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  • richfaces suggestionBox passing additional values to backing bean

    - by Martlark
    When using the rich faces suggestionBox how can you pass more than one id or value from the page with the text input to the suggestionBox backing bean. ie: to show a list of suggested cities within a selected state? Here is my autoComplete method. public List< Suburb > autocomplete(Object suggest) { String pref = (String) suggest; ArrayList< Suburb > result = new ArrayList< Suburb >(); Iterator< Suburb > iterator = getSuburbs().iterator(); while( iterator.hasNext() ) { Suburb elem = ((Suburb) iterator.next()); if( (elem.getName() != null && elem.getName().toLowerCase().indexOf( pref.toLowerCase() ) == 0) || "".equals( pref ) ) { result.add( elem ); } } return result; } As you can see there is one value passed from the page, Object suggest, which is the text of the h:inputText (in the faceLets m:textFormRow ) <m:textFormRow id="suburb" label="#{msgs.suburbPrompt}" property="#{bean[dto].addressDTO.suburb}" required="true" maxlength="100" size="30" /> <rich:suggestionbox height="200" width="200" usingSuggestObjects="true" suggestionAction="#{suburbsMBean.autocomplete}" var="suburb" for="suburb" fetchValue="#{suburb.name}" id="suggestion"> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{suburb.name}" /> </h:column> </rich:suggestionbox> Earlier in the page you can select a state which I'd like to use to pare down the list of suburbs that the suggestion box displays.

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  • Ruby-on-Rails: Multiple has_many :through possible?

    - by williamjones
    Is it possible to have multiple has_many :through relationships that pass through each other in Rails? I received the suggestion to do so as a solution for another question I posted, but have been unable to get it to work. Friends are a cyclic association through a join table. The goal is to create a has_many :through for friends_comments, so I can take a User and do something like user.friends_comments to get all comments made by his friends in a single query. class User has_many :friendships has_many :friends, :through => :friendships, :conditions => "status = #{Friendship::FULL}" has_many :comments has_many :friends_comments, :through => :friends, :source => :comments end class Friendship < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :friend, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "friend_id" end This looks great, and makes sense, but isn't working for me. This is the error I'm getting in relevant part when I try to access a user's friends_comments: ERROR: column users.user_id does not exist : SELECT "comments".* FROM "comments" INNER JOIN "users" ON "comments".user_id = "users".id WHERE (("users".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) When I just enter user.friends, which works, this is the query it executes: : SELECT "users".* FROM "users" INNER JOIN "friendships" ON "users".id = "friendships".friend_id WHERE (("friendships".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) So it seems like it's entirely forgetting about the original has_many through friendship relationship, and then is inappropriately trying to use the User class as a join table. Am I doing something wrong, or is this simply not possible?

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  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

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  • How do I access the names of VB6 modules from code?

    - by Mark Bertenshaw
    Hi All - It is unlikely that there is an answer for this one, but I'm asking anyway. I am currently maintaining some code, which is likely to be refactored soon. Before that happens, I want to make the standard error handling code, which is injected by an Add-In, more efficient and take up less space. One thing that annoys me is that every module has a constant called m_ksModuleName that is used to construct a big string, which is then rethrown from the error handler so we can trace the error stack. This is all template code, i.e. repetivitve, but I could easily strip it down to a procedure call. Now, I have fixed the code so that you can pass the Me reference to the procedure - but you can't do that for the BAS modules. Nor can you access the project name (the part which would be passed as part of a ProgramID, for instance) - although you get given it when you raise an error yourself. All these strings are contained in the EXE, DLL or OCX - believe me, I've used a debugger to find them. But how can I access these in code? -- Mark Bertenshaw

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  • JQuery Post caused permission denied warning in IE 6 and IE 7

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am using firefox 3 and IE 6, 7 to test if a simple php web page using JQuery Post to pass some data to and from another server web page. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").click(function(){ var usr=$("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); if(usr.length >= 4){ $("#username").append('<span id="loaderimg" name="loaderimg"><img align="absmiddle" src="loader.gif"/> Checking data availability,&nbsp;please wait.</span>'); var url = "http://mysite.com/site1/toavail/"+usr; $.post( url, function(data) {alert(data);}); }); }); //--> </script> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> In Firefox 3, the alert box showed empty message. In IE 6 and IE 7, I got an error message saying "Permssion denied"

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  • Check if DateTime in specific range

    - by katit
    Need to check if DateTime is in specific range. I think I need to calculate knowing YEAR first and last date of DST time in this year. How would I figure "Sunday of week 2 of March" date? From 1/1/2007 12:00:00 AM to 12/31/9999 12:00:00 AM Begins at 2:00 AM on Sunday of week 2 of March Ends at 2:00 AM on Sunday of week 1 of November For example, I need to check if 11/21/2011 is between Sunday of week 2 in March and Sunday of week 1 of November - answer should be NO If I pass 8/8/2011 - answer should be yes. Basically, I need to write function to check if my date belongs to daylight savings time. My only idea so far is to write loops to find 2nd week for example. So, I would loop from Day 1 in March until I hit Sunday second time. Same thing I would loop (increment days by 1) from day 1 of November until I hit Sunday first time. In another words, I need function to check if input data is in Daylight Savings time period. Time period defined by constraint above. P.S. I can't use TimeZoneInfo since it's in Silverlight P.P.S I can't use DateTime.IsDaylightSavingsTime as I don't have times with kind "local"

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  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

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  • Fun with casting and inheritance

    - by Vaccano
    NOTE: This question is written in a C# like pseudo code, but I am really going to ask which languages have a solution. Please don't get hung up on syntax. Say I have two classes: class AngleLabel: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // code to allow the label to be on an angle } class Label: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // Code for a normal label // Maybe has code not in an AngleLabel (align for example). } They both decend from this class: class CustomLabel: Control { protected bool Bold; } The bold field is exposed as public in the descended classes. No interfaces are available on the classes. Now, I have a method that I want to beable to pass in a CustomLabel and set the Bold property. Can this be done without having to 1) find out what the real class of the object is and 2) cast to that object and then 3) make seperate code for each variable of each label type to set bold. Kind of like this: public void SetBold(customLabel: CustomLabel) { AngleLabel angleLabel; NormalLabel normalLabel; if (angleLabel is AngleLabel ) { angleLabel= customLabel as AngleLabel angleLabel.Bold = true; } if (label is Label) { normalLabel = customLabel as Label normalLabel .Bold = true; } } It would be nice to maybe make one cast and and then set bold on one variable. What I was musing about was to make a fourth class that just exposes the bold variable and cast my custom label to that class. Would that work? If so, which languages would it work for? (This example is drawn from an old version of Delphi (Delphi 5)). I don't know if it would work for that language, (I still need to try it out) but I am curious if it would work for C++, C# or Java. If not, any ideas on what would work? (Remember no interfaces are provided and I can not modify the classes.) Any one have a guess?

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  • jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

    - by Elson Solano
    I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

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  • Optimization of Function with Dictionary and Zip()

    - by eWizardII
    Hello, I have the following function: def filetxt(): word_freq = {} lvl1 = [] lvl2 = [] total_t = 0 users = 0 text = [] for l in range(0,500): # Open File if os.path.exists("C:/Twitter/json/user_" + str(l) + ".json") == True: with open("C:/Twitter/json/user_" + str(l) + ".json", "r") as f: text_f = json.load(f) users = users + 1 for i in range(len(text_f)): text.append(text_f[str(i)]['text']) total_t = total_t + 1 else: pass # Filter occ = 0 import string for i in range(len(text)): s = text[i] # Sample string a = re.findall(r'(RT)',s) b = re.findall(r'(@)',s) occ = len(a) + len(b) + occ s = s.encode('utf-8') out = s.translate(string.maketrans("",""), string.punctuation) # Create Wordlist/Dictionary word_list = text[i].lower().split(None) for word in word_list: word_freq[word] = word_freq.get(word, 0) + 1 keys = word_freq.keys() numbo = range(1,len(keys)+1) WList = ', '.join(keys) NList = str(numbo).strip('[]') WList = WList.split(", ") NList = NList.split(", ") W2N = dict(zip(WList, NList)) for k in range (0,len(word_list)): word_list[k] = W2N[word_list[k]] for i in range (0,len(word_list)-1): lvl1.append(word_list[i]) lvl2.append(word_list[i+1]) I have used the profiler to find that it seems the greatest CPU time is spent on the zip() function and the join and split parts of the code, I'm looking to see if there is any way I have overlooked that I could potentially clean up the code to make it more optimized, since the greatest lag seems to be in how I am working with the dictionaries and the zip() function. Any help would be appreciated thanks!

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  • MVVM and avoiding Monolithic God object

    - by bufferz
    I am in the completion stage of a large project that has several large components: image acquisition, image processing, data storage, factory I/O (automation project) and several others. Each of these components is reasonably independent, but for the project to run as a whole I need at least one instance of each component. Each component also has a ViewModel and View (WPF) for monitoring status and changing things. My question is the safest, most efficient, and most maintainable method of instantiating all of these objects, subscribing one class to an Event in another, and having a common ViewModel and View for all of this. Would it best if I have a class called God that has a private instance of all of these objects? I've done this in the past and regretted it. Or would it be better if God relied on Singleton instances of these objects to get the ball rolling. Alternatively, should Program.cs (or wherever Main(...) is) instantiate all of these components, and pass them to God as parameters and then let Him (snicker) and His ViewModel deal with the particulars of running this projects. Any other suggestions I would love to hear. Thank you!

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  • LLVM: Passing a pointer to a struct, which holds a pointer to a function, to a JIT function

    - by Rusky
    I have an LLVM (version 2.7) module with a function that takes a pointer to a struct. That struct contains a function pointer to a C++ function. The module function is going to be JIT-compiled, and I need to build that struct in C++ using the LLVM API. I can't seem get the pointer to the function as an LLVM value, let alone pass a pointer to the ConstantStruct that I can't build. I'm not sure if I'm even on the track, but this is what I have so far: void print(char*); vector<Constant*> functions; functions.push_back(ConstantExpr::getIntToPtr( ConstantInt::get(Type::getInt32Ty(context), (int)print), /* function pointer type here, FunctionType::get(...) doesn't seem to work */ )); ConstantStruct* struct = cast<ConstantStruct>(ConstantStruct::get( cast<StructType>(m->getTypeByName("printer")), functions )); Function* main = m->getFunction("main"); vector<GenericValue> args; args[0].PointerVal = /* not sure what goes here */ ee->runFunction(main, args);

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  • Firing through HTTP a Perl script for sending signals to daemons

    - by Eric Fortis
    Hello guys, I'm using apache2 on Ubuntu. I have a Perl script which basically read the files names of a directory, then rewrites a text file, then sends a signal to a daemon. How can this be done, as secure as possible through a web-page? Actually I can run the code below, but not if I remove the comments. I'm looking for advise considering: Using HTTP Requests? How about Apache file permissions on the directory shown in code? Is htaccess enough to enable user/pass access to the cgi? Should I use a database instead of writing to a file and run a cron querying the db with permission granted to write and send the signal? Granting as less permissions as possible to the webserver. Should I set a VPN? #!/usr/bin/perl -wT use strict; use CGI; #@fileList = </home/user/*>; #read a directory listing my $query = CGI->new(); print $query->header( "text/html" ), $query->p( "FirstFileNameInArray" ), #$query->p( $fileList[0] ), #output the first file in directory $query->end_html;

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  • Change a finder method w/ parameters to an association

    - by Sai Emrys
    How do I turn this into a has_one association? (Possibly has_one + a named scope for size.) class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' def avatar_asset size = :thumb # The LIKE is because it might be a .jpg, .png, or .gif. # More efficient methods that can handle that are OK. ;) self.assets.find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = '#{size}' and filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end EDIT: Cuing from AnalogHole on Freenode #rubyonrails, we can do this: has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' do def avatar size = :thumb find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = ? and filename LIKE ?", size.to_s, proxy_owner.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end ... which is fairly cool, and makes syntax a bit better at least. However, this still doesn't behave as well as I would like. Particularly, it doesn't allow for further nice find chaining (such that it doesn't execute this find until it's gotten all its conditions). More importantly, it doesn't allow for use in an :include. Ideally I want to do something like this: PostsController def show post = Post.get_cache(params[:id]) { Post.find(params[:id], :include => {:comments => {:users => {:avatar_asset => :thumb}} } ... end ... so that I can cache the assets together with the post. Or cache them at all, really - e.g. get_cache(user_id){User.find(user_id, :include => :avatar_assets)} would be a good first pass. This doesn't actually work (self == User), but is correct in spirit: has_many :avatar_assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id', :class_name => 'Asset', :conditions => ["filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_%"] (Also posted on Refactor My Code.)

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  • Pagination in a Rich Domain Model

    - by user246790
    I use rich domain model in my app. The basic ideas were taken there. For example I have User and Comment entities. They are defined as following: <?php class Model_User extends Model_Abstract { public function getComments() { /** * @var Model_Mapper_Db_Comment */ $mapper = $this->getMapper(); $commentsBlob = $mapper->getUserComments($this->getId()); return new Model_Collection_Comments($commentsBlob); } } class Model_Mapper_Db_Comment extends Model_Mapper_Db_Abstract { const TABLE_NAME = 'comments'; protected $_mapperTableName = self::TABLE_NAME; public function getUserComments($user_id) { $commentsBlob = $this->_getTable()->fetchAllByUserId((int)$user_id); return $commentsBlob->toArray(); } } class Model_Comment extends Model_Abstract { } ?> Mapper's getUserComments function simply returns something like: return $this->getTable->fetchAllByUserId($user_id) which is array. fetchAllByUserId accepts $count and $offset params, but I don't know to pass them from my Controller to this function through model without rewriting all the model code. So the question is how can I organize pagination through model data (getComments). Is there a "beatiful" method to get comments from 5 to 10, not all, as getComments returns by default.

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  • Function Returning Negative Value

    - by Geowil
    I still have not run it through enough tests however for some reason, using certain non-negative values, this function will sometimes pass back a negative value. I have done a lot of manual testing in calculator with different values but I have yet to have it display this same behavior. I was wondering if someone would take a look at see if I am missing something. float calcPop(int popRand1, int popRand2, int popRand3, float pERand, float pSRand) { return ((((((23000 * popRand1) * popRand2) * pERand) * pSRand) * popRand3) / 8); } The variables are all contain randomly generated values: popRand1: between 1 and 30 popRand2: between 10 and 30 popRand3: between 50 and 100 pSRand: between 1 and 1000 pERand: between 1.0f and 5500.0f which is then multiplied by 0.001f before being passed to the function above Edit: Alright so after following the execution a bit more closely it is not the fault of this function directly. It produces an infinitely positive float which then flips negative when I use this code later on: pPMax = (int)pPStore; pPStore is a float that holds popCalc's return. So the question now is, how do I stop the formula from doing this? Testing even with very high values in Calculator has never displayed this behavior. Is there something in how the compiler processes the order of operations that is causing this or are my values simply just going too high? If the later I could just increase the division to 16 I think.

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  • encryption in c#

    - by Raja
    i am implementing on algorithm in c#. it has encrypt one word . i have check using decrypt also. now i am using a textbox. want to pass a string in that text box that gives my whole string as cypher text. i dont know how to use. i have mad one loop there and calacated the string length. now suppose my function is it is PasswordEncryptor.cs file public static double REncryptText(double m) {// code } this fuction is doing a single number convertion into the encrpt and in code i know this is wrong i want try in this for (int i = 0; i <= 32; i++) { int [] cyph = new int[5]; // cyph=PasswordEncryptor.REncryptText(i); cypherText.Text = c; } i want that after entering the string into textbox it will call that string till string length and and by adding all the part of string one by one, i will get a final encrpytion code and will use further please help me in doing this

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  • Getting ellipses function parameters without an initial argument

    - by Tox1k
    So I've been making a custom parser for a scripting language, and I wanted to be able to pass only ellipses arguments. I don't need or want an initial variable, however Microsoft and C seem to want something else. FYI, see bottom for info. I've looked at the va_* definitions #define _crt_va_start(ap,v) ( ap = (va_list)_ADDRESSOF(v) + _INTSIZEOF(v) ) #define _crt_va_arg(ap,t) ( *(t *)((ap += _INTSIZEOF(t)) - _INTSIZEOF(t)) ) #define _crt_va_end(ap) ( ap = (va_list)0 ) and the part I don't want is the v in va_start. As a little background I'm competent in goasm and I know how the stack works so I know what's happening here. I was wondering if there is a way to get the function stack base without having to use inline assembly. Ideas I've had: #define im_va_start(ap) (__asm { mov [ap], ebp }) and etc... but really I feel like that's messy and I'm doing it wrong. struct function_table { const char* fname; (void)(*fptr)(...); unsigned char maxArgs; }; function_table mytable[] = { { "MessageBox", &tMessageBoxA, 4 } }; ... some function that sorts through a const char* passed to it to find the matching function in mytable and calls tMessageBoxA with the params. Also, the maxArgs argument is just so I can check that a valid number of parameters is being sent. I have personal reasons for not wanting to send it in the function, but in the meantime we can just say it's because I'm curious. This is just an example; custom libraries are what I would be implementing so it wouldn't just be calling WinAPI stuff. void tMessageBoxA(...) { // stuff to load args passed MessageBoxA(arg1, arg2, arg3, arg4); } I'm using the __cdecl calling convention and I've looked up ways to reliably get a pointer to the base of the stack (not the top) but I can't seem to find any. Also, I'm not worried about function security or typechecking.

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  • Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code?

    - by finrod
    Is there a way to easily create Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code? Motivation: I need my own implementation of the Process class. The native code spawns me a new process with subprocess' IO streams redirected to unnamed pipes. Problem: The file descriptors for correct ends of those pipes make their way to Java. At this point I get stuck as I cannot create a new FileDescriptor which I could pass to FileInput/FileOutput stream. I have used reflection to get around the problem and got communication with a simple bouncer sub-process running. However I have a notion that it is not the cleanest way to go. Have you used this approach? Do you see any problems with this approach? (the platform will never change) Searching around the internets revealed similar solution using native code. Any thoughts before I dive into heavy testing of this approach are very welcome. I would like to give a shot to existing code before writing my own IO stream implementations... Thank you.

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  • How to mimic polymorphism in classes with template methods (c++)?

    - by davide
    in the problem i am facing i need something which works more or less like a polymorphic class, but which would allow for virtual template methods. the point is, i would like to create an array of subproblems, each one being solved by a different technique implemented in a different class, but holding the same interface, then pass a set of parameters (which are functions/functors - this is where templates jump up) to all the subproblems and get back a solution. if the parameters would be, e.g., ints, this would be something like: struct subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter)=0; } struct subproblem0: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter){...}; } struct subproblem1: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double* solution, double parameter){...}; } int main{ subproblem problem[2]; subproblem[0] = new subproblem0(); subproblem[1] = new subproblem1(); double argument0(0), argument1(1), sol0[2], sol1[2]; for(unsigned int i(0);i<2;++i) { problem[i]->solve( &(sol0[i]) , argument0); problem[i]->solve( &(sol1[i]) , argument1); } return 0; } but the problem is, i need the arguments to be something like Arg<T1,T2> argument0(f1,f2) and thus the solve method to be something of the likes of template<T1,T2> solve (double* solution, Arg<T1,T2> parameter) which cant obviously be declared virtual ( so cant be called from a pointer to the base class)... now i'm pretty stuck and don't know how to procede...

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  • How to handle array element between int and Integer

    - by masato-san
    First, it is long post so if you need clarification please let me know. I'm new to Java and having difficulty deciding whether I should use int[] or Integer[]. I wrote a function that find odd_number from int[] array. public int[] find_odd(int[] arr) { int[] result = new int[arr.length]; for(int i=0; i<arr.length; i++) { if(arr[i] % 2 != 0) { //System.out.println(arr[i]); result[i] = arr[i]; } } return result; } Then, when I pass the int[] array consisting of some integer like below: int[] myArray = {-1, 0, 1, 2, 3}; int[] result = find_odd(myArray); The array "result" contains: 0, -1, 0, 1, 0, 3 Because in Java you have to define the size of array first, and empty int[] array element is 0 not null. So when I want to test the find_odd() function and expect the array to have odd numbers (which it does) only, it throws the error because the array also includes 0s representing "empty cell" as shown above. My test code: public void testFindOddPassValidIntArray() { int[] arr = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 3}; int[] result = findOddObj.find_odd(arr); //check if return array only contain odd number for(int i=0; i<result.length; i++) { if(result[i] != null) { assert is_odd(result[i]) : result[i]; } } } So, my question is should I use int[] array and add check for 0 element in my test like: if(result[i] != 0) { assert is_odd(result[i] : result[i] } But in this case, if find_odd() function is broken and returning 0 by miscalculation, I can't catch it because my test code would only assume that 0 is empty cell. OR should I use Integer[] array whose default is null? How do people deal with this kind of situation?

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  • How to make a self contained jQuery plugin that finds the tallest image height?

    - by Jannis
    I have been trying to make this to be a little jQuery plugin that I can reuse in the future without having to write the following into my actions.js file in full. This works when loaded in the same file where I set the height using my variable tallest. var tallest = null; $('.slideshow img').each(function(index) { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); This works and will cycle through all the items, then set the value of tallest to the greatest height found. The following however does not work: This would be the plugin, loaded from its own file (before the actions.js file that contains the parts using this): (function($){ $.fn.extend({ tallest: function() { var tallest = null; return this.each(function() { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); } }); })(jQuery); Once loaded I am trying to use it as follows: $('.slideshow img').tallest(); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); However the above two lines return an error of 'tallest is undefined'. How can I make this work? Any ideas would be appreciated. Thinking about this even more the perfect usage of this would be as follows: $('.container').height(tallest('.container item')); But I wouldn't even know where to begin to get this to work in the manner that you pass the object to be measured into the function by adding it into the brackets of the function name. Thanks for reading, Jannis

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  • Passing time from server to client

    - by gskoli
    Dear all, i am creating a digital clock using images & javascript but i want to pass a server time that time ... How to do that ... I am getting time from server and passing it to Date Following i have given snippet . var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); function dotime(){ theTime=setTimeout('dotime();',1000); //d = new Date(Date.parse(time_str)); d= new Date(time_str); hr= d.getHours()+100; mn= d.getMinutes()+100; se= d.getSeconds()+100; var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); alert(' TIME ---> '+hr+' :: '+mn+' :: '+ se); if(hr==100){ hr=112;am_pm='am'; } else if(hr<112){ am_pm='am'; } else if(hr==112){ am_pm='pm'; } else if(hr>112){ am_pm='pm';hr=(hr-12); } tot=''+hr+mn+se; document.hr1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(1,2)+'.gif'; document.hr2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(2,3)+'.gif'; document.mn1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(4,5)+'.gif'; document.mn2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(5,6)+'.gif'; document.se1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(7,8)+'.gif'; document.se2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(8,9)+'.gif'; document.ampm.src= '/flash_files/digits/dg'+am_pm+'.gif'; } dotime(); But it is not working Help me out Thanks in advance.

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  • Cocoa NSTextField Drag & Drop Requires Subclass... Really?

    - by ipmcc
    Until today, I've never had occasion to use anything other than an NSWindow itself as an NSDraggingDestination. When using a window as a one-size-fits-all drag destination, the NSWindow will pass those messages on to its delegate, allowing you to handle drops without subclassing NSWindow. The docs say: Although NSDraggingDestination is declared as an informal protocol, the NSWindow and NSView subclasses you create to adopt the protocol need only implement those methods that are pertinent. (The NSWindow and NSView classes provide private implementations for all of the methods.) Either a window object or its delegate may implement these methods; however, the delegate’s implementation takes precedence if there are implementations in both places. Today, I had a window with two NSTextFields on it, and I wanted them to have different drop behaviors, and I did not want to allow drops anywhere else in the window. The way I interpret the docs, it seems that I either have to subclass NSTextField, or make some giant spaghetti-conditional drop handlers on the window's delegate that hit-checks the draggingLocation against each view in order to select the different drop-area behaviors for each field. The centralized NSWindow-delegate-based drop handler approach seems like it would be onerous in any case where you had more than a small handful of drop destination views. Likewise, the subclassing approach seems onerous regardless of the case, because now the drop handling code lives in a view class, so once you accept the drop you've got to come up with some way to marshal the dropped data back to the model. The bindings docs warn you off of trying to drive bindings by setting the UI value programmatically. So now you're stuck working your way back around that too. So my question is: "Really!? Are those the only readily available options? Or am I missing something straightforward here?" Thanks.

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  • How do you tell that your unit tests are correct?

    - by Jacob Adams
    I've only done minor unit testing at various points in my career. Whenever I start diving into it again, it always troubles me how to prove that my tests are correct. How can I tell that there isn't a bug in my unit test? Usually I end up running the app, proving it works, then using the unit test as a sort of regression test. What is the recommended approach and/or what is the approach you take to this problem? Edit: I also realize that you could write small, granular unit tests that would be easy to understand. However, if you assume that small, granular code is flawless and bulletproof, you could just write small, granular programs and not need unit testing. Edit2: For the arguments "unit testing is for making sure your changes don't break anything" and "this will only happen if the test has the exact same flaw as the code", what if the test overfits? It's possible to pass both good and bad code with a bad test. My main question is what good is unit testing since if your tests can be flawed you can't really improve your confidence in your code, can't really prove your refactoring worked, and can't really prove that you met the specification?

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