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  • Function Returning Negative Value

    - by Geowil
    I still have not run it through enough tests however for some reason, using certain non-negative values, this function will sometimes pass back a negative value. I have done a lot of manual testing in calculator with different values but I have yet to have it display this same behavior. I was wondering if someone would take a look at see if I am missing something. float calcPop(int popRand1, int popRand2, int popRand3, float pERand, float pSRand) { return ((((((23000 * popRand1) * popRand2) * pERand) * pSRand) * popRand3) / 8); } The variables are all contain randomly generated values: popRand1: between 1 and 30 popRand2: between 10 and 30 popRand3: between 50 and 100 pSRand: between 1 and 1000 pERand: between 1.0f and 5500.0f which is then multiplied by 0.001f before being passed to the function above Edit: Alright so after following the execution a bit more closely it is not the fault of this function directly. It produces an infinitely positive float which then flips negative when I use this code later on: pPMax = (int)pPStore; pPStore is a float that holds popCalc's return. So the question now is, how do I stop the formula from doing this? Testing even with very high values in Calculator has never displayed this behavior. Is there something in how the compiler processes the order of operations that is causing this or are my values simply just going too high? If the later I could just increase the division to 16 I think.

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  • How do I access the names of VB6 modules from code?

    - by Mark Bertenshaw
    Hi All - It is unlikely that there is an answer for this one, but I'm asking anyway. I am currently maintaining some code, which is likely to be refactored soon. Before that happens, I want to make the standard error handling code, which is injected by an Add-In, more efficient and take up less space. One thing that annoys me is that every module has a constant called m_ksModuleName that is used to construct a big string, which is then rethrown from the error handler so we can trace the error stack. This is all template code, i.e. repetivitve, but I could easily strip it down to a procedure call. Now, I have fixed the code so that you can pass the Me reference to the procedure - but you can't do that for the BAS modules. Nor can you access the project name (the part which would be passed as part of a ProgramID, for instance) - although you get given it when you raise an error yourself. All these strings are contained in the EXE, DLL or OCX - believe me, I've used a debugger to find them. But how can I access these in code? -- Mark Bertenshaw

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  • OpenSocial create activity from submit click

    - by russp
    Hi I'm "playing with OpsnSocial" and think I get a lot of it (well thanks to Googles' bits) but one question if I may. Creating an activity Lets say I have a form like this (simple) <form> <input type="text" name="" id="testinput" value=""/> <input type="submit" name="" id="" value=""/> </form> And I want to post the value of the text field (and or a message i.e "just posted" to the "users" activity. Do I use a function like this? function createActivity() { if (viewer) { var activity = opensocial.newActivity({ title: viewer.getDisplayName() + ' VALUE FROM FORM '}); opensocial.requestCreateActivity(activity, "HIGH", function() { setTimeout(initAllData,1000); }); } }; If so, how do I pass the text field value to it - is it something like this? var testinput = document.getElementById("testinput"); so the function may look like function createActivity() { if (viewer) { var activity = opensocial.newActivity({ title: viewer.getDisplayName() + testinput }); opensocial.requestCreateActivity(activity, "HIGH", function() { setTimeout(initAllData,1000); }); } }; And how do I trigger the function by using the submit button. In my basic JQuery I would use $('#submitID').submit(function(){ 'bits in here '}); Is at "simple as that i.e. use the createActivity function and it will use the OS framework to "post" to the activity.xml

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  • Haskell Cons Operator (:)

    - by Carson Myers
    I am really new to Haskell (Actually I saw "Real World Haskell" from O'Reilly and thought "hmm, I think I'll learn functional programming" yesterday) and I am wondering: I can use the construct operator to add an item to the beginning of a list: 1 : [2,3] [1,2,3] I tried making an example data type I found in the book and then playing with it: --in a file data BillingInfo = CreditCard Int String String | CashOnDelivery | Invoice Int deriving (Show) --in ghci $ let order_list = [Invoice 2345] $ order_list [Invoice 2345] $ let order_list = CashOnDelivery : order_list $ order_list [CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, ...- etc... it just repeats forever, is this because it uses lazy evaluation? -- EDIT -- okay, so it is being pounded into my head that let order_list = CashOnDelivery:order_list doesn't add CashOnDelivery to the original order_list and then set the result to order_list, but instead is recursive and creates an infinite list, forever adding CashOnDelivery to the beginning of itself. Of course now I remember that Haskell is a functional language and I can't change the value of the original order_list, so what should I do for a simple "tack this on to the end (or beginning, whatever) of this list?" Make a function which takes a list and BillingInfo as arguments, and then return a list? -- EDIT 2 -- well, based on all the answers I'm getting and the lack of being able to pass an object by reference and mutate variables (such as I'm used to)... I think that I have just asked this question prematurely and that I really need to delve further into the functional paradigm before I can expect to really understand the answers to my questions... I guess what i was looking for was how to write a function or something, taking a list and an item, and returning a list under the same name so the function could be called more than once, without changing the name every time (as if it was actually a program which would add actual orders to an order list, and the user wouldn't have to think of a new name for the list each time, but rather append an item to the same list).

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  • iphone file download not working

    - by Anonymous
    Hi, In my app I 'm first connecting to a web service, which in return sends a url for a file. I use the url to download the file and then display it on the new view. I get the correct URL but not able to download file from that location. I have another test app which will download file from the same location and it works like a charm. following is my code for webservice-file download. This is a snippet of the code where i 'm parsing the web service xml and then pass the result to NSData for file download. Any suggestions where am i going wrong -- I 'm referring to the following tutorials. Web Service PDF Viewer if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"PRHPdfResultsResult"]) { NSLog(soapResults); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Report downloaded from:" message:soapResults delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; NSData *pdfData = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:soapResults]]; //Store the Data locally as PDF File NSString *resourceDocPath = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[[[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByDeletingLastPathComponent] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Documents"]]; NSString *filePath = [resourceDocPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"myPDF.pdf"]; [pdfData writeToFile:filePath atomically:YES]; [alert show]; [alert release]; [soapResults setString:@""]; elementFound = FALSE; }

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  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

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  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

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  • Passing Extras and screen rotation

    - by Luis A. Florit
    This kind of questions appear periodically. Sorry if this has been covered before, but I'm a newbie and couldn't find the appropriate answer. It deals with the correct implementation of communication between classes and activities. I made a gallery app. It has 3 main activities: the Main one, to search for filenames using a pattern; a Thumb one, that shows all the images that matched the pattern as thumbnails in a gridview, and a Photo activity, that opens a full sized image when you click a thumb in Thumbs. I pass to the Photo activity via an Intent the filenames (an array), and the position (an int) of the clicked thumb in the gridview. This third Photo activity has only one view on it: a TouchImageView, that I adapted for previous/next switching and zooming according to where you shortclick on the image (left, right or middle). Moreover, I added a longclick listener to Photo to show EXIF info. The thing is working, but I am not happy with the implementation... Some things are not right. One of the problems I am experiencing is that, if I click on the right of the image to see the next in the Photo activity, it switches fine (position++), but when rotating the device the original one at position appears. What is happening is that Photo is destroyed when rotating the image, and for some reason it restarts again, without obeying super.onCreate(savedInstanceState), loading again the Extras (the position only changed in Photo, not on the parent activities). I tried with startActivityForResult instead of startActivity, but failed... Of course I can do something contrived to save the position data, but there should be something "conceptual" that I am not understanding about how activities work, and I want to do this right. Can someone please explain me what I am doing wrong, which is the best method to implement what I want, and why? Thanks a lot!!!

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  • Ruby-on-Rails: Multiple has_many :through possible?

    - by williamjones
    Is it possible to have multiple has_many :through relationships that pass through each other in Rails? I received the suggestion to do so as a solution for another question I posted, but have been unable to get it to work. Friends are a cyclic association through a join table. The goal is to create a has_many :through for friends_comments, so I can take a User and do something like user.friends_comments to get all comments made by his friends in a single query. class User has_many :friendships has_many :friends, :through => :friendships, :conditions => "status = #{Friendship::FULL}" has_many :comments has_many :friends_comments, :through => :friends, :source => :comments end class Friendship < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :friend, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "friend_id" end This looks great, and makes sense, but isn't working for me. This is the error I'm getting in relevant part when I try to access a user's friends_comments: ERROR: column users.user_id does not exist : SELECT "comments".* FROM "comments" INNER JOIN "users" ON "comments".user_id = "users".id WHERE (("users".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) When I just enter user.friends, which works, this is the query it executes: : SELECT "users".* FROM "users" INNER JOIN "friendships" ON "users".id = "friendships".friend_id WHERE (("friendships".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) So it seems like it's entirely forgetting about the original has_many through friendship relationship, and then is inappropriately trying to use the User class as a join table. Am I doing something wrong, or is this simply not possible?

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  • LLVM: Passing a pointer to a struct, which holds a pointer to a function, to a JIT function

    - by Rusky
    I have an LLVM (version 2.7) module with a function that takes a pointer to a struct. That struct contains a function pointer to a C++ function. The module function is going to be JIT-compiled, and I need to build that struct in C++ using the LLVM API. I can't seem get the pointer to the function as an LLVM value, let alone pass a pointer to the ConstantStruct that I can't build. I'm not sure if I'm even on the track, but this is what I have so far: void print(char*); vector<Constant*> functions; functions.push_back(ConstantExpr::getIntToPtr( ConstantInt::get(Type::getInt32Ty(context), (int)print), /* function pointer type here, FunctionType::get(...) doesn't seem to work */ )); ConstantStruct* struct = cast<ConstantStruct>(ConstantStruct::get( cast<StructType>(m->getTypeByName("printer")), functions )); Function* main = m->getFunction("main"); vector<GenericValue> args; args[0].PointerVal = /* not sure what goes here */ ee->runFunction(main, args);

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  • Datareceived Serialport event stops raising after some seconds

    - by Mario
    Hi, I was hoping someone could help me out with this problem. I have a system (VB .NET) where I must read a person's weight (RS232 Sluice) and id (Fingerprint - 2 biometric reader, rs232) and compare it to a database. I have 3 serialports in my app, one for the sluice and the other 2 are to receive the id from the fingerprint readers, both of which call the same sub to get the id from the reader. I've been testing just one reader and it seemed to work fine, I got data from the datareceived and joined it together to get the id. The problem comes at this moment: I put a finger, sends the id, if it's ok sends a message, otherwise, writes the id to a textbox. But in-between reads, if I let 5 or 10 seconds pass without putting a finger on the reader it seems like I get no data at all anymore, the datareceived event nevers gets raised but if I keep putting a finger constantly it works pretty good, this is really weird to me. I was thinking of some things: **Maybe the port gets closed somehow after some time? I never call the CLose() method **The fact both datareceived eventhandlers call the same method and delegate **Maybe the connection settings are missing something? I tested with hyperterminal and the port keeps getting info even after time without activity and I use the same config with my application, maybe I need to change more settings like DTEenable and RTSenable? Please I need some help with this issue, it's to control access so it needs to be running 24/7 thanks in advance!

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  • Change a finder method w/ parameters to an association

    - by Sai Emrys
    How do I turn this into a has_one association? (Possibly has_one + a named scope for size.) class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' def avatar_asset size = :thumb # The LIKE is because it might be a .jpg, .png, or .gif. # More efficient methods that can handle that are OK. ;) self.assets.find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = '#{size}' and filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end EDIT: Cuing from AnalogHole on Freenode #rubyonrails, we can do this: has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' do def avatar size = :thumb find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = ? and filename LIKE ?", size.to_s, proxy_owner.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end ... which is fairly cool, and makes syntax a bit better at least. However, this still doesn't behave as well as I would like. Particularly, it doesn't allow for further nice find chaining (such that it doesn't execute this find until it's gotten all its conditions). More importantly, it doesn't allow for use in an :include. Ideally I want to do something like this: PostsController def show post = Post.get_cache(params[:id]) { Post.find(params[:id], :include => {:comments => {:users => {:avatar_asset => :thumb}} } ... end ... so that I can cache the assets together with the post. Or cache them at all, really - e.g. get_cache(user_id){User.find(user_id, :include => :avatar_assets)} would be a good first pass. This doesn't actually work (self == User), but is correct in spirit: has_many :avatar_assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id', :class_name => 'Asset', :conditions => ["filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_%"] (Also posted on Refactor My Code.)

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  • jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

    - by Elson Solano
    I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

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  • How to mimic polymorphism in classes with template methods (c++)?

    - by davide
    in the problem i am facing i need something which works more or less like a polymorphic class, but which would allow for virtual template methods. the point is, i would like to create an array of subproblems, each one being solved by a different technique implemented in a different class, but holding the same interface, then pass a set of parameters (which are functions/functors - this is where templates jump up) to all the subproblems and get back a solution. if the parameters would be, e.g., ints, this would be something like: struct subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter)=0; } struct subproblem0: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter){...}; } struct subproblem1: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double* solution, double parameter){...}; } int main{ subproblem problem[2]; subproblem[0] = new subproblem0(); subproblem[1] = new subproblem1(); double argument0(0), argument1(1), sol0[2], sol1[2]; for(unsigned int i(0);i<2;++i) { problem[i]->solve( &(sol0[i]) , argument0); problem[i]->solve( &(sol1[i]) , argument1); } return 0; } but the problem is, i need the arguments to be something like Arg<T1,T2> argument0(f1,f2) and thus the solve method to be something of the likes of template<T1,T2> solve (double* solution, Arg<T1,T2> parameter) which cant obviously be declared virtual ( so cant be called from a pointer to the base class)... now i'm pretty stuck and don't know how to procede...

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  • How to handle array element between int and Integer

    - by masato-san
    First, it is long post so if you need clarification please let me know. I'm new to Java and having difficulty deciding whether I should use int[] or Integer[]. I wrote a function that find odd_number from int[] array. public int[] find_odd(int[] arr) { int[] result = new int[arr.length]; for(int i=0; i<arr.length; i++) { if(arr[i] % 2 != 0) { //System.out.println(arr[i]); result[i] = arr[i]; } } return result; } Then, when I pass the int[] array consisting of some integer like below: int[] myArray = {-1, 0, 1, 2, 3}; int[] result = find_odd(myArray); The array "result" contains: 0, -1, 0, 1, 0, 3 Because in Java you have to define the size of array first, and empty int[] array element is 0 not null. So when I want to test the find_odd() function and expect the array to have odd numbers (which it does) only, it throws the error because the array also includes 0s representing "empty cell" as shown above. My test code: public void testFindOddPassValidIntArray() { int[] arr = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 3}; int[] result = findOddObj.find_odd(arr); //check if return array only contain odd number for(int i=0; i<result.length; i++) { if(result[i] != null) { assert is_odd(result[i]) : result[i]; } } } So, my question is should I use int[] array and add check for 0 element in my test like: if(result[i] != 0) { assert is_odd(result[i] : result[i] } But in this case, if find_odd() function is broken and returning 0 by miscalculation, I can't catch it because my test code would only assume that 0 is empty cell. OR should I use Integer[] array whose default is null? How do people deal with this kind of situation?

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  • Firing through HTTP a Perl script for sending signals to daemons

    - by Eric Fortis
    Hello guys, I'm using apache2 on Ubuntu. I have a Perl script which basically read the files names of a directory, then rewrites a text file, then sends a signal to a daemon. How can this be done, as secure as possible through a web-page? Actually I can run the code below, but not if I remove the comments. I'm looking for advise considering: Using HTTP Requests? How about Apache file permissions on the directory shown in code? Is htaccess enough to enable user/pass access to the cgi? Should I use a database instead of writing to a file and run a cron querying the db with permission granted to write and send the signal? Granting as less permissions as possible to the webserver. Should I set a VPN? #!/usr/bin/perl -wT use strict; use CGI; #@fileList = </home/user/*>; #read a directory listing my $query = CGI->new(); print $query->header( "text/html" ), $query->p( "FirstFileNameInArray" ), #$query->p( $fileList[0] ), #output the first file in directory $query->end_html;

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  • Getting ellipses function parameters without an initial argument

    - by Tox1k
    So I've been making a custom parser for a scripting language, and I wanted to be able to pass only ellipses arguments. I don't need or want an initial variable, however Microsoft and C seem to want something else. FYI, see bottom for info. I've looked at the va_* definitions #define _crt_va_start(ap,v) ( ap = (va_list)_ADDRESSOF(v) + _INTSIZEOF(v) ) #define _crt_va_arg(ap,t) ( *(t *)((ap += _INTSIZEOF(t)) - _INTSIZEOF(t)) ) #define _crt_va_end(ap) ( ap = (va_list)0 ) and the part I don't want is the v in va_start. As a little background I'm competent in goasm and I know how the stack works so I know what's happening here. I was wondering if there is a way to get the function stack base without having to use inline assembly. Ideas I've had: #define im_va_start(ap) (__asm { mov [ap], ebp }) and etc... but really I feel like that's messy and I'm doing it wrong. struct function_table { const char* fname; (void)(*fptr)(...); unsigned char maxArgs; }; function_table mytable[] = { { "MessageBox", &tMessageBoxA, 4 } }; ... some function that sorts through a const char* passed to it to find the matching function in mytable and calls tMessageBoxA with the params. Also, the maxArgs argument is just so I can check that a valid number of parameters is being sent. I have personal reasons for not wanting to send it in the function, but in the meantime we can just say it's because I'm curious. This is just an example; custom libraries are what I would be implementing so it wouldn't just be calling WinAPI stuff. void tMessageBoxA(...) { // stuff to load args passed MessageBoxA(arg1, arg2, arg3, arg4); } I'm using the __cdecl calling convention and I've looked up ways to reliably get a pointer to the base of the stack (not the top) but I can't seem to find any. Also, I'm not worried about function security or typechecking.

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  • Fun with casting and inheritance

    - by Vaccano
    NOTE: This question is written in a C# like pseudo code, but I am really going to ask which languages have a solution. Please don't get hung up on syntax. Say I have two classes: class AngleLabel: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // code to allow the label to be on an angle } class Label: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // Code for a normal label // Maybe has code not in an AngleLabel (align for example). } They both decend from this class: class CustomLabel: Control { protected bool Bold; } The bold field is exposed as public in the descended classes. No interfaces are available on the classes. Now, I have a method that I want to beable to pass in a CustomLabel and set the Bold property. Can this be done without having to 1) find out what the real class of the object is and 2) cast to that object and then 3) make seperate code for each variable of each label type to set bold. Kind of like this: public void SetBold(customLabel: CustomLabel) { AngleLabel angleLabel; NormalLabel normalLabel; if (angleLabel is AngleLabel ) { angleLabel= customLabel as AngleLabel angleLabel.Bold = true; } if (label is Label) { normalLabel = customLabel as Label normalLabel .Bold = true; } } It would be nice to maybe make one cast and and then set bold on one variable. What I was musing about was to make a fourth class that just exposes the bold variable and cast my custom label to that class. Would that work? If so, which languages would it work for? (This example is drawn from an old version of Delphi (Delphi 5)). I don't know if it would work for that language, (I still need to try it out) but I am curious if it would work for C++, C# or Java. If not, any ideas on what would work? (Remember no interfaces are provided and I can not modify the classes.) Any one have a guess?

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  • How do you tell that your unit tests are correct?

    - by Jacob Adams
    I've only done minor unit testing at various points in my career. Whenever I start diving into it again, it always troubles me how to prove that my tests are correct. How can I tell that there isn't a bug in my unit test? Usually I end up running the app, proving it works, then using the unit test as a sort of regression test. What is the recommended approach and/or what is the approach you take to this problem? Edit: I also realize that you could write small, granular unit tests that would be easy to understand. However, if you assume that small, granular code is flawless and bulletproof, you could just write small, granular programs and not need unit testing. Edit2: For the arguments "unit testing is for making sure your changes don't break anything" and "this will only happen if the test has the exact same flaw as the code", what if the test overfits? It's possible to pass both good and bad code with a bad test. My main question is what good is unit testing since if your tests can be flawed you can't really improve your confidence in your code, can't really prove your refactoring worked, and can't really prove that you met the specification?

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  • Cocoa NSTextField Drag & Drop Requires Subclass... Really?

    - by ipmcc
    Until today, I've never had occasion to use anything other than an NSWindow itself as an NSDraggingDestination. When using a window as a one-size-fits-all drag destination, the NSWindow will pass those messages on to its delegate, allowing you to handle drops without subclassing NSWindow. The docs say: Although NSDraggingDestination is declared as an informal protocol, the NSWindow and NSView subclasses you create to adopt the protocol need only implement those methods that are pertinent. (The NSWindow and NSView classes provide private implementations for all of the methods.) Either a window object or its delegate may implement these methods; however, the delegate’s implementation takes precedence if there are implementations in both places. Today, I had a window with two NSTextFields on it, and I wanted them to have different drop behaviors, and I did not want to allow drops anywhere else in the window. The way I interpret the docs, it seems that I either have to subclass NSTextField, or make some giant spaghetti-conditional drop handlers on the window's delegate that hit-checks the draggingLocation against each view in order to select the different drop-area behaviors for each field. The centralized NSWindow-delegate-based drop handler approach seems like it would be onerous in any case where you had more than a small handful of drop destination views. Likewise, the subclassing approach seems onerous regardless of the case, because now the drop handling code lives in a view class, so once you accept the drop you've got to come up with some way to marshal the dropped data back to the model. The bindings docs warn you off of trying to drive bindings by setting the UI value programmatically. So now you're stuck working your way back around that too. So my question is: "Really!? Are those the only readily available options? Or am I missing something straightforward here?" Thanks.

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  • MVVM and avoiding Monolithic God object

    - by bufferz
    I am in the completion stage of a large project that has several large components: image acquisition, image processing, data storage, factory I/O (automation project) and several others. Each of these components is reasonably independent, but for the project to run as a whole I need at least one instance of each component. Each component also has a ViewModel and View (WPF) for monitoring status and changing things. My question is the safest, most efficient, and most maintainable method of instantiating all of these objects, subscribing one class to an Event in another, and having a common ViewModel and View for all of this. Would it best if I have a class called God that has a private instance of all of these objects? I've done this in the past and regretted it. Or would it be better if God relied on Singleton instances of these objects to get the ball rolling. Alternatively, should Program.cs (or wherever Main(...) is) instantiate all of these components, and pass them to God as parameters and then let Him (snicker) and His ViewModel deal with the particulars of running this projects. Any other suggestions I would love to hear. Thank you!

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  • JQuery Post caused permission denied warning in IE 6 and IE 7

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am using firefox 3 and IE 6, 7 to test if a simple php web page using JQuery Post to pass some data to and from another server web page. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").click(function(){ var usr=$("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); if(usr.length >= 4){ $("#username").append('<span id="loaderimg" name="loaderimg"><img align="absmiddle" src="loader.gif"/> Checking data availability,&nbsp;please wait.</span>'); var url = "http://mysite.com/site1/toavail/"+usr; $.post( url, function(data) {alert(data);}); }); }); //--> </script> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> In Firefox 3, the alert box showed empty message. In IE 6 and IE 7, I got an error message saying "Permssion denied"

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  • encryption in c#

    - by Raja
    i am implementing on algorithm in c#. it has encrypt one word . i have check using decrypt also. now i am using a textbox. want to pass a string in that text box that gives my whole string as cypher text. i dont know how to use. i have mad one loop there and calacated the string length. now suppose my function is it is PasswordEncryptor.cs file public static double REncryptText(double m) {// code } this fuction is doing a single number convertion into the encrpt and in code i know this is wrong i want try in this for (int i = 0; i <= 32; i++) { int [] cyph = new int[5]; // cyph=PasswordEncryptor.REncryptText(i); cypherText.Text = c; } i want that after entering the string into textbox it will call that string till string length and and by adding all the part of string one by one, i will get a final encrpytion code and will use further please help me in doing this

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  • T-SQL: Dynamic Query by Selected Column in ASP.NET GridView

    - by jp2code
    I'm trying to modify a stored procedure used in an ASP.NET page. By default, the stored procedure returns all of the data, which can be overwhelming for employees in the plant. I want to add a drop down menu item for the column name and a text box for a value to allow our employees to search the data for their specific items. What I would like to add is the ability to pass in a Column Name and Column Value to search, similar to the following: DECLARE @colName nVarChar(50), @colValue nVarChar(50) SET @colName='EmployeeID' SET @colValue='007135' SELECT Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4, Column5, Column6, Column7 FROM viewNum1 WHERE ((@colName IS NULL) OR (@colValue IS NULL) OR ('['+@colName+']'=@colValue)) If all values passed in (@colValue and @colName), all records return; however, if I try specifying that @colName=EmployeeID and @colValue='007135' (a value that does exist in the database), no records are returned. Next is the problem that I am running an old SQL Server 2000 database that does not allow the stored procedure to access the table column names, and the whole technique looks prone to SQL Injection. Finally, I don't see how to bind my GridView control to this and still have the ability to display all records. How would I write such a filtering stored procedure?

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  • Passing time from server to client

    - by gskoli
    Dear all, i am creating a digital clock using images & javascript but i want to pass a server time that time ... How to do that ... I am getting time from server and passing it to Date Following i have given snippet . var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); function dotime(){ theTime=setTimeout('dotime();',1000); //d = new Date(Date.parse(time_str)); d= new Date(time_str); hr= d.getHours()+100; mn= d.getMinutes()+100; se= d.getSeconds()+100; var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); alert(' TIME ---> '+hr+' :: '+mn+' :: '+ se); if(hr==100){ hr=112;am_pm='am'; } else if(hr<112){ am_pm='am'; } else if(hr==112){ am_pm='pm'; } else if(hr>112){ am_pm='pm';hr=(hr-12); } tot=''+hr+mn+se; document.hr1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(1,2)+'.gif'; document.hr2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(2,3)+'.gif'; document.mn1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(4,5)+'.gif'; document.mn2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(5,6)+'.gif'; document.se1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(7,8)+'.gif'; document.se2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(8,9)+'.gif'; document.ampm.src= '/flash_files/digits/dg'+am_pm+'.gif'; } dotime(); But it is not working Help me out Thanks in advance.

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