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  • Help to argue why to develop software on a physical computer rather than via a remote desktop

    - by s5804
    Remote desktops are great and many times a blessing and cost effective (instead of leasing expensive cables). I am not arguing against remote desktops, just if one have the alternative to use either remote desktop or physical computer, I would choose the later. Also note that I am not arguing for or against remote work practices. But in my case I am required to be physically present in the office when developing software. Background, I work in a company which main business is not to develop software. Therefore the company IT policies are mainly focused on security and to efficiently deploying/maintaing thousands of computer to users. Further, the typical employee runs typical Office applications, like a word processors. Because safety/stability is such a big priority, every non production system/application, shall be deployed into a physical different network, called the test network. Software development of course also belongs in the test network. To access the test network the company has created a standard policy, which dictates that access to the test network shall go only via a remote desktop client. Practically from ones production computer one would open up a remote desktop client to a virtual computer located in the test network. On the virtual computer's remote desktop one would be able to access/run/install all development tools, like Eclipse IDE. Another solution would be to have a dedicated physical computer, which is physically only connected to the test network. Both solutions are available in the company. I have tested both approaches and found running Eclipse IDE, SQL developer, in the remote desktop client to be sluggish (keyboard strokes are delayed), commands like alt-tab takes me out of the remote client, enjoying... Further, screen resolution and colors are different, just to mention a few. Therefore there is nothing technical wrong with the remote client, just not optimal and frankly de-motivating. Now with the new policies put in place, plans are to remove the physical computers connected to the test network. I am looking for help to argue for why software developers shall have a dedicated physical software development computer, to be productive and cost effective. Remember that we are physically in office. Further one can notice that we are talking about approx. 50 computers out of 2000 employees. Therefore the extra budget is relatively small. This is more about policy than cost. Please note that there are lots of similar setups in other companies that work great due to a perfectly tuned systems. However, in my case it is sluggish and it would cost more money to trouble shoot the performance and fine tune it rather than to have a few physical computers. As a business case we have argued that productivity will go down by 25%, however it's my feeling that the reality is probably closer to 50%. This business case isn't really accepted and I find it very difficult to defend it to managers that has never ever used a rich IDE in their life, never mind developed software. Further the test network and remote client has no guaranteed service level, therefore it is down for a few hours per month with the lowest priority on the fix list. Help is appreciated.

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  • PHP, MySQL: Display only required parts of my website in sister website

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Now I have my website built on PHP & Mysql. Consider this like a forum. Now when a user posts a reply in my website 1 (ex. www.website1.com), I want to be able to show the starting thread and it's related replies in a sister website of mine. I want to do this in a way that it does not show the rest of the page & other page contents (like logo etc.). I don't think iframe would be a solution because an iframe would embed the whole page and the users visiting my sister website (totally different domain i.e. www.website2.com) would be able to see all the page contents, like logo etc. I want to avoid that. I want to make them see only limited information from website 1 and only the info. that I intend. I hope that makes sense. In a way, you could say that I am trying to replicate my 1 website, and show only a limited part of it. Users browsing 2nd website can post a reply in the 2nd website and it should automatically be posted & visible to the visitors of the website 1. Users of website 1 should not know that a user of website 2 has posted it. They would feel that some user from website 1 has posted it. Do I have to use 2 separate mysql DB or just 1? I think it would be problematic if I am trying to use different DB. I also feel I might have to face DB connectivity issues as I can connect to only 1 DB at a time. It's basically like users of website1.com should feel that they are replying to users of website1.com & users of website2.com should feel that they are replying to users of website2.com. (I need it this way to bridge the gap between them). At the same time I want to make the front end of the websites different so that they don't feel that they are replying to some other users outside the domain. These websites would be under my control and I will have access to the source code at any time. If I need to change the source code, these changes are welcome. Is this really possible? Thank you in advance.

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  • emacs: how do I use edebug on code that is defined in a macro?

    - by Cheeso
    I don't even know the proper terminology for this lisp syntax, so I don't know if the words I'm using to ask the question, make sense. But the question makes sense, I'm sure. So let me just show you. cc-mode (cc-fonts.el) has things called "matchers" which are bits of code that run to decide how to fontify a region of code. That sounds simple enough, but the matcher code is in a form I don't completely understand, with babckticks and comma-atsign and just comma and so on, and furthermore it is embedded in a c-lang-defcost, which itself is a macro. And I want to run edebug on that code. Look: (c-lang-defconst c-basic-matchers-after "Font lock matchers for various things that should be fontified after generic casts and declarations are fontified. Used on level 2 and higher." t `(;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. (The enum type ;; name is handled by `c-simple-decl-matchers' or ;; `c-complex-decl-matchers' below. ,@(when (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds) `((,(c-make-font-lock-search-function (concat "\\<\\(" (c-make-keywords-re nil (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds)) "\\)\\>" ;; Disallow various common punctuation chars that can't come ;; before the '{' of the enum list, to avoid searching too far. "[^\]\[{}();,/#=]*" "{") '((c-font-lock-declarators limit t nil) (save-match-data (goto-char (match-end 0)) (c-put-char-property (1- (point)) 'c-type 'c-decl-id-start) (c-forward-syntactic-ws)) (goto-char (match-end 0))))))) I am reading up on lisp syntax to figure out what those things are and what to call them, but aside from that, how can I run edebug on the code that follows the comment that reads ;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. ? I know how to run edebug on a defun - just invoke edebug-defun within the function's definition, and off I go. Is there a corresponding thing I need to do to edebug the cc-mode matcher code forms?

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  • Refactor a link and an image

    - by Mihail Stoynov
    I have to write an link with an image inside. Instead of explaining, here's the code I have now: <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image != null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image == null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image != null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="#{userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image == null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> This code looks awful - there are two exact links with two exact images but combined in all possible combinations. Is there a better way? Is there a way to avoid c:if - it created tables? Update: Bozho proposes: You can replace <c:if and <a with <h:outputLink rendered="#{..}". Apart from that I don't see any other optimization. But it doesn't work. This does not render correctly: <a href=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> (the image is outside the anchor) This does render fine: <h:outputLink value=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> , but it always adds href and in two of the cases I don't want href when rendered.

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  • How to do left joins with least-n-per-group query?

    - by Nate
    I'm trying to get a somewhat complicated query working and am not having any luck whatsoever. Suppose I have the following tables: cart_items: +--------------------------------------------+ | item_id | cart_id | movie_name | quantity | +--------------------------------------------+ | 0 | 0 | braveheart | 4 | | 1 | 0 | braveheart | 9 | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | +--------------------------------------------+ movies: +------------------------------+ | movie_id | movie_name | ... | +------------------------------+ | 0 | braveheart | . | | . | . | . | | . | . | . | | . | . | . | | . | . | . | +------------------------------+ pricing: +-----------------------------------------+ | id | movie_name | quantity | price_per | +-----------------------------------------+ | 0 | braveheart | 1 | 1.99 | | 1 | braveheart | 2 | 1.50 | | 2 | braveheart | 4 | 1.25 | | 3 | braveheart | 8 | 1.00 | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | +-----------------------------------------+ I need to join the data from the tables, but with the added complexity that I need to get appropriate price_per from the pricing table. Only one price should be returned for each cart_item, and that should be the lowest price from the pricing table where the quantity for the cart item is at least the quantity in the pricing table. So, the query should return for each item in cart_items the following: +---------------------------------------------+ | item_id | movie_name | quantity | price_per | +---------------------------------------------+ Example 1: Variable passed to the query: cart_id = 0. Return: +---------------------------------------------+ | item_id | movie_name | quantity | price_per | +---------------------------------------------+ | 0 | braveheart | 4 | 1.25 | | 1 | braveheart | 9 | 1.00 | +---------------------------------------------+ Note that this is a minimalist example and that additional data will be pulled from the tables mentioned (particularly the movies table). How could this query be composed? I have tried using left joins and subqueries, but the difficult part is getting the price and nothing I have tried has worked. Thanks for your help. EDIT: I think this is similar to what I have working with my "real" tables: SELECT t1.item_id, t2.movie_name, t1.quantity FROM cart_items t1 LEFT JOIN movies t2 ON t2.movie_name = t1.movie_name WHERE t1.cart_id = 0 Assuming I wrote that correctly (I quickly tried to "port over" my real query), then the output would currently be: +---------------------------------+ | item_id | movie_name | quantity | +---------------------------------+ | 0 | braveheart | 4 | | 1 | braveheart | 9 | +---------------------------------+ The trouble I'm having is joining the price at a certain quantity for a movie. I simply cannot figure out how to do it.

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  • choosing an image locally from http url and serving that image without a server round trip

    - by serverman
    Hi folks I am a complete novice to Flash (never created anything in flash). I am quite familiar with web applications (J2EE based) and have a reasonable expertise in Javascript. Here is my requirement. I want the user to select (via an html form) an image. Normally in the post, this image would be sent to server and may be stored there to be served later. I do not want that. I want to store this image locally and then serve it via HTTP to the user. So, the flow is: 1. Go to the "select image url":mywebsite.com/selectImage Browse the image and select the image This would transfer control locally to some code running on the client (Javascript or flash), which would then store the image locally at some place on the client machine. Go to the "show image url": mywebsite.com/showImage This would eventually result in some client code running on the browser that retrieves the image and renders it (without any server round trips.) I considered the following options: Use HTML5 local storage. Since I am a complete novice to flash, I looked into this. I found that it is fairly straightforward to store and retrieve images in javascript (only strings are allowed but I am hoping storing base64 encoded strings would work at least for small images). However, how do I serve the image via http url that points to my server without a server round trip? I saw the interesting article at http://hacks.mozilla.org/category/fileapi/ but that would work only in firefox and I need to work on all latest browsers (at least the ones supporting HTML5 local storage) Use flash SharedObjects. OK, this would have been good - the only thing is I am not sure where to start. Snippets of actionscripts to do this are scattered everywhere but I do not know how to use those scripts in an actual html page:) I do not need to create any movies or anything - just need to store an image and serve it locally. If I go this route, I would also use it to store other "strings" locally. If you suggest this, please give me the exact steps (could be pointers to other web sites) on how to do this. I would like to avoid paying for any flash development environment software ideally:) Thank you!

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  • How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

    - by SleepyBobos
    I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

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  • When transactionManager is not named "transactionManager" ...

    - by smallufo
    I am trying Spring 3(.0.2.RELEASE) and JPA2 and Hibernate 3.5.1-Final... One thing upsets me is that spring seems only accept a transaction Manager named "transactionManager" If I don't name it "transactionManager" , Spring will throws NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'transactionManager' is defined. Here is my config : <context:component-scan base-package="destiny.data.mining"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="miningEntityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="mining"/> </bean> <bean id="miningTransactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="miningEntityManagerFactory"/> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdviceMining" transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"> <tx:attributes> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true"/> <tx:method name="save*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="update*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="delete*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="*" propagation="SUPPORTS" read-only="true"/> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="methods" expression="execution(* destiny.utils.AbstractDao+.*(..))"/> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdviceMining" pointcut-ref="methods"/> </aop:config> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"/> In this config , an Entity Manager Factory is not necessarily named "entityManagerFactory" , and "txAdvice" is not necessarily named "txAdvice" , either. But I don't know why on earth Spring requires a transaction manager named "transactionManager" ? Is there any way not to name a transaction manager "transactionManager" ? (I'm running multiple spring config files , so I try my best to avoid name-conflicting) test code : @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations={"classpath:mining.xml"}) public class MiningPersonDaoTest { @Inject private EntityManagerFactory miningEntityManagerFactory; @Inject private MiningPersonDao miningPersonDao; @Transactional @Test public void testUpdate() { MiningPerson p = miningPersonDao.get(42L); p.setLocationName("OOXX"); miningPersonDao.update(p); System.out.println(p); } } ii

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  • Adding Insert Row in tableView

    - by user333624
    Hello everyone, I have a tableView that loads its data directly from a Core Data table with a NSFetchedResultsController. I'm not using an intermediate NSMutableArray to store the objects from the fetch results; I basically implemented inside my UITableViewController the protocol method numberOfRowsInSection and it returns the numberOfObjects inside a NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo. id <NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo> sectionInfo = [[fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section]; and then I configure the cell content by implementing configureCell:atIndexPath and retrieving object info from the fetchedResultController but right now I have a generic configuration for any object (to avoid complications) cell.textLabel.text = @"categoria"; I also have a NavigationBar with a custom edit button at the right that loads my own selector called customSetEditing. What I'm trying to accomplish is to load an "Insert Cell" at the beginning of the tableView so when I tap it, it creates a new record. This last part is easy to implement the problem is that I dont's seem to be able to load the insert row or any row when I tap on the navigation bar edit button. this is the code for my customSetEditing: - (void) customSetEditing { [super setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [self.tableView setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [[self tableView] beginUpdates]; //[[self tableView] beginUpdates]; UIBarButtonItem *customDoneButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(customDone)]; [self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem release]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = customDoneButtonItem; //[categoriasArray insertObject:[NSNull null] atIndex:0]; NSMutableArray *indexPaths = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0],nil ]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:indexPaths withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; //[indexPaths release]; [self.tableView reloadData];} Before adding the:[self.tableView reloadData]; I was getting an out of bounds error plus a program crash and although the program is not crashing it is not loading anything. I have seen many examples of similar situations in stackoverflow (by the way is an excellent forum with very helpful and nice people) none of the examples seems to work for me. Any ideas?

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  • Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner?

    - by Justin L.
    I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript?

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  • CodeIgniter Form Validaton + JS. Form re-population.

    - by solefald
    Hello. I have a from with a checkbox, and depending on the checkbox state 2 different divs are shown. var alias = document.getElementById('alias'); var list = document.getElementById('list'); if(document.getElementById('isList').checked) { alias.style.display = 'none'; list.style.display = 'table-row'; } else { alias.style.display = 'table-row'; list.style.display = 'none'; } Here is the HTML/PHP (relevant) part: <tr id="alias" style="display:table-row;"> <td>' . form_label('Destination:', 'destination') . '</td> <td>' . form_textarea('destination') . '</td> </tr> <tr id="list" style="display:none;"> <td>' . form_label('File Path:', 'list_path') . '</td> <td>' . form_input('list_path') . '</td> </tr> alias div is shown by default on page load, list shown then i click on isList checkbox, and alias is shown again when i click on the checkbox again. This part works great and pretty straight froward. Now, I add CodeIgniter Form Validation plugin, set appropriate rules and set-up validation plugin to re-populate the form with. Without checkbox enabled everything works great. On errors form is re-populated. However, when form is submitted with checkbox enabled, I have an issue. CI's Form Validation plugin re-populates the form, and re-enables the checkbox, but the list div that is supposed to be shown when checkbox enabled is not there, and instead the alias div is shown. Is there any way around this issue? Can i have the list div shown on list validation error? Also, i would like to avoid using JavaScript form validation, and stick with my good old PHP. Thank you in advance. -i

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  • .NET Free memory usage (how to prevent overallocation / release memory to the OS)

    - by Ronan Thibaudau
    I'm currently working on a website that makes large use of cached data to avoid roundtrips. At startup we get a "large" graph (hundreds of thouthands of different kinds of objects). Those objects are retrieved over WCF and deserialized (we use protocol buffers for serialization) I'm using redgate's memory profiler to debug memory issues (the memory didn't seem to fit with how much memory we should need "after" we're done initializing and end up with this report Now what we can gather from this report is that: 1) Most of the memory .NET allocated is free (it may have been rightfully allocated during deserialisation, but now that it's free, i'd like for it to return to the OS) 2) Memory is fragmented (which is bad, as everytime i refresh the cash i need to redo the memory hungry deserialisation process and this, in turn creates large object that may throw an OutOfMemoryException due to fragmentation) 3) I have no clue why the space is fragmented, because when i look at the large object heap, there are only 30 instances, 15 object[] are directly attached to the GC and totally unrelated to me, 1 is a char array also attached directly to the GC Heap, the remaining 15 are mine but are not the cause of this as i get the same report if i comment them out in code. So my question is, what can i do to go further with this? I'm not really sure what to look for in debugging / tools as it seems my memory is fragmented, but not by me, and huge amounts of free spaces are allocated by .net , which i can't release. Also please make sure you understand the question well before answering, i'm not looking for a way to free memory within .net (GC.Collect), but to free memory that is already free in .net , to the system as well as to defragment said memory. Note that a slow solution is fine, if it's possible to manually defragment the large heap i'd be all for it as i can call it at the end of RefreshCache and it's ok if it takes 1 or 2 second to run. Thanks for your help! A few notes i forgot: 1) The project is a .net 2.0 website, i get the same results running it in a .net 4 pool, idem if i run it in a .net 4 pool and convert it to .net 4 and recompile. 2) These are results of a release build, so debug build can not be the issue. 3) And this is probably quite important, i do not get these issues at all in the webdev server, only in IIS, in the webdev i get memory consumption rather close to my actual consumption (well more, but not 5-10X more!)

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  • Advice on "Invalid Pointer Operation" when using complex records

    - by Xaz
    Env: Delphi 2007 <JustificationI tend to use complex records quite frequently as they offer almost all of the advantages of classes but with much simpler handling.</Justification Anyhoo, one particularly complex record I have just implemented is trashing memory (later leading to an "Invalid Pointer Operation" error). This is an example of the memory trashing code: sSignature := gProfiles.Profile[_stPrimary].Signature.Formatted(True); On the second time i call it i get "Invalid Pointer Operation" It works OK if i call it like this: AProfile := gProfiles.Profile[_stPrimary]; ASignature := AProfile.Signature; sSignature := ASignature.Formatted(True); Background Code: gProfiles: TProfiles; TProfiles = Record private FPrimaryProfileID: Integer; FCachedProfile: TProfile; ... public < much code removed > property Profile[ProfileType: TProfileType]: TProfile Read GetProfile; end; function TProfiles.GetProfile(ProfileType: TProfileType): TProfile; begin case ProfileType of _stPrimary : Result := ProfileByID(FPrimaryProfileID); ... end; end; function TProfiles.ProfileByID(iID: Integer): TProfile; begin <snip> if LoadProfileOfID(iID, FCachedProfile) then begin Result := FCachedProfile; end else ... end; TProfile = Record private ... public ... Signature: TSignature; ... end; TSignature = Record private public PlainTextFormat : string; HTMLFormat : string; // The text to insert into a message when using this profile function Formatted(bHTML: boolean): string; end; function TSignature.Formatted(bHTML: boolean): string; begin if bHTML then result := HTMLFormat else result := PlainTextFormat; < SNIP MUCH CODE > end; OK, so I have a record within a record within a record, which is approaching Inception level confusion and I'm the first to admit is not really a good model. Clearly i am going to have to restructure it. What I would like from you gurus is a better understanding of why it is trashing the memory (something to do with the string object that is created then freed...) so that i can avoid making these kinds of errors in future. Thanks

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  • X264 encoding using Opencv

    - by user573193
    I am working with a high resolution camera: 4008x2672. I a writing a simple program which grabs frame from the camera and sends the frame to a avi file. For working with such a high resolution, I found only x264 codec that could do the trick (Suggestions welcome). I am using opencv for most of the image handling stuff. As mentioned in this post http://doom10.org/index.php?topic=1019.0 , I modified the AVCodecContext members as per ffmpeg presets for libx264 (Had to do this to avoid broken ffmpeg defaults settings error). This is output I am getting when I try to run the program [libx264 @ 0x992d040]non-strictly-monotonic PTS 1294846981.526675 1 0 //Timestamp camera_no frame_no 1294846981.621101 1 1 1294846981.715521 1 2 1294846981.809939 1 3 1294846981.904360 1 4 1294846981.998782 1 5 1294846982.093203 1 6 Last message repeated 7 times [avi @ 0x992beb0]st:0 error, non monotone timestamps -614891469123651720 = -614891469123651720 OpenCV Error: Unspecified error (Error while writing video frame) in icv_av_write_frame_FFMPEG, file /home/ajoshi/ext/OpenCV-2.2.0/modules/highgui/src/cap_ffmpeg.cpp, line 1034 terminate called after throwing an instance of 'cv::Exception' what(): /home/ajoshi/ext/OpenCV-2.2.0/modules/highgui/src/cap_ffmpeg.cpp:1034: error: (-2) Error while writing video frame in function icv_av_write_frame_FFMPEG Aborted Modifications to the AVCodecContext are: if(codec_id == CODEC_ID_H264) { //fprintf(stderr, "Trying to parse a preset file for libx264\n"); //Setting Values manually from medium preset c-me_method = 7; c-qcompress=0.6; c-qmin = 10; c-qmax = 51; c-max_qdiff = 4; c-i_quant_factor=0.71; c-max_b_frames=3; c-b_frame_strategy = 1; c-me_range = 16; c-me_subpel_quality=7; c-coder_type = 1; c-scenechange_threshold=40; c-partitions = X264_PART_I8X8 | X264_PART_I4X4 | X264_PART_P8X8 | X264_PART_B8X8; c-flags = CODEC_FLAG_LOOP_FILTER; c-flags2 = CODEC_FLAG2_BPYRAMID | CODEC_FLAG2_MIXED_REFS | CODEC_FLAG2_WPRED | CODEC_FLAG2_8X8DCT | CODEC_FLAG2_FASTPSKIP; c-keyint_min = 25; c-refs = 3; c-trellis=1; c-directpred = 1; c-weighted_p_pred=2; } I am probably not setting the dts and pts values which I believed ffmpeg should be setting it for me. Any sugggestions welcome. Thanks in advance

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  • php soapclient returns null but getPreviousResults has proper results

    - by Joseph.Chambers
    I've ran into trouble with SOAP, I've never had this issue before and can't find any information on line that helps me solve it. The following code $wsdl = "path/to/my/wsdl"; $client = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('trace' => true)); //$$textinput is passed in and is a very large string with rows in <item></item> tags $soapInput = new SoapVar($textinput, XSD_ANYXML); $res = $client->dataprofilingservice(array("contents" => $soapInput)); $response = $client->__getLastResponse(); var_dump($res);//outputs null var_dump($response);//provides the proper response as I would expect. I've tried passing params into the SoapClient constructor to define soap version but that didnt' help. I've also tried it with the trace param set to false and not present which as expected made $response null but $res was still null. I've tried the code on both a linux and windows install running Apache. The function definition in the WSDL is (xxxx is for security reasons) <portType name="xxxxServiceSoap"> <operation name="dataprofilingservice"> <input message="tns:dataprofilingserviceSoapIn"/> <output message="tns:dataprofilingserviceSoapOut"/> </operation> </portType> I have it working using the __getLastResponse() but its annoying me it will not work properly. I've put together a small testing script, does anyone see any issues here. //very simplifed dataset that would normally be //read in from a CSV file of about 1mb $soapInput = getSoapInput("asdf,qwer\r\nzzxvc,ewrwe\r\n23424,2113"); $wsdl = "path to wsdl"; try { $client = new SoapClient($wsdl,array('trace' => true,'exceptions' => true)); } catch (SoapFault $fault) { $error = 1; var_dump($fault); } try { $res = $client->dataprofilingservice(array("contents" => $soapInput)); $response = $client->__getLastResponse(); echo htmlentities($client->__getLastRequest()); echo '<hr>'; var_dump($res); echo "<hr>"; echo(htmlentities($response)); } catch (SoapFault $fault) { $error = 1; var_dump($fault); } function getSoapInput($input){ $rows = array(); $userInputs = explode("\r\n", $input); $userInputs = array_filter($userInputs); // $inputTemplate = " <contents>%s</contents>"; $rowTemplate = "<Item>%s</Item>"; // $soapString = ""; foreach ($userInputs as $row) { // sanitize $row = htmlspecialchars(addslashes($row)); $xmlStr = sprintf($rowTemplate, $row); $rows[] = $xmlStr; } $textinput = sprintf($inputTemplate, implode(PHP_EOL, $rows)); $soapInput = new SoapVar($textinput, XSD_ANYXML); return $soapInput; }

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  • Setting background-image with javascript

    - by Mattoe3k
    In chrome, safari, and opera setting the background image to an absolute reference such as: "/images/image.png" changes it to "http://sitepath/images/image.png". It does not do this in firefox. Is there any way to avoid this behavior, or is it written into the browser's javascript engine? Using jquery to set the background-image also does this problem. The problem is that I am posting the HTML to a php script that needs the urls in this specific format. I know that setting the image path relative fixes this, but I can't do that. The only other alternative would be to use a regexp. to convert the urls. Thanks. Test this in firefox, and chrome / webkit browser: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <div style="height:400px;width:400px;background-image:url(/images/images/logo.gif);"> </div> <br /> <br /> <div id="test" style="height:400px;width:400px;"> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="/javascripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#test").css('background-image',"url(/images/images/logo.gif)"); alert(document.getElementById('test').style.backgroundImage); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • back button android

    - by Raogrimm
    i am having trouble implementing the back button properly. all of the code snippets i have seen have not worked for me. what i am trying to do when i press the back button is just go back to the previous list. pretty much i have a list within a list and i just want it to go back to the previous list. how would i go about doing this? this is the list i have, every item has a separate list that it has. lets say you click on weapons, you then get a list of different weapon types and so on final String[] weapons = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.weapons); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, weapons)); lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { System.out.println("item clicked: "+weapons[position]); switch(position) { case 0: final String[] axes = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.axes); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, axes)); break; case 1: final String[] clubs = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.clubs); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, clubs)); break; case 2: final String[] daggers = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.daggers); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, daggers)); break; case 3: final String[] great_axes = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.great_axes); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, great_axes)); break; case 4: final String[] great_katana = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.great_katana); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, great_katana)); break; case 5: final String[] great_swords = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.great_swords); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, great_swords)); break; case 6: final String[] hand_to_hand = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.hand_to_hand); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, hand_to_hand)); break; case 7: final String[] katana = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.katana); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, katana)); break; case 8: final String[] polearms = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.polearms); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, polearms)); break; case 9: final String[] scythes = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.scythes); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, scythes)); break; case 10: final String[] staves = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.staves); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, staves)); break; case 11: final String[] swords = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.swords); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(ffxidirectory.this, R.layout.list_item, swords)); break; } } });

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  • Accessing Layout Items from inside Widget AppWidgetProvider

    - by cam4mav
    I am starting to go insane trying to figure this out. It seems like it should be very easy, I'm starting to wonder if it's possible. What I am trying to do is create a home screen widget, that only contains an ImageButton. When it is pressed, the idea is to change some setting (like the wi-fi toggle) and then change the Buttons image. I have the ImageButton declared like this in my main.xml <ImageButton android:id="@+id/buttonOne" android:src="@drawable/button_normal_ringer" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center" /> my AppWidgetProvider class, named ButtonWidget * note that the RemoteViews class is a locally stored variable. this allowed me to get access to the RViews layout elements... or so I thought. @Override public void onUpdate(Context context, AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager, int[] appWidgetIds) { remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.main); Intent active = new Intent(context, ButtonWidget.class); active.setAction(VIBRATE_UPDATE); active.putExtra("msg","TESTING"); PendingIntent actionPendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, active, 0); remoteViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.buttonOne, actionPendingIntent); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(appWidgetIds, remoteViews); } @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { // v1.5 fix that doesn't call onDelete Action final String action = intent.getAction(); Log.d("onReceive",action); if (AppWidgetManager.ACTION_APPWIDGET_DELETED.equals(action)) { final int appWidgetId = intent.getExtras().getInt( AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); if (appWidgetId != AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID) { this.onDeleted(context, new int[] { appWidgetId }); } } else { // check, if our Action was called if (intent.getAction().equals(VIBRATE_UPDATE)) { String msg = "null"; try { msg = intent.getStringExtra("msg"); } catch (NullPointerException e) { Log.e("Error", "msg = null"); } Log.d("onReceive",msg); if(remoteViews != null){ Log.d("onReceive",""+remoteViews.getLayoutId()); remoteViews.setImageViewResource(R.id.buttonOne, R.drawable.button_pressed_ringer); Log.d("onReceive", "tried to switch"); } else{ Log.d("F!", "--naughty language used here!!!--"); } } super.onReceive(context, intent); } } so, I've been testing this and the onReceive method works great, I'm able to send notifications and all sorts of stuff (removed from code for ease of reading) the one thing I can't do is change any properties of the view elements. To try and fix this, I made RemoteViews a local and static private variable. Using log's I was able to see that When multiple instances of the app are on screen, they all refer to the one instance of RemoteViews. perfect for what I'm trying to do The trouble is in trying to change the image of the ImageButton. I can do this from within the onUpdate method using this. remoteViews.setImageViewResource(R.id.buttonOne, R.drawable.button_pressed_ringer); that doesn't do me any good though once the widget is created. For some reason, even though its inside the same class, being inside the onReceive method makes that line not work. That line used to throw a Null pointer as a matter of fact, until I changed the variable to static. now it passes the null test, refers to the same layoutId as it did at the start, reads the line, but it does nothing. Its like the code isn't even there, just keeps chugging along. SO...... Is there any way to modify layout elements from within a widget after the widget has been created!? I want to do this based on the environment, not with a configuration activity launch. I've been looking at various questions and this seems to be an issue that really hasn't been solved, such as link text and link text oh and for anyone who finds this and wants a good starting tutorial for widgets, this is easy to follow (though a bit old, it gets you comfortable with widgets) .pdf link text hopefully someone can help here. I kinda have the feeling that this is illegal and there is a different way to go about this. I would LOVE to be told another approach!!!! Thanks

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  • Passing enums to functions in C++

    - by rocknroll
    Hi all, I have a header file with all the enums listed (#ifndef #define #endif construct has been used to avoid multiple inclusion of the file) that I use in multiple cpp files in my application.One of the enums in the files is enum StatusSubsystem {ENABLED,INCORRECT_FRAME,INVALID_DATA,DISABLED}; There are functions in the application delcared as ShowStatus(const StatusSubsystem&); Earlier in the application when I made calls to the above function like ShowStatus(INCORRECT_FRAME); my application used to compile perfectly. But after some code was added The compilation halts giving the following error: File.cpp:71: error: invalid conversion from `int' to `StatusSubsystem' File.cpp:71: error: initializing argument 1 of `void Class::ShowStatus(const StatusSubsystem&) I checked the code for any conflicting enums in the new code and it looked fine. My Question is what is wrong with the function call that compiler shows as erroneous? For your reference the function definition is: void Class::ShowStatus(const StatusSubsystem& eStatus) { QPalette palette; mStatus=eStatus;//store current Communication status of system if(eStatus==DISABLED) { //select red color for label, if it is to be shown disabled palette.setColor(QPalette::Window,QColor(Qt::red)); mLabel->setText("SYSTEM"); } else if(eStatus==ENABLED) { //select green color for label,if it is to be shown enabled palette.setColor(QPalette::Window,QColor(Qt::green)); mLabel->setText("SYSTEM"); } else if(eStatus==INCORRECT_FRAME) { //select yellow color for label,to show that it is sending incorrect frames palette.setColor(QPalette::Window,QColor(Qt::yellow)); mLabel->setText("SYSTEM(I)"); } //Set the color on the Label mLabel->setPalette(palette); } A strange side effect of this situation is it compiles when I cast all the calls to ShowStatus() as ShowStatus((StatusSubsystem)INCORRECT_FRAME); Though this removes any compilation error, but a strange thing happens. Though I make call to INCORRECT_FRAME above but in function definition it matches with ENABLED. How on earth is that possible? Its like while passing INCORRECT_FRAME by reference, it magically converts to ENABLED, which should be impossible. This is driving me nuts. Can you find any flaw in what I am doing? or is it something else? The application is made using C++,Qt-4.2.1 on RHEL4. Thanks.

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  • java ioexception error=24 too many files open

    - by MattS
    I'm writing a genetic algorithm that needs to read/write lots of files. The fitness test for the GA is invoking a program called gradif, which takes a file as input and produces a file as output. Everything is working except when I make the population size and/or the total number of generations of the genetic algorithm too large. Then, after so many generations, I start getting this: java.io.FileNotFoundException: testfiles/GradifOut29 (Too many open files). (I get it repeatedly for many different files, the index 29 was just the one that came up first last time I ran it). It's strange because I'm not getting the error after the first or second generation, but after a significant amount of generations, which would suggest that each generation opens up more files that it doesn't close. But as far as I can tell I'm closing all of the files. The way the code is set up is the main() function is in the Population class, and the Population class contains an array of Individuals. Here's my code: Initial creation of input files (they're random access so that I could reuse the same file across multiple generations) files = new RandomAccessFile[popSize]; for(int i=0; i<popSize; i++){ files[i] = new RandomAccessFile("testfiles/GradifIn"+i, "rw"); } At the end of the entire program: for(int i=0; i<individuals.length; i++){ files[i].close(); } Inside the Individual's fitness test: FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream("testfiles/GradifIn"+index); FileOutputStream fout = new FileOutputStream("testfiles/GradifOut"+index); Process process = Runtime.getRuntime().exec ("./gradif"); OutputStream stdin = process.getOutputStream(); InputStream stdout = process.getInputStream(); Then, later.... try{ fin.close(); fout.close(); stdin.close(); stdout.close(); process.getErrorStream().close(); }catch (IOException ioe){ ioe.printStackTrace(); } Then, afterwards, I append an 'END' to the files to make parsing them easier. FileWriter writer = new FileWriter("testfiles/GradifOut"+index, true); writer.write("END"); try{ writer.close(); }catch(IOException ioe){ ioe.printStackTrace(); } My redirection of stdin and stdout for gradif are from this answer. I tried using the try{close()}catch{} syntax to see if there was a problem with closing any of the files (there wasn't), and I got that from this answer. It should also be noted that the Individuals' fitness tests run concurrently. UPDATE: I've actually been able to narrow it down to the exec() call. In my most recent run, I first ran in to trouble at generation 733 (with a population size of 100). Why are the earlier generations fine? I don't understand why, if there's no leaking, the algorithm should be able to pass earlier generations but fail on later generations. And if there is leaking, then where is it coming from? UPDATE2: In trying to figure out what's going on here, I would like to be able to see (preferably in real-time) how many files the JVM has open at any given point. Is there an easy way to do that?

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  • Flash Mouse.hide() cmd+tab(alt+tab) bring the mouse back

    - by DickieBoy
    Having a bit of trouble with Mouse.show() and losing focus of the swf This isn't my demo: but its showing the same bug http://www.foundation-flash.com/tutorials/as3customcursors/ What i do to recreate it is: mouse over the swf, hit cmd+tab to highlight another window, result is that the mouse is not brought back and is still invisible, (to get it back go to the window bar at the top of the screen and click something). I have an area in which movement is detected and an image Things I have tried package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.MovieClip; import com.greensock.*; import flash.events.*; import flash.utils.Timer; import flash.events.TimerEvent; import flash.utils.*; import flash.ui.Mouse; public class mousey_movey extends MovieClip { public var middle_of_the_flash; //pixels per second public var speeds = [0,1,3,5,10]; public var speed; public var percentage_the_mouse_is_across_the_screen; public var mouse_over_scrollable_area:Boolean; public var image_move_interval; public function mousey_movey() { middle_of_the_flash = stage.stageWidth/2; hot_area_for_movement.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, mouseEnter); hot_area_for_movement.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, mouseLeave); hot_area_for_movement.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_MOVE, mouseMove); stage.addEventListener(Event.MOUSE_LEAVE, show_mouse); stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, show_mouse); stage.addEventListener(Event.DEACTIVATE,show_mouse); hot_area_for_movement.alpha=0; hot_area_for_movement.x=0; hot_area_for_movement.y=34; } public function show_mouse(e) { trace(e.type) trace('show_mouse') Mouse.show(); } public function onActivate(e) { trace('activate'); Mouse.show(); } public function onDeactivate(e) { trace('deactivate'); } public function get_speed(percantage_from_middle):int { if(percantage_from_middle > 80) { return speeds[4] } else { if(percantage_from_middle > 60) { return speeds[3] } else { if(percantage_from_middle > 40) { return speeds[2] } else { if(percantage_from_middle > 20) { return speeds[1] } else { return 0; } } } } } public function mouseLeave(e:Event):void{ Mouse.show(); clearInterval(image_move_interval); } public function mouseEnter(e:Event):void{ Mouse.hide(); image_move_interval = setInterval(moveImage,1); } public function mouseMove(e:Event):void { percentage_the_mouse_is_across_the_screen = Math.round(((middle_of_the_flash-stage.mouseX)/middle_of_the_flash)*100); speed = get_speed(Math.abs(percentage_the_mouse_is_across_the_screen)); airplane_icon.x = stage.mouseX; airplane_icon.y = stage.mouseY; } public function stageMouseMove(e:Event):void{ Mouse.show(); } public function moveImage():void { if(percentage_the_mouse_is_across_the_screen > 0) { moving_image.x+=speed; airplane_icon.scaleX = -1; } else { moving_image.x-=speed; airplane_icon.scaleX = 1; } } } } Nothing too fancy, im just scrolling an image left of right at a speed which is generated by how far you are from the middle of the stage, and making an airplane moveclip follow the mouse. The events: stage.addEventListener(Event.MOUSE_LEAVE, show_mouse); stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, show_mouse); stage.addEventListener(Event.DEACTIVATE,show_mouse); All fire and work correctly when in the browser, seem a little buggy when running a test through flash, was expecting this as ive experienced it before. The deactivate call even runs when testing and cmd+tabbing but shows no mouse. Any help on the matter is appreciated Thanks, Dickie

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  • plotting multiple google maps to page

    - by Roland
    I'm trying to append more than one Google Map to a page. But it seems like I'm having some trouble. This would be the template I'm using to ( with Handlebars.js ) to create the same block more than once, about 50 times : <script type="text/x-handlebars-template"> {{#each productListing}} <div class="product-listing-wrapper"> <div class="product-listing"> <div class="left-side-content"> <div class="thumb-wrapper" data-image-link="{{ThumbnailUrl}}"> <i class="thumb"> <img src="{{ThumbnailUrl}}" alt="Thumb"> <span class="zoom-image"></span> </i> </div> <div class="google-maps-wrapper"> <div class="google-coordonates-wrapper"> <div class="google-coordonates"> <p>{{LatLon.Lat}}</p> <p>{{LatLon.Lon}}</p> </div> </div> <div class="google-maps-button"> <a class="google-maps" href="#">Google Maps</a> </div> </div> </div> <div class="right-side-content"> <div class="map-canvas-wrapper"> <div id="map-canvas" class="map-canvas" data-latitude="{{LatLon.Lat}}" data-longitude="{{LatLon.Lon}}"></div> </div> <div class="content-wrapper"></div> </div> </div> </div> {{/each}} And I'm trying to append the map to the #map-canvas id. With the following block of code I'm doing the plotting : Cluster.prototype.initiate_map_assembling = function() { return $(this.map_canvas_wrapper_class).each(function(index, element) { var canvas = $(element).children(); var latitude = $(canvas).attr('data-latitude'); var longitude = $(canvas).attr('data-longitude'); var coordinates = new google.maps.LatLng(latitude, longitude); var options = { zoom: 9, center: coordinates, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map($(canvas), options); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: coordinates, map: map }); }); }; This way I'm "looping" through all the parent classes of the id I'm trying to append the map to, but the map would only append to the first id. I tried to append it to all of the id's in other ways but with the same results. So what would you suggest me to do to make it work as I would expect it, append the map to each of the id's ?

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  • Techniques for querying a set of object in-memory in a Java application

    - by Edd Grant
    Hi All, We have a system which performs a 'coarse search' by invoking an interface on another system which returns a set of Java objects. Once we have received the search results I need to be able to further filter the resulting Java objects based on certain criteria describing the state of the attributes (e.g. from the initial objects return all objects where x.y z && a.b == c). The criteria used to filter the set of objects each time is partially user configurable, by this I mean that users will be able to select the values and ranges to match on but the attributes they can pick from will be a fixed set. The data sets are likely to contain <= 10,000 objects for each search. The search will be executed manually by the application user base probably no more than 2000 times a day (approx). It's probably worth mentioning that all the objects in the result set are known domain object classes which have Hibernate and JPA annotations describing their structure and relationship. Off the top of my head I can think of 3 ways of doing this: For each search persist the initial result set objects in our database, then use Hibernate to re-query them using the finer grained criteria. Use an in-memory Database (such as hsqldb?) to query and refine the initial result set. Write some custom code which iterates the initial result set and pulls out the desired records. Option 1 seems to involve a lot of toing and froing across a network to a physical Database (Oracle 10g) which might result in a lot of network and disk activity. It would also require the results from each search to be isolated from other result sets to ensure that different searches don't interfere with each other. Option 2 seems like a good idea in principle as it would allow me to do the finer query in memory and would not require the persistence of result data which would only be discarded after the search was complete. Gut feeling is that this could be pretty performant too but might result in larger memory overheads (which is fine as we can be pretty flexible on the amount of memory our JVM gets). Option 3 could be very performant but is something I would like to avoid as any code we write would require such careful testing that the time taken to acheive something flexible and robust enough would probably be prohibitive. I don't have time to prototype all 3 ideas so I am looking for comments people may have on the 3 options above, plus any further ideas I have not considered, to help me decide which idea might be most suitable. I'm currently leaning toward option 2 (in memory database) so would be keen to hear from people with experience of querying POJOs in memory too. Hopefully I have described the situation in enough detail but don't hesitate to ask if any further information is required to better understand the scenario. Cheers, Edd

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  • What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

    - by fandingo
    I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

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  • Twisted + SQLAlchemy and the best way to do it.

    - by Khorkrak
    So I'm writing yet another Twisted based daemon. It'll have an xmlrpc interface as usual so I can easily communicate with it and have other processes interchange data with it as needed. This daemon needs to access a database. We've been using SQL Alchemy in place of hard coding SQL strings for our latest projects - those mostly done for web apps in Pylons. We'd like to do the same for this app and re-use library code that makes use of SQL Alchemy. So what to do? Well of course since that library was written for use in a Pylons app it's all the straight-forward blocking style code that everyone is accustomed to and all of the non-blocking is magically handled by Pylons via threading, thread locals, scoped sessions and so on. So now for Twisted I guess I'm a bit stuck. I could: Just write the sql I need directly if it's minimal and use the dbapi pool in twisted to do runInteractions etc when I need to hit the db. Use the objects and inherently blocking methods in our library and block now and then in my Twisted daemon. Bah. Use sAsync which was last updated in 2008 and kind of reuse the models we have defined already but not really and it does address code that needs to work in Pylons either. Does that even work with the latest version SQL Alchemy? Who knows. That project looked great though - why was it apparently abandoned? Spawn a separate subprocess and have it deal with the library code and all it's blocking, the results being returned back to my daemon when ready as objects marshalled via YAML over xmlrpc. Use deferToThread and then expunge the objects returned having made sure to do eager loads so that I have all my stuff that I might need. Seems kind of ugha to me. I'm also stuck using Python 2.5.4 atm so no 2.6 yet and I don't think I can just do an import from future to get access to the cool new multiprocessing module stuff in there. That's OK though I guess as we've got dealing with interprocess communication down pretty well. So I'm leaning towards option 4 mostly as that would avoid the mortal sin of logic duplication with option 1 while also staying the heck away from threads. Any better ideas?

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