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• How to port an Ajax CMS based on metadata in Asp.Net MVC?

  - by Maushu

  I'm maintaining a CMS where I have this feeling it was made in the age of dinosaurs (Asp.net 1.0?) and decided to upgrade it with Asp.Net MVC and jQuery. But I have some problems regarding the design/specifications of the CMS which I cannot change. The CMS The CMS uses JavaScript. Alot. As in "I don't load pages, I request new pages using Ajax and render the information using javascript" alot. Not to mention the animations, the weird horizontal apresentation of structures... anyways, besides the first page (that is the login page) every other "page" is just data requested from a WebService that comes with the website. Would MVC have any problems with this design? The Database The database is in a SQL Server 2k8 and, like the CMS, this part is also... interesting. Basically, the user can create data structures using metadata (and saved on the Structure table). These structures are saved on tables that are created (and regenerated when changed) at runtime using said metadata. I don't know how I would implement this part in MVC. The question is, can and should I convert this project to MVC? Any tips regarding the metadata and overuse of ajax?

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• sem-dynamic cdn

  - by dwi kristianto

  i'm developing couple of websites using php (directory script, etc.) and wordpress as cms. i need to improve its performance, by using cdn for static files (css, js, images). the problem is, css and javascript files are generated on the fly. i did that due to yahoo and some expert advice to combine the files into one file. also changing basic color of css files. for the time being, i use couple of small vps but still its not fast enough. i already contact maxcdn and the support guy said that they dont have such kind of services. what i need is: a cdn that will serve the request from user/visitor and there's no file in local disk, the cdn will redirect/fetch it from another domain/server. in vps, it could be done easily using combination of .htaccess and php, but NOT in the cdn. most of cdn only support purely static files. is there any such cdn that will server semi-dynamic files?

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• WHy am I unable to add text along with <%# Container.DataItem %> in repeater in user control

  - by Jamie Hartnoll

  I have a User Control which is dynamically placed by CodeBehind as follows: Dim myControl As Control = CType(Page.LoadControl("~/Controls/mainMenu.ascx"), Control) If InStr(Request.ServerVariables("url"), "/Login.aspx") <= 0 Then mainMenu.Controls.Add(myControl) End If As per an example from my previous question on here. Within this Control is a repeater which calls a database to generate values. My Repeater mark-up is as follows <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="locationRepeater" OnItemDataBound="getQuestionCount"> <ItemTemplate> <p id='locationQuestions' title='<%# Container.DataItem %>' runat='server'></p> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> The example above works fine, but I want to be able to prepend text to <%# Container.DataItem %> in the title attribute of that <p to print to the browser like this is some text DATA_ITEM_OUTPUT When I try to do that though, it prints this is some text <%# Container.DataItem %> exactly like that, ie, turning <%# Container.DataItem %> into text, NOT the value from the repeater code. It was working fine before I made it into a dynamically inserted control, so I am thinking I might have something being generated in the wrong order, but given that it works without any prepended text, I am stumped to fix it! I'm new to .net and using vb.net, please could someone point me in the right direction?

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• A way to specify a different host in an SSH tunnel from the host in use

  - by Tom

  I am trying to setup an SSH tunnel to access Beanstalk (to bypass an annoying proxy server). I can get this to work, but with one caveat: I have to map my Beanstalk host URL (username.svn.beanstalkapp.com) in my hosts file to 127.0.0.1 (and use the ip in place of the domain when setting up the tunnel). The reason (I think) is that I am creating the tunnel using the local SSH instance (on Snow Leopard) and if I use localhost or 127.0.0.1 when talking to Beanstalk, it rejects the authorisation credentials. I believe this is because Beanstalk use the hostname specified in a request to determine which account the username / password combination should be checked against. If localhost is used, I think this information is missing (in some manner which Beanstalk requires) from the requests. At the moment I dig the IP for username.svn.beanstalkapp.com, map username.svn.beanstalkapp.com to 127.0.0.1 in my hosts file, then for the tunnel I use the command: ssh -L 8080:ip:443 -p 22 -l tom -N 127.0.0.1 I can tell Subversion that the repo. is located at: https://username.svn.beanstalkapp.com:8080/repo-name This uses my tunnel and the username and password are accepted. So, my question is if there is an option when setting up the SSH tunnel which would mean I wouldn't have to use my hosts file workaround?

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• Memory usage in Flash / Flex / AS3

  - by ggambett

  I'm having some trouble with memory management in a flash app. Memory usage grows quite a bit, and I've tracked it down to the way I load assets. I embed several raster images in a class Embedded, like this [Embed(source="/home/gabriel/text_hard.jpg")] public static var ASSET_text_hard_DOT_jpg : Class; I then instance the assets this way var pClass : Class = Embedded[sResource] as Class; return new pClass() as Bitmap; At this point, memory usage goes up, which is perfectly normal. However, nulling all the references to the object doesn't free the memory. Based on this behavior, looks like the flash player is creating an instance of the class the first time I request it, but never ever releases it - not without references, calling System.gc(), doing the double LocalConnection trick, or calling dispose() on the BitmapData objects. Of course, this is very undesirable - memory usage would grow until everything in the SWFs is instanced, regardless of whether I stopped using some asset long ago. Is my analysis correct? Can anything be done to fix this?

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• Handling XMLHttpRequest to call external application

  - by Ian

  I need a simple way to use XMLHttpRequest as a way for a web client to access applications in an embedded device. I'm getting confused trying to figure out how to make something thin and light that handles the XMLHttpRequests coming to the web server and can translate those to application calls. The situation: The web client using Ajax (ExtJS specifically) needs to send and receive asynchronously to an existing embedded application. This isn't just to have a thick client/thin server, the client needs to run background checking on the application status. The application can expose a socket interface, with a known set of commands, events, and configuration values. Configuration could probably be transmitted as XML since it comes from a SQLite database. In between the client and app is a lighttpd web server running something that somehow handles the translation. This something is the problem. What I think I want: Lighttpd can use FastCGI to route all XMLHttpRequest to an external process. This process will understand HTML/XML, and translate between that and the application's language. It will have custom logic to simulate pushing notifications to the client (receive XMLHttpRequest, don't respond until the next notification is available). C/C++. I'd really like to avoid installing Java/PHP/Perl on an embedded device. So I'll need more low level understanding. How do I do this? Are there good C++ libraries for interpreting the CGI headers and HTML so that I don't have to do any syntax processing, I can just deal with the request/response contents? Are there any good references to exactly what goes on, server side, when handling the XMLHttpRequest and CGI interfaces? Is there any package that does most of this job already, or will I have to build the non-HTTP/CGI stuff from scratch? Thanks for any help! I am really having trouble learning about the server side of these technologies.

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• Browser: Cookie lost on refresh

  - by Nirmal

  I am experiencing a strange behaviour of my application in Chrome browser (No problem with other browsers). When I refresh a page, the cookie is being sent properly, but intermittently the browser doesn't seem to pass the cookie on some refreshes. This is how I set my cookie: $identifier = / some weird string /; $key = md5(uniqid(rand(), true)); $timeout = number_format(time(), 0, '.', '') + 43200; setcookie('fboxauth', $identifier . ":" . $key, $timeout, "/", "fbox.mysite.com", 0); This is what I am using for page headers: header("Last-Modified: " . gmdate("D, d M Y H:i:s") . " GMT"); header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Thu, 25 Nov 1982 08:24:00 GMT"); // Date in the past Do you see any issue here that might affect the cookie handling? Thank you for any suggestion. EDIT-01: It seems that the cookie is not being sent with some requests. This happens intermittently and I am seeing this behaviour for ALL the browsers now. Has anyone come across such situation? Is there any situation where a cookie will not be sent with the request? Thanks again, for any guideline.

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• GET and XMLHttpRequest

  - by Neethusha

  i have an XMLHttpRequest.The request passes a parameter to my php server code in /var/www. But i cannot seem to be able to extract the parameter back at the server side. below i have pasted both the codes: javascript: function getUsers(u) { alert(u);//here u is 'http://start.ubuntu.com/9.10' xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); var url="http://localhost/servercode.php"+"?q="+u; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange= useHttpResponse; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); } function useHttpResponse() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 ) { var response = eval('('+xmlhttp.responseText+')'); for(i=0;i<response.Users.length;i++) alert(response.Users[i].UserId); } } servercode.php: <?php $q=$_GET["q"]; //$q="http://start.ubuntu.com/9.10"; $con=mysql_connect("localhost","root","blaze"); if(!$con) {die('could not connect to database'.mysql.error()); } mysql_select_db("BLAZE",$con) or die("No such Db"); $result=mysql_query("SELECT * FROM USERURL WHERE URL='$q'"); if($result == null) echo 'nobody online'; else { header('Content-type: text/html'); echo "{\"Users\":["; while($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '{"UserId":"'.$row[UsrID].'"},'; } echo "]}"; } mysql_close($con); ?> this is not giving the required result...although the commented statement , where the variable is assigned explicitly the value of the argument works...it alerts me the required output...but somehow the GET method's parameter is not reaching my php or thats how i think it is....pls help....

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• How to get error text in controller from BindingResult

  - by Mike

  I have an controller that returns JSON. It takes a form, which validates itself via spring annotations. I can get FieldError list from BindingResult, but they don't contain the text that a JSP would display in the tag. How can I get the error text to send back in JSON? @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public @ResponseBody JSONResponse submit(@Valid AnswerForm answerForm, BindingResult result, Model model, HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) { if (result.hasErrors()) { response.setStatus(HttpServletResponse.SC_BAD_REQUEST); JSONResponse r = new JSONResponse(); r.setStatus(JSONResponseStatus.ERROR); //HOW DO I GET ERROR MESSAGES OUT OF BindingResult??? } else { JSONResponse r = new JSONResponse(); r.setStatus(JSONResponseStatus.OK); return r; } } JSONREsponse class is just a POJO public class JSONResponse implements Serializable { private JSONResponseStatus status; private String error; private Map<String,String> errors; private Map<String,Object> data; ...getters and setters... } Calling BindingResult.getAllErrors() returns an array of FieldError objects, but it doesn't have the actual errors.

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• Symfony - Several form on the same page -> ID issue

  - by Julien

  Hi folks. I have an issue while displaying several forms of the same model on the same page. The problem is that with the NameFormat, the fields have the same ID : $this->widgetSchema->setNameFormat('display[%s]'); Will display <form class="update_display_form" id="update_display_0" action="/iperf/web/frontend_dev.php/update_display" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="display[displayed]" checked="checked" id="display_displayed" /> <label for="display_displayed">test</label> </form> <form class="update_display_form" id="update_display_1" action="/iperf/web/frontend_dev.php/update_display" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="display[displayed]" checked="checked" id="display_displayed" /> <label for="display_displayed">truc</label> </form> And if you click on the second label, it will activate the first checkbox So I thought I could use the object id to make them unique : $this->widgetSchema->setNameFormat('display'.$this->getObject()->getId().'[%s]'); But then I can not process the request, since I don't know the name of the parameters. The best option I found was to set an ID : $this->widgetSchema['displayed']->setAttributes(array("id" => "display".$this->getObject()->getId() )); but then I totally loose the connections between the label and the checkbox. The problem would be solved if I could change the "for" attribute of my label. Does somebody know how to do that ? Or any other option ?

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• GET Trello JSON to put in a string var

  - by Verber

  I'm trying to get the JSON that a TRELLO API Url returns and put it into a string. On my own private board I am getting "401 Unauthorized". But the Trello Api doesn't seem to give any way to authorize a user through the URL. If I try a public board I get "XMLHttpRequest cannot load https://api.trello.com/1/board/4d5ea62fd76aa1136000000c?key=68d02bf40d2ad57dd9eb418eb15f9564. Request header field X-Requested-With is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers." This is my code: <body> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.0/jquery.min.js"> </script> <script> var list = $.getJSON(" https://api.trello.com/1/board/4d5ea62fd76aa1136000000c? key=68d02bf40d2ad57dd9eb418eb15f9564"); document.getElementById('print').innerHTML = list; </script> <div id="print"> </div> </body>

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• Debugging a HTTP Handler from Visual Studio

  - by O.O.

  I am trying to debug a HTTP Handler in Visual Studio and the break point is not getting hit. Does anyone have an idea on how to go about debugging HTTP Handlers in Visual Studio? I am using VS 2010 Premium, .NET 4.0 on a Windows 7 machine. In my Web Application I have a HTTP Handler in /HTTPHandler/TrackingHandler.cs The following is in my web config file: <system.webServer> <handlers> <add name="TrackingHandler" path="/tx/*" verb="*" type="ProjectNamespace.TrackingHandler" resourceType="Unspecified" preCondition="integratedMode" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> My HTTP Handler looks like below namespace ProjectNamespace { public class TrackingHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { //Breakpoint on the very first line below string tracker = Path.GetFileName(context.Request.PhysicalPath); ....... } } } I start my Web Application using any random page in Visual Studio Debug using the builtin Web Server. I then maually edit the URL to point to the /tx/ directory and some random string after it. For e.g. my current URL looks like http://localhost:53699/tx/sdfs. I thought this should pull up the breakpoint on the first line of ProcessRequest() but it does not. I’d be grateful for any ideas. O. O.

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• comparing strings from two different sources in javascript

  - by andy-score

  This is a bit of a specific request unfortunately. I have a CMS that allows a user to input text into a tinymce editor for various posts they have made. The editor is loaded via ajax to allow multiple posts to be edited from one page. I want to be able to check if there were edits made to the main text if cancel is clicked. Currently I get the value of the text from the database during the ajax call, json_encode it, then store it in a javascript variable during the callback, to be checked against later. When cancel is clicked the current value of the hidden textarea (used by tinymce to store the data for submission) is grabbed using jquery.val() and checked against the stored value from the previous ajax call like this: if(stored_value!=textarea.val()) { return true } It currently always returns true, even if no changes have been made. The issue seems to be that the textarea.val() uses html entities, whereas the ajax jsoned version doesn't. the response from ajax in firebug looks like this: <p>some text<\/p>\r\n<p>some more text<\/p> the textarea source code looks like this: &lt;p&gt;some text&lt;/p&gt; &lt;p&gt;some more text&lt;/p&gt; these are obviously different, but how can I get them to be treated as the same when evaluated? Is there a function that compares the final output of a string or a way to convert one string to the other using javascript? I tried using html entities in the ajax page, but this returned the string with html entities intact when alerted, I assume because json_encoding it turned them into characters. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Best strategy for moving data between physical tiers in ASP.net

  - by Pete Lunenfeld

  Building a new ASP.net application, and planning to separate DB, 'service' tier and Web/UI tier into separate physical layers. What is the best/easiest strategy to move serialized objects between the service tier and the UI tier? I was considering serializing POCOs into JSON using simple ASP.net pages to serve the middle tier. Meaning that the UI/Web tier will request data from a (hidden to the outside user) web server that will return a JSON string. This kind of JSON 'emitter' seems easily testable. It also seems easily compressible for efficiently moving data over the WAN between tiers. I know that some folks use .asmx webservices for this kind of task, but this seems like there is excess overhead with SOAP, and the package is not as human readable (testable) as POCOs serialized as JSON. Others are using more complex technology like WCF which we have never used. Does anyone have advice for choosing a method for moving data/objects between the data (db) tier and the web (UI) tier over the WAN using .net technologies? Thanks!!!

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• Runtime Exception when using Custom Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

  - by Elementenfresser

  Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is it doesn't. In less than high trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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• SQL to get list of dates as well as days before and after without duplicates

  - by Nathan Koop

  I need to display a list of dates, which I have in a table SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 No problem. However, I now need to display the date before and the date after as well with a different DateType. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 I thought I could use a union SELECT MyDate, DateType FROM ( SELECT mydate - 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate + 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; ) AS myCombinedDateTable This however includes duplicates of the original dates. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 2 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 How can I best remove these duplicates? I am considering a temporary table, but am unsure if that is the best way to do it. This also appears to me that it may provide performance issues as I am running the same query three separate times. What would be the best way to handle this request?

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• Qt - QWebView Problem

  - by user547057

  Hi, I have a PyQt gui script which consists of a QWebView widget. I'm trying to send a GET request, i.e go to a page, fill a form and hit click using the code at the bottom of this question. Since i'm dealing with the documentElement(a QWebElement) of the webview, I need to place all DOM actions in a separate function(which I have named fillForm) and connect the loadFinished() signal into the function. Without connecting the signal, the document will not have loaded and I won't be able to get the elements I want. I'm able to submit the form correctly and get the proper response from the webpage. The problem i'm having is that, the above leads to a sort of infinite loop. This is because the webpage gets reloaded each time a new page is loaded, so the form gets filled each and every single time without stopping. I'd like to know if there's some way of finding out whether the WebView's page has loaded fully, non-asynchronously or maybe pause execution of the script(without freezing the gui) until the whole document has loaded. I'm unable to come up with a satisfactory solution(my idea consisted of keeping a global variable to track clicks) to this problem. I would appreciate it if someone could help me out with a better way to tackle this. Thanks! Here's the code i'm using import sys from PyQt4.QtCore import * from PyQt4.QtGui import * from PyQt4.QtWebKit import * from PyQt4 import QtCore app = QApplication(sys.argv) web = QWebView() web.load(QUrl("http://mywebsite.com")) def fillForm(): doc = web.page().mainFrame().documentElement() searchform = doc.findFirst("input[type=text]") searchform.setAttribute("value", "hello") button = doc.findFirst("input[type=submit]") button.evaluateJavaScript("click()") QtCore.QObject.connect(web, QtCore.SIGNAL("loadFinished"), fillForm) web.show() sys.exit(app.exec_())

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• jQuery validation plugin - removing elements

  - by d3020

  I'm using the jQuery validation plugin. On most of my input type... tags I have class='required'. When I submit the page, via JavaScript, the controls on the page that have this class are found. However, there are a handful of checkboxes that I don't need to validate. I've tried removing the class code completely from the input tag, also tried class='cancel', and class='required:false. When doing any of those things though when the form submits it can't find the checkbox control. How do I still keep the ability to do Request.Form and find my checkbox object but at the same time when the form submits don't apply validation to this particular control. Thank you. Edit here. This is what I'm using without the "checked" code and ternary operator. In my input tag I'm calling a function like this... sb.Append(" " + crlf); Inside that function is where I check for the True or False coming back, like this. case "chkFlashedCarton": strResultValue = pst.FlashedCarton.ToString(); if (strResultValue == "True") { strResultValue = " checked"; } break; strResultValue is what is returned back. Does this help to see? Thank you.

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• How to distinguish between two different UDP clients on the same IP address?

  - by Ricket

  I'm writing a UDP server, which is a first for me; I've only done a bit of TCP communications. And I'm having trouble figuring out exactly how to distinguish which user is which, since UDP deals only with packets rather than connections and I therefore cannot tell exactly who I'm communicating with. Here is pseudocode of my current server loop: DatagramPacket p; socket.receive(p); // now p contains the user's IP and port, and the data int key = getKey(p); if(key == 0) { // connection request key = makeKey(p); clients.add(key, p.ip); send(p.ip, p.port, key); // give the user his key } else { // user has a key // verify key belongs to that IP address // lookup the user's session data based on the key // react to the packet in the context of the session } When designing this, I kept in mind these points: Multiple users may exist on the same IP address, due to the presence of routers, therefore users must have a separate identification key. Packets can be spoofed, so the key should be checked against its original IP address and ignored if a different IP tries to use the key. The outbound port on the client side might change among packets. Is that third assumption correct, or can I simply assume that one user = one IP+port combination? Is this commonly done, or should I continue to create a special key like I am currently doing? I'm not completely clear on how TCP negotiates a connection so if you think I should model it off of TCP then please link me to a good tutorial or something on TCP's SYN/SYNACK/ACK mess. Also note, I do have a provision to resend a key, if an IP sends a 0 and that IP already has a pending key; I omitted it to keep the snippet simple. I understand that UDP is not guaranteed to arrive, and I plan to add reliability to the main packet handling code later as well.

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• How to parse this xml document?

  - by dfjhdfjhdf

  Get such a XML document with the help of ajax (var data = request.responseXML;), how do I parse the contacts?: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Alladresses xmlns="http://somedomain.org/doc/2007-08-02/"> <Owner> <ID>gut74hfowesdfj49fjsifhryh8e8rta3uyhw4</ID> <Name>Mr.Bin</Name> </Owner> <Contacts> <Person> <Name>Greg</Name> <Phone>3254566756</Phone> </Person> <Person> <Name>Smith</Name> <Phone>342446446</Phone> </Person> <Person> <Name>Yuliya</Name> <Phone>675445566867</Phone> </Person> </Contacts> </Alladresses>

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• How to transform SoapFault to SoapMessage via Interceptor in CXF?

  - by Michal Mech

  I have web-service created and configured via Spring and CXF. See beans below: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans <!-- ommited -->> <import resource="classpath:META-INF/cxf/cxf.xml" /> <import resource="classpath:META-INF/cxf/cxf-extension-soap.xml" /> <import resource="classpath:META-INF/cxf/cxf-servlet.xml" /> <bean id="internalActService" class="package.InternalActServiceImpl" /> <jaxws:endpoint implementor="#internalActService" address="/InternalActService"> <jaxws:properties> <entry key="schema-validation-enabled" value="true" /> </jaxws:properties> <jaxws:outFaultInterceptors> <bean class="package.InternalActServiceFaultOutInterceptor" /> </jaxws:outFaultInterceptors> </jaxws:endpoint> </beans> As can you see I added schema validation to my web service. But CXF throws SoapFault when request is not corresponding with schema. I want to send to the client SoapMessage instead of SoapFault, that's why I added outFaultInterceptors. My question is how to transform SoapFault to SoapMessage? I've made few tries but I don't know how to implement outFaultInterceptor.

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• Resetting a PChar variable

  - by scott-thornton

  Hi, I don't know much about delphi win 32 programming, but I hope someone can answer my question. I get duplicate l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer saved into the database which I want to avoid. The l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer is actually different ( the value of l_sAuthorisationContent is xml, and I can see a different value generated by the call to getUniqueId) between rows. This problem is intermittant ( duplicates are rare...) There is only milliseconds difference between the update date between the rows. Given: ( unnesseary code cut out) l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer: PChar; FOutputBufferSize : integer; FOutputBufferSize := 1024; while( not dmAccomClaim.ADOQuClaimIdentification.Eof ) do begin // Get a unique id for the request l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer := AllocMem (FOutputBufferSize); l_returnCode := getUniqueId (m_APISessionId^, l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer, FOutputBufferSize); dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.Active := False; dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.Parameters.ParamByName('pContent').Value := (WideString(l_sAuthorisationContent)); dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.Parameters.ParamByName('pClaimId').Value := dmAccomClaim.ADOQuClaimIdentification.FieldByName('SB_CLAIM_ID').AsString; dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.Parameters.ParamByName('pUniqueId').Value := string(l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer); dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.ExecSQL; FreeMem( l_sAuthorisationContent, l_iAuthoriseContentSize ); FreeMem( l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer, FOutputBufferSize ); end; I guess i need to know, is the value in l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer being reset for every row??

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• Spring MVC handle button event in list

  - by GigaPr

  Hi, i created a list of Users <div class="usersList"> <c:forEach items="${users}" var="user"> <div class="listElementAction"> <c:out value="${user.id}"/> </div> <div class="listElement"> <c:out value="${user.firstName}"/> </div> <div class="listElement"> <c:out value="${user.lastName}"/> </div> <div class="listElement"> <c:out value="${user.username}"/> </div> <div class="listElementAction"> <input type="button" name="Edit" title="Edit" value="Edit" /> </div> <div class="listElementAction"> <input type="image" src="images/delete.png" name="image" value="${user.id}" alt="Delete" onclick="return confirm('Do you want to delete ${user.username}?')" > </div> <br /> </c:forEach> </div> and my controler looks like this public class UsersController implements Controller { private UserServiceImplementation userServiceImplementation; public ModelAndView handleRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("users"); modelAndView.addObject("users", this.userServiceImplementation.get()); return modelAndView; } public UserServiceImplementation getUserServiceImplementation() { return userServiceImplementation; } public void setUserServiceImplementation(UserServiceImplementation userServiceImplementation) { this.userServiceImplementation = userServiceImplementation; } } How can i handle the delete and edit button event?

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• oData/ADO.NET Data Services using LINQ-to-SQL with a decryption layer

  - by Program.X

  I have written an application using LINQ-to-SQL that submits a web form into a database. I absact the LINQ-to-SQL away using a Repository pattern. This repository has the basic methods: Get(), Save(), etc. As a development of the project, I needed to encrypt certain fields in the form. This was trivial, as I just added the encryption calls to the Get(), Save() methods in the Repository. Now, I want to put an oData layer over it, to allow RESTful extraction from MS Excel 2010 (when it comes out). I have this working, after a few stumbles on useless error messages, etc. However, obviously, those encrypted fields are still encrypted. My repository pattern would have decrypted these for me. As far as I know, I have to directly bind my oData service to the LINQ-to-SQL context for the schema, etc. to work - unless I enter a whole world of pain (any URLs appreciated). Is there a way I can insert my encryption/decryption layer into the request so decryption is done "on the fly"? I looked at the OnStartProcessingRequest() overload of DataService but this doesn't seem that useful.

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• PHP Post Count in Forum

  - by Chris

  I'm currently desiging a forum application, I considered using a premade but decided against it as it's useful for me to learn some of the techniques. So I've written a fairly full featured forum... great. One of the problems I want to solve is to include user data for each post, at the minute the post table includes the poster ID (obviously) and I added the poster's username at a later date so I didn't have to query the User DB for X number of posts in a thread. However, it's become apparent I now want to do this, usernames don't need to update retrospectively, however avatars, sigs, and especially post counts need to update actively, so data in some form needs keeping up to date somewhere... What would be a good way of implementing this? I obviously don't want to include any more user data on the Posts DB table than necessary, but I'm struggling to find an easy way to do this short of querying the DB for each post in a thread, which is potentially going to create a lot of traffic. How have other people solved this, I've been examining the code on some other open source apps but I can't find what I'm looking for. Is it possible to select multiple records in one query? In which case I could build an array dynamically on each page request (eg 'SQL blah blah' then a for each loop to insert the ID's). Could I join the tables each time? Do I submit a query for each post? Hmm.

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