article

  • How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

    - by Jon Cram
    Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

    Read the article

  • Multiple Inheritence with same Base Classes in Python

    - by Jordan Reiter
    I'm trying to wrap my head around multiple inheritance in python. Suppose I have the following base class: class Structure(object): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a structure!" self.components = args And let's say I have two classes that inherit from it: class House(Structure): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a house!" super(House, self).build(*args) class School(Structure): def build(self, type="Elementary", *args): print "I am building a school!" super(School, self).build(*args) Finally, a create a class that uses multiple inheritance: class SchoolHouse(School, House): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a schoolhouse!" super(School, self).build(*args) Then, I create a SchoolHouse object and run build on it: >>> sh = SchoolHouse() >>> sh.build("roof", "walls") I am building a schoolhouse! I am building a house! I am building a structure! So I'm wondering -- what happened to the School class? Is there any way to get Python to run both somehow? I'm wondering specifically because there are a fair number of Django packages out there that provide custom Managers for models. But there doesn't appear to be a way to combine them without writing one or the other of the Managers as inheriting from the other one. It'd be nice to just import both and use both somehow, but looks like it can't be done? Also I guess it'd just help to be pointed to a good primer on multiple inheritance in Python. I have done some work with Mixins before and really enjoy using them. I guess I just wonder if there is any elegant way to combine functionality from two different classes when they inherit from the same base class.

    Read the article

  • sybase - values from one table that aren't on another, on opposite ends of a 3-table join

    - by Lazy Bob
    Hypothetical situation: I work for a custom sign-making company, and some of our clients have submitted more sign designs than they're currently using. I want to know what signs have never been used. 3 tables involved: table A - signs for a company sign_pk(unique) | company_pk | sign_description 1 --------------------1 ---------------- small 2 --------------------1 ---------------- large 3 --------------------2 ---------------- medium 4 --------------------2 ---------------- jumbo 5 --------------------3 ---------------- banner table B - company locations company_pk | company_location(unique) 1 ------|------ 987 1 ------|------ 876 2 ------|------ 456 2 ------|------ 123 table C - signs at locations (it's a bit of a stretch, but each row can have 2 signs, and it's a one to many relationship from company location to signs at locations) company_location | front_sign | back_sign 987 ------------ 1 ------------ 2 987 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 876 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 456 ------------ 3 ------------ 4 123 ------------ 4 ------------ 3 So, a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location. What I want to try and find is how to query and get back that sign_pk 5 isn't at any location. Querying each sign_pk against all of the front_sign and back_sign values is a little impractical, since all the tables have millions of rows. Table a is indexed on sign_pk and company_pk, table b on both fields, and table c only on company locations. The way I'm trying to write it is along the lines of "each sign belongs to a company, so find the signs that are not the front or back sign at any of the locations that belong to the company tied to that sign." My original plan was: Select a.sign_pk from a, b, c where a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location and a.sign_pk *= c.front_sign group by a.sign_pk having count(c.front_sign) = 0 just to do the front sign, and then repeat for the back, but that won't run because c is an inner member of an outer join, and also in an inner join. This whole thing is fairly convoluted, but if anyone can make sense of it, I'll be your best friend.

    Read the article

  • Executing untrusted code

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

    Read the article

  • Code-Golf: one line PHP syntax

    - by Kendall Hopkins
    Explanation PHP has some holes in its' syntax and occasionally in development a programmer will step in them. This can lead to much frustration as these syntax holes seem to exist for no reason. For example, one can't easily create an array and access an arbitrary element of that array on the same line (func1()[100] is not valid PHP syntax). The workaround for this issue is to use a temporary variable and break the statement into two lines, but sometimes that can lead to very verbose, clunky code. Challenge I know of a few of these holes (I'm sure there are more). It is quite hard to even come up with a solution, let alone in a code-golf style. Winner is the person with in the least characters total for all four Syntax Holes. Rules Statement must be one line in this form: $output = ...;, where ... doesn't contain any ;'s. Only use standard library functions (no custom functions allowed) Statement works identically to the assumed functional of the non-working syntax (even in cases that it fails). Statement must run without syntax error of any kind with E_STRICT | E_ALL. Syntax Holes $output = func_return_array()[$key]; - accessing an arbitrary offset (string or integer) of the returned array of a function $output = new {$class_base.$class_suffix}(); - arbitrary string concatenation being used to create a new class $output = {$func_base.$func_suffix}(); - arbitrary string concatenation being called as function $output = func_return_closure()(); - call a closure being returned from another function

    Read the article

  • php error reporting - having trouble matching local & web server settings

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm trying to add a custom error handler to my site, but in doing so have discovered that my webhost's PHP error reporting settings and those of my localhost (default XAMPP) vary considerably. While I thought I was programming to E_STRICT like a good little boy, adding the error handler to my webhost revealed craploads of Runtime Notices. Example: Runtime notice strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. Please use the date.timezone setting, the TZ environment variable or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/Chicago' for 'CST/-6.0/no DST' instead In /home/... Clearly this isn't a red-alert, showstopping error. But what bothers me is that it doesn't show up on my localhost. I'd certainly like to improve my code by addressing these sorts of issues if I could see them! I've looked through both php.ini files, and my webhost's setting is error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE whereas mine was error_reporting = E_STRICT, which I had thought was better. However, changing mine to match and rebooting the server doesn't seem to have accomplished anything. Could someone please point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Why do I get a security warning in visual studio 2008 when creating a project?

    - by MikeG
    This is the error, it's basically a security warning (And here's the text grabbed off the dialog box) Security Warning for WindowsApplication4 __________________________I The WindowsApplication4 project file has been customized and could present a security risk by executing custom build steps when opened in Microsoft Visual Studio. If this project came from an untrustwoithy source, it could cause damage to your computer or compromise your private information. More Details Project load options 0 Load project for browsing Opens the project in Microsoft Visual Studio with increased security. This option allows you to browse the contents of the project, but some functionality, such as IntelliSense, is restricted, When a project is loaded for browsing, actions such as building, cleaning, publishing, or opening designers could still remain unsafe. Load project normally Opens the project normally in Microsoft Visual Studio. Use this option if you trust the source and understand the potential risks involved. Microsoft Visual Studio does not restrict any project functionality and will not prompt you again for this project. Ask me for every project in this solution OK L Cancel When click the more details button get this: Microsoft Visual Studio __ An item referring to the file was found in the project file “C:\Users\mgriffiths\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\ProjectATemp\Win dowsApplication4\WindowsApplicdtion4\W in dowsApplication4.vbproj”. Since this file is located within a system directory, root directory, or network share, it could be harmful to write to this file. OK

    Read the article

  • question about jQuery droppable/draggable.

    - by FALCONSEYE
    I modified a sample photo manager application. photo manager application Instead of photos, I have employee records coming from a query. My version will let managers mark employees as on vacation, or at work. One of the things I did is to include employee ids like <a href="123">. I get the ids from event.target. This works for the click function but not for the "droppable" function. This is what I have for the click function: $('ul.gallery > li').click(function(ev) { var $item = $(this); var $unid = ev.target; var $target = $(ev.target); if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-suitcase')) { deleteImage($item,$unid); } else if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-arrowreturnthick-1-w')) { recycleImage($item,$unid); } return false; }); ev.target correctly gives the employee id. when i try the same in one of the droppable functions: $gallery.droppable({ accept: '#suitcase li', activeClass: 'custom-state-active', drop: function(ev, ui) { var $unid = ev.target; alert($unid); recycleImage(ui.draggable,$unid); } }); the alert(ui) gives me [object]. What's in this object? How do i get the href out of this? thanks

    Read the article

  • Share Localization

    - by fop6316
    I was able to localize my Alfresco Model (+ constraints lists) by following these rules : http://wiki.alfresco.com/wiki/Data_Dictionary_Guide#Model_Localization But I would like to know if there is something similar for Share ? Do we only have to use the "label-id" attributes without worrying of any convention ? Is it better to use : label.companyName=Company name or something like sop_sopModel.field.sop_companyName.title=Company Name or anything else ? I didn't see any recommandation on the wiki. Here is an example of label-id's I don't know how to format. This is a part of my share-config-custom.xml file. I know this is not really important but I would like to do things properly. <config evaluator="aspect" condition="sop:company"> <forms> <form> <field-visibility> <show id="sop:companyName" /> <show id="sop:companyAddress" /> </field-visibility> <appearance> <set id="sopPanel" appearance="bordered-panel" label-id="???" /> <field id="sop:companyName" label-id="???" set="sopPanel" /> <field id="sop:companyAddress" label-id="???" set="sopPanel" /> </appearance> </form> </forms> </config> Thanks

    Read the article

  • Flex DataGridColumn with array of objects as data provider

    - by rforte
    I have a datagrid that uses an array of objects as the data provider. The objects are essentially key/value pairs: { foo:"something"} { bar:"hello"} { caca:"lorem"} The datagrid has 2 columns. The first column is the key and the second column is the value. Right now my grid looks like: My dataFormatter function makes sure that depending on the column (i.e. the dataField value) the correct key or value gets printed out. This works fine for displaying. However, as soon as I try and edit the value field it essentially adds a new value into the object with a key of '1'. For example, if I edit the {caca:"lorem"} object it will then contain the value {caca:"lorem",1:"new value"}. Is there any possible way I can set the DataGridColumn so that when I edit a value it will update the value associated with the key rather than inserting a new value? I've tried using a custom item editor but it still does the insert. It seems like I need to be able to update the 'dataField' with the actual key value but I'm not sure how to do that.

    Read the article

  • WPF Usercontrol with textboxes

    - by benPearce
    I have a WPF user control with a number of textboxes, this is hosted on a WPF window. The textboxes are not currently bound but I cannot type into any of them. I have put a breakpoint in the KeyDown event of one of the textboxes and it hits it fine and I can see the key I pressed. The textboxes are declared as <TextBox Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="4" x:Name="PostcodeSearch" Style="{StaticResource SearchTextBox}" KeyDown="PostcodeSearch_KeyDown"/> The style is implemented as <Style x:Key="SearchTextBox" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Setter Property="Control.Margin" Value="2"/> <Setter Property="Height" Value="20"/> <Setter Property="Width" Value="140"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Left"/> </Style> I am hoping I have overlooked something obvious. EDIT: I only added the KeyDown and KeyUp events just to prove that the keys presses were getting through. I do not have any custom functionality.

    Read the article

  • Java: Generics, Class.isaAssignableFrom, and type casting

    - by bguiz
    This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupporteded value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

    Read the article

  • Shuffling words in a sentence in javascript (coding horror - How to improve?)

    - by Bill Zimmerman
    Hi, I'm trying to do something that is fairly simple, but my code looks terrible and I am certain there is a better way to do things in javascript. I am new to javascript, and am trying to improve my coding. This just feels very messy. All I want to do is to randomly change the order some words on a web page. In python, the code would look something like this: s = 'THis is a sentence' shuffledSentence = random.shuffle(s.split(' ')).join(' ') However, this is the monstrosity I've managed to produce in javascript //need custom sorting function because javascript doesn't have shuffle? function mySort(a,b) { return a.sortValue - b.sortValue; } function scrambleWords() { var content = $.trim($(this).contents().text()); splitContent = content.split(' '); //need to create a temporary array of objects to make sorting easier var tempArray = new Array(splitContent.length); for (var i = 0; i < splitContent.length; i++) { //create an object that can be assigned a random number for sorting var tmpObj = new Object(); tmpObj.sortValue = Math.random(); tmpObj.string = splitContent[i]; tempArray[i] = tmpObj; } tempArray.sort(mySort); //copy the strings back to the original array for (i = 0; i < splitContent.length; i++) { splitContent[i] = tempArray[i].string; } content = splitContent.join(' '); //the result $(this).text(content); } Can you help me to simplify things?

    Read the article

  • Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

    - by mad
    Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511  | Next Page >