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  • How do I start a service which is defined in a different package?

    - by Brad Hein
    I have two apps, one runs in namespace com.gtosoft.voyager and the other is com.gtosoft.dash. From com.gtosoft.dash I would like to start up the service which is defined in com.gtosoft.voyager... I think I need an intent, but what arg(s) would I pass to the intent before kicking it off with startService()? If they were in the same package I could just use Intent svc=new Intent (SettingsActivity.this,VoyagerService.class); startService(svc); Snippet of Manifest which defines the service <application android:icon="@drawable/voyagercarlogo" android:label="@string/app_name" android:debuggable="false"> <provider android:name="com.gtosoft.voyager.VoyagerCProvider" android:authorities="com.gtosoft.voyager"/> <service android:name=".VoyagerService"/> <activity android:name=".SettingsActivity" android:label="Voyager" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity>

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  • Execute javascript in PHP

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I'm generating your typical Web 2.0 HTML page with PHP: it contains a lot of <script> tags and javascript code that will substantially change the DOM after the load event. Is there a way to get the final HTML code directly from PHP, without opening the page with any browser? For example, let's say the HTML for the page is (it's just an example): <html> <head> <script>...the jquery library code...</script> <script>$(document).ready(function() { $("body").append("<p>Hi!</p>");</script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This HTML is saved in the $html PHP variable. Now, I want to pass that variable to some function that will return $result = <html>....<body><p>Hi!</p></body></html>. Is this possible?

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • using libcurl to check if a file exists on a SFTP site

    - by Snazzer
    I'm using C++ with libcurl to do SFTP/FTPS transfers. Before uploading a file, I need to check if the file exists without actually downloading it. If the file doesn't exist, I run into the following problems: //set up curlhandle for the public/private keys and whatever else first. curl_easy_setopt(CurlHandle, CURLOPT_URL, "sftp://user@pass:host/nonexistent-file"); curl_easy_setopt(CurlHandle, CURLOPT_NOBODY, 1); curl_easy_setopt(CurlHandle, CURLOPT_FILETIME, 1); int result = curl_easy_perform(CurlHandle); //result is CURLE_OK, not CURLE_REMOTE_FILE_NOT_FOUND //using curl_easy_getinfo to get the file time will return -1 for filetime, regardless //if the file is there or not. If I don't use CURLOPT_NOBODY, it works, I get CURLE_REMOTE_FILE_NOT_FOUND. However, if the file does exist, it gets downloaded, which wastes time for me, since I just want to know if it's there or not. Any other techniques/options I'm missing? Note that it should work for ftps as well. Edit: This error occurs with sftp. With FTPS/FTP I get CURLE_FTP_COULDNT_RETR_FILE, which I can work with.

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  • c++-to-python swig caused memory leak! Related to Py_BuildValue and SWIG_NewPointerObj

    - by usfree74
    Hey gurus, I have the following Swig code that caused memory leak. PyObject* FindBestMatch(const Bar& fp) { Foo* ptr(new Foo()); float match; // call a function to fill the foo pointer return Py_BuildValue( "(fO)", match, SWIG_NewPointerObj(ptr, SWIGTYPE_p_Foo, 0 /* own */)); } I figured that ptr is not freed properly. So I did the following: PyObject* FindBestMatch(const Bar& fp) { Foo* ptr(new Foo()); float match; // call a function to fill the foo pointer *PyObject *o = SWIG_NewPointerObj(ptr, SWIGTYPE_p_Foo, 1 /* own */);* <------- 1 means pass the ownership to python PyObject *result = Py_BuildValue("(fO)", match, o); Py_XDECREF(o); return result; } But I am not very sure whether this will cause memory corruption. Here, Py_XDECREF(o) will decrease the ref count, which can free memory used by object "o". But o is part of the return value "result". Freeing "o" can cause data corrupt, I guess? I tried my change. It works fine and the caller (python code) does see the expected data. But this could be because nobody else overwrites to that memory area. So what's the right way to deal with memory management of the above code? I search the swig docs, but don't see very concrete description. Please help! Thanks, xin

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  • Help me write my LISP :) LISP environments, Ruby Hashes...

    - by MikeC8
    I'm implementing a rudimentary version of LISP in Ruby just in order to familiarize myself with some concepts. I'm basing my implementation off of Peter Norvig's Lispy (http://norvig.com/lispy.html). There's something I'm missing here though, and I'd appreciate some help... He subclasses Python's dict as follows: class Env(dict): "An environment: a dict of {'var':val} pairs, with an outer Env." def __init__(self, parms=(), args=(), outer=None): self.update(zip(parms,args)) self.outer = outer def find(self, var): "Find the innermost Env where var appears." return self if var in self else self.outer.find(var) He then goes on to explain why he does this rather than just using a dict. However, for some reason, his explanation keeps passing in through my eyes and out through the back of my head. Why not use a dict, and then inside the eval function, when a new "sub-environment" needs to be created, just take the existing dict and update the key/value pairs that need to be updated, and pass that new dict into the next eval? Won't the Python interpreter keep track of the previous "outer" envs? And won't the nature of the recursion ensure that the values are pulled out from "inner" to "outer"? I'm using Ruby, and I tried to implement things this way. Something's not working though, and it might be because of this, or perhaps not. Here's my eval function, env being a regular Hash: def eval(x, env = $global_env) ........ elsif x[0] == "lambda" then ->(*args) { eval(x[2], env.merge(Hash[*x[1].zip(args).flatten(1)])) } ........ end The line that matters of course is the "lambda" one. If there is a difference, what's importantly different between what I'm doing here and what Norvig did with his Env class? If there's no difference, then perhaps someone can enlighten me as to why Norvig uses the Env class. Thanks :)

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  • Add an event to HTML elements with a specific class.

    - by Juan C. Rois
    Hello everybody, I'm working on a modal window, and I want to make the function as reusable as possible. Said that, I want to set a few anchor tags with a class equals to "modal", and when a particular anchor tag is clicked, get its Id and pass it to a function that will execute another function based on the Id that was passed. This is what I have so far: // this gets an array with all the elements that have a class equals to "modal" var anchorTrigger = document.getElementsByClassName('modal'); Then I tried to set the addEventListener for each item in the array by doing this: var anchorTotal = anchorTrigger.length; for(var i = 0; i < anchorTotal ; i++){ anchorTrigger.addEventListener('click', fireModal, false); } and then run the last function "fireModal" that will open the modal, like so: function fireModal(){ //some more code here ... } My problem is that in the "for" loop, I get an error saying that anchorTrigger.addEvent ... is not a function. I can tell that the error might be related to the fact that I'm trying to set up the "addEventListener" to an array as oppose to individual elements, but I don't know what I'm supposed to do. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Problem in getting response from server in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

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  • Python: Errors saving and loading objects with pickle module

    - by Peterstone
    Hi, I am trying to load and save objects with this piece of code I get it from a question I asked a week ago: Python: saving and loading objects and using pickle. The piece of code is this: class Fruits: pass banana = Fruits() banana.color = 'yellow' banana.value = 30 import pickle filehandler = open("Fruits.obj","wb") pickle.dump(banana,filehandler) filehandler.close() file = open("Fruits.obj",'rb') object_file = pickle.load(file) file.close() print(object_file.color, object_file.value, sep=', ') At a first glance the piece of code works well, getting load and see the 'color' and 'value' of the saved object. But, what I pursuit is to close a session, open a new one and load what I save in a past session. I close the session after putting the line filehandler.close() and I open a new one and I put the rest of your code, then after putting object_file = pickle.load(file) I get this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#5>", line 1, in <module> object_file = pickle.load(file) File "C:\Python31\lib\pickle.py", line 1365, in load encoding=encoding, errors=errors).load() AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'Fruits' Can anyone explain me what this error message means and telling me how to solve this problem? Thank so much and happy new year!!

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • varargs in lambda functions in Python

    - by brain_damage
    Is it possible a lambda function to have variable number of arguments? For example, I want to write a metaclass, which creates a method for every method of some other class and this newly created method returns the opposite value of the original method and has the same number of arguments. And I want to do this with lambda function. How to pass the arguments? Is it possible? class Negate(type): def __new__(mcs, name, bases, _dict): extended_dict = _dict.copy() for (k, v) in _dict.items(): if hasattr(v, '__call__'): extended_dict["not_" + k] = lambda s, *args, **kw: not v(s, *args, **kw) return type.__new__(mcs, name, bases, extended_dict) class P(metaclass=Negate): def __init__(self, a): self.a = a def yes(self): return True def maybe(self, you_can_chose): return you_can_chose But the result is totally wrong: >>>p = P(0) >>>p.yes() True >>>p.not_yes() # should be False Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#150>", line 1, in <module> p.not_yes() File "C:\Users\Nona\Desktop\p10.py", line 51, in <lambda> extended_dict["not_" + k] = lambda s, *args, **kw: not v(s, *args, **kw) TypeError: __init__() takes exactly 2 positional arguments (1 given) >>>p.maybe(True) True >>>p.not_maybe(True) #should be False True

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  • I want to input JSONObject from jquery.post() to a a simple JS chart(bar chart)?

    - by ann-stack
    HI I am very new to both json and js charts. In the example of bar chart, they are giving a hard coded array like this, var myData = new Array(['U.S.A.', 69.5], ['Canada', 2.8], ['Japan & SE.Asia', 5.6] ); var myChart = new JSChart('graph', 'bar'); myChart.setDataArray(myData); Instead of that I want to use the response of $.post() method which is in json. Here is the piece of code. var myData=[]; $.post("JSONServlet", function(data) { $.each(data.Userdetails, function(i, data) { myData[i] = []; myData[i]['text'] = data['firstname']; myData[i]['id'] = data['ssn']; alert("first name " +myData[i]['text']+ " salary " +myData[i]['id']); // I am getting correct data here, but how to assign this myData to barchart }); }, "json"); is this the logic to use or how else can i get username and salary from the response and pass it to the barchart. Please help. I am stuck with this. thanks in advance.

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  • What's the idiomatic way of inheriting data access functionality as well as object properties?

    - by Knut Arne Vedaa
    Suppose the following (slightly pseudo-code for brevity): class Basic { String foo; } class SomeExtension extends Basic { String bar; } class OtherExtension extends Basic { String baz; } class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { } } class SomeExtensionService extends BasicService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { } } class OtherExtensionService extends BasicService { OtherExtension getOtherExtension() { } } What would be the most idiomatic, elegant way to implement the get-() service methods with the most possible code reuse? Obviously you could do it like this: class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { Basic basic = new Basic(); basic.setFoo("some kind of foo"); return basic; } } class SomeExtensionService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { SomeExtension someExtension = new SomeExtension; Basic basic = getBasic(); someExtension.setFoo(basic.getFoo()); someExtension.setBar("some kind of bar"); return someExtension; } } But this would be ugly if Basic has a lot of properties, and also you only need one object, as SomeExtension already inherits Basic. However, BasicService can obviously not return a SomeExtension object. You could also have the get methods not create the object themselves, but create it at the outermost level and pass it to the method for filling in the properties, but I find that too imperative. (Please let me know if the question is confusingly formulated.)

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  • iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

    - by randombits
    According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

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  • Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

    - by dede
    I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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  • Play Multiple iPod Library Songs On iPhone At The Same Time With Pitch Bending & Other Effects

    - by Dino
    Hi, I have been going at this for the past two weeks and it is driving me crazy. I asked this question a couple of days ago (Extract iPod Library raw PCM samples and play with sound effects) and whilst the answer got me half way there I am still stuck. Basically what I am trying to achieve is load up multiple songs from the iPod library for playback with effects such as pitch bend, eq effects etc... I have gone down the route of AVPlayer and AVAudioPlayer which are too simple. The only framework I've seen that can play audio with these effects is OpenAL. I have tried a few objective c wrappers (Finch and ObjectAL) Finch does not play compressed audio whilst ObjectAL will only convert it for me if I pass in a URL for the file (which is something I cannot do because I only have an incompatible iPod library URL). An example of an app that does what I want beautifilly is Tap DJ. It can load up songs from the iPod library fast (unlike TouchDJ and it plays them with all sorts of effects. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • Native Endians and Auto Conversion

    - by KnickerKicker
    so the following converts big endians to little ones uint32_t ntoh32(uint32_t v) { return (v << 24) | ((v & 0x0000ff00) << 8) | ((v & 0x00ff0000) >> 8) | (v >> 24); } works. like a charm. I read 4 bytes from a big endian file into char v[4] and pass it into the above function as ntoh32 (* reinterpret_cast<uint32_t *> (v)) that doesn't work - because my compiler (VS 2005) automatically converts the big endian char[4] into a little endian uint32_t when I do the cast. AFAIK, this automatic conversion will not be portable, so I use uint32_t ntoh_4b(char v[]) { uint32_t a = 0; a |= (unsigned char)v[0]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[1]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[2]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[3]; return a; } yes the (unsigned char) is necessary. yes it is dog slow. there must be a better way. anyone ?

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  • How would I go about sharing variables in a C++ class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

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  • Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

    - by JPM
    Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • Using C# to HttpPost data to a web page

    - by druffmuff
    I want to log in into a website using C# code. Here's the html code of the example form: <form action="http://www.site.com/login.php" method="post" name="login" id="login"> <table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tbody> <tr><td><b>User:</b></td><td colspan=\"2\"><b>Password:</b></td></tr> <tr> <td><input class="inputbg" name="user" type="text"></td> <td><input class="inputbg" name="password" type="password"></td> <td><input type="submit" name="user_control" value="Submit" class="buttonbg"></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </form> This is what I have tried so far with unsuccessful results: HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.site.com/login.php"); request.Method = "POST"; using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { writer.Write("user=user&password=pass&user_control=Eingabe"); } HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream())) { stream = new StreamWriter("login.html"); stream.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); stream.Close(); } Any Ideas, why this is failing?

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  • Javascript XMLHttpRequest Post method

    - by user535617
    Hey So I have a question about posting using an XMLHttpRequest. In theory, if I am to post a username and password to an https domain (which I have yet to get working, unfortunately) would the responseText then change to the next website, or should the text fields become filled in? What normally happens is you navigate to this page via browser, enter a username and password, and it uses a POST method when the submit button is clicked, doing some authentication under the hood and returning a different page. I feel like maybe the responseText should even stay exactly the same (which is what happens now), but I don't know as I have no experience with this kind of thing. this.requests[1].open("POST", "https://" + this.address, true); var query = "target=%2Fcgi-bin%2FStatusConfig.cgi%3FPage%3Dindex&userfile=&username=user&password=pass&log+in=Log+in"; this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-length", query.length); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Keep-Alive", 115); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Connection", "keep-alive"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Host", this.address); this.requests[1].send(query); this.requests[1].onreadystatechange = onReadyStateChange1; Then basically onReadyStateChange1 displays the responseText when ready. Any light that could be shed on what SHOULD be happening with the post and responseText would be very appreciated. As would any advice in getting the new, logged into page. For further clarification, what I'm trying to do is log in and then return the new page, because the login page displays only log in information/functionality and the page after logging in has a lot of relevant information. I'm not trying to check the credentials as much as I'm trying to get it (the script) to log in so it can access the next page. Granted, the credentials will have to be valid for that. Thanks all.

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  • mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

    - by meeble
    I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

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