Search Results

Search found 32731 results on 1310 pages for 'method hiding'.

Page 511/1310 | < Previous Page | 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518  | Next Page >

  • How can I fix my window focus problem?

    - by Ben313
    I have a very frustrating bug in an application I am working on. The routine is supposed to do something in one window, and then return focus to the other at the end of the method, but when I started to use a large data set the other day, the focus stopped returning at the end. I stepped through the code one line at a time, and the errors stopped. so, i figure its a timing issue of some kind. I trace through until i find what i suspect is the culprit. A call to ShellExecute(...), that terminates an image editor i use. (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb762153(VS.85).aspx) Now, if I step past this call, and then continue to run the program, everything works fine, but if I just run past this line, the error occurs. how can this be? I have a call to SetFocus() at the very end of this method. shouldnt the program hit this no matter what? This is all so very frustrating...

    Read the article

  • php / phpDoc - @return instance of $this class ?

    - by searbe
    How do I mark a method as "returns an instance of the current class" in my phpDoc? In the following example my IDE (Netbeans) will see that setSomething always returns a foo object. But that's not true if I extent the object - it'll return $this, which in the second example is a bar object not a foo object. class foo { protected $_value = null; /** * Set something * * @param string $value the value * @return foo */ public function setSomething($value) { $this->_value = $value; return $this; } } $foo = new foo(); $out = $foo->setSomething(); So fine - setSomething returns a foo - but in the following example, it returns a bar..: class bar extends foo { public function someOtherMethod(){} } $bar = new bar(); $out = $bar->setSomething(); $out->someOtherMethod(); // <-- Here, Netbeans will think $out // is a foo, so doesn't see this other // method in $out's code-completion ... it'd be great to solve this as for me, code completion is a massive speed-boost. Anyone got a clever trick, or even better, a proper way to document this with phpDoc?

    Read the article

  • JPA Problems mapping relationships

    - by Rosen Martev
    Hello. I have a problem when I try to persist my model. An exception is thrown when creating the EntityManagerFactory: Blockquote javax.persistence.PersistenceException: [PersistenceUnit: NIF] Unable to build EntityManagerFactory at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:677) at org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence.createEntityManagerFactory(HibernatePersistence.java:126) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:52) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:34) at project.serealization.util.PersistentManager.createSession(PersistentManager.java:24) at project.serealization.SerializationTest.testProject(SerializationTest.java:25) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at junit.framework.TestCase.runTest(TestCase.java:168) at junit.framework.TestCase.runBare(TestCase.java:134) at junit.framework.TestResult$1.protect(TestResult.java:110) at junit.framework.TestResult.runProtected(TestResult.java:128) at junit.framework.TestResult.run(TestResult.java:113) at junit.framework.TestCase.run(TestCase.java:124) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:232) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:227) at org.junit.internal.runners.JUnit38ClassRunner.run(JUnit38ClassRunner.java:79) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:46) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197) Caused by: org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in nif.action_element for column FLOW_ID. Found: double, expected: bigint at org.hibernate.mapping.Table.validateColumns(Table.java:284) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.validateSchema(Configuration.java:1116) at org.hibernate.tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaValidator.validate(SchemaValidator.java:139) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.(SessionFactoryImpl.java:349) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.buildSessionFactory(Configuration.java:1327) at org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.buildSessionFactory(AnnotationConfiguration.java:867) at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:669) ... 24 more The code for SimpleActionElement and SimpleFlow is as follows: @Entity public class SimpleActionElement { @OneToOne(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, targetEntity = SimpleFlow.class) @JoinColumn(name = "FLOW_ID") private SimpleFlow<T> flow; ... } @Entity public class SimpleFlow<T> { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name = "ELEMENT_ID") private Long element_id; ... }

    Read the article

  • scala 2.8 CanBuildFrom

    - by oxbow_lakes
    Following on from another question I asked, I wanted to understand a bit more about the Scala method TraversableLike[A].map whose signature is as follows: def map[B, That](f: A => B)(implicit bf: CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That]): That Notice a few things about this method: it takes a function turning each A in the traversable into a B it returns That and takes an implicit argument of type CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That] I can call this as follows: > val s: Set[Int] = List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) s: Set[Int] Set(5,6) What I cannot quite grasp is how the fact that That is bound to B (i.e. it is some collection of B's) is being enforced by the compiler. The type parameters look to be independent in both the signature above and in the signature of the trait CanBuildFrom itself: trait CanBuildFrom[-From, -Elem, +To] How is the scala compiler ensuring that That cannot be forced into something which does not make sense? > val s: Set[String] = List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) //will not compile EDIT - this question of course boils down to: How does the compiler decide what implicit CanBuildFrom objects are in scope for the call?

    Read the article

  • Android getSelectedItem, how to use?

    - by user1881184
    Im trying use the spinner control result in order to point it to another screen that would be on the app. For example in the spinner control if the user chose chevy it would then take you to another screen which is coded in chevy.xml and Chevy.class. This is what i have thus far and need some help, as our book only used getSelectedItem and the example was only for an output statement. Please help. import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.AdapterView; import android.widget.AdapterView.OnItemSelectedListener; import android.widget.Spinner; public class Mainpage extends Activity implements OnItemSelectedListener { String carChoice, chevy, ford, dodge, toyota; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main); /* carChoice = group.getSelectedItem().toString(); } if (carChoice.compareTo(chevy)==0) { startActivity(new Intent(Mainpage.this, Chevy.class)); */ } public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0, View arg1, int arg2, long arg3) { final Spinner group = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.carGroup); group.setOnItemSelectedListener(this); // TODO Auto-generated method stub String selected = group.getItemAtPosition(1).toString(); } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } }

    Read the article

  • Safe way for getting/finding a vertex in a graph with custom properties -> good programming practice

    - by Shadow
    Hi, I am writing a Graph-class using boost-graph-library. I use custom vertex and edge properties and a map to store/find the vertices/edges for a given property. I'm satisfied with how it works, so far. However, I have a small problem, where I'm not sure how to solve it "nicely". The class provides a method Vertex getVertex(Vertexproperties v_prop) and a method bool hasVertex(Vertexproperties v_prop) The question now is, would you judge this as good programming practice in C++? My opinion is, that I have first to check if something is available before I can get it. So, before getting a vertex with a desired property, one has to check if hasVertex() would return true for those properties. However, I would like to make getVertex() a bit more robust. ATM it will segfault when one would directly call getVertex() without prior checking if the graph has a corresponding vertex. A first idea was to return a NULL-pointer or a pointer that points past the last stored vertex. For the latter, I haven't found out how to do this. But even with this "robust" version, one would have to check for correctness after getting a vertex or one would also run into a SegFault when dereferencing that vertex-pointer for example. Therefore I am wondering if it is "ok" to let getVertex() SegFault if one does not check for availability beforehand?

    Read the article

  • C# / this. and List<T>

    - by user3533030
    I am having trouble understanding how to initialize a List of objects and use it with methods inside of a class. I understand the mechanics of the List, but not how to initialize it inside a method and use it later. For example, I want to have a class that creates the List when it is constructed. Then, I want to use a method of that class to add elements to the list. The elements in the list are objects defined by the SolidWorks API. So, to construct the List, I used... public class ExportPoints : Exporter { public List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints; public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); } public void createListOfFreePoints() { try { [imagine more code here] this.listOfSketchPoints.Add(pointTest); } catch (Exception e) { Debug.Print(e.ToString()); return; } } This fails during execution as if the listOfSketchPoints was never initialized as a List. So, I tried a hack and this worked: public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); this.listOfSketchPoints = listOfSketchPoints; } This approach creates the behavior that I want. However, it seems that I lack some understanding as to why this is necessary. Shouldn't it be possible to "initialize" a List that is a property of your object with a constructor? Why would you need to create the list, then assign the pointer of that new List to your property?

    Read the article

  • what's a good technique for building and running many similar unit tests?

    - by jcollum
    I have a test setup where I have many very similar unit tests that I need to run. For example, there are about 40 stored procedures that need to be checked for existence in the target environment. However I'd like all the tests to be grouped by their business unit. So there'd be 40 instances of a very similar TestMethod in 40 separate classes. Kinda lame. One other thing: each group of tests need to be in their own solution. So Business Unit A will have a solution called Tests.BusinessUnitA. I'm thinking that I can set this all up by passing a configuration object (with the name of the stored proc to check, among other things) to a TestRunner class. The problem is that I'm losing the atomicity of my unit tests. I wouldn't be able to run just one of the tests, I'd have to run all the tests in the TestRunner class. This is what the code looks like at this time. Sure, it's nice and compact, but if Test 8 fails, I have no way of running just Test 8. TestRunner runner = new TestRunner(config, this.TestContext); var runnerType = typeof(TestRunner); var methods = runnerType.GetMethods() .Where(x => x.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(TestMethodAttribute), false) .Count() > 0).ToArray(); foreach (var method in methods) { method.Invoke(runner, null); } So I'm looking for suggestions for making a group of unit tests that take in a configuration object but won't require me to generate many many TestMethods. This looks like it might require code-generation, but I'd like to solve it without that.

    Read the article

  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

    Read the article

  • Java Socket - how to catch Exception of BufferedReader.readline()

    - by Hasan Tahsin
    I have a Thread (let's say T1) which reads data from socket: public void run() { while (running) { try { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream()) ); String input = reader.readLine(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } Another Thread (lets say T2) try to finish the program in one of its method. Therefore T2 does the following: T1.running = false; socket.close(); Here is this scenario for which i couldn't find a solution: T1 is active and waiting for some input to read i.e. blocking. context switching T2 is active and sets running to false, closes the socket context switching because T1 was blocking and T2 closed the socket, T1 throws an Exception. What i want is to catch this SocketException. i can't put a try/catch(SocketException) in T1.run(). So how can i catch it in T1's running-method? If it's not possible to catch it in T1's running, then how can i catch it elsewhere? PS: "Another question about the Thread Debugging" Normally when i debug the code step by step, i lose the 'active running line' on a context switch. Let's say i'm in line 20 of T1, context switch happens, let's assume the program continues from the 30.line of T2, but the debugger does not go/show to the 30.line of T2, instead the 'active running line' vanishes. So i lose the control over the code. I use Eclipse for Java and Visual Studio for C#. So what is the best way to track the code while debugging on a context switch ?

    Read the article

  • Rails 4 testing bug?

    - by Jamato
    Situation: if we add two identic line items into a cart, we update line item quantity instead of adding a duplicate.In browser everything works fine but in unit testing section something fails because of an empty cycle in code. Which I wanted to use to update all prices. Why? Is that a unit test engine bug? LineItem.all and cart.line_items in process of testing produce two DIFFERENT structures. #<LineItem id: 980190964, product_id: 1, cart_id: 999, created_at: "2014-06-01 00:21:28", updated_at: "2014-06-01 00:21:28", quantity: 2, price: #<BigDecimal:ba0fb544,'0.4E1',9(27)>> #<LineItem id: 980190964, product_id: 1, cart_id: 999, created_at: "2014-06-01 00:21:28", updated_at: "2014-06-01 00:21:28", quantity: 1, price: #<BigDecimal:ba0d1b04,'0.4E1',9(27)>> cart.line_items guy did not update quantity Code itself (produces LineItem which is then saved in line_item_controller which calls this method) class Cart < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :line_items, dependent: :destroy def add_product(product_id) # LOOK THIS CYCLE BREAKS UNIT TEST, SRSLY, I MEAN IT line_items.each do |item| end current_item = line_items.find_by(product_id: product_id) fresh_price = Product.find_by(id: product_id).price if current_item current_item.quantity += 1 else current_item = line_items.build(product_id: product_id, price: fresh_price) end return current_item end ... Unit test code test "non-unique item added" do cart = Cart.new(:id => 999) line_item0 = cart.add_product(2) line_item0.save line_item1 = cart.add_product(1) line_item1.save assert_equal 2, cart.line_items.size #success line_item2 = cart.add_product(1) line_item2.save assert_equal 2, cart.line_items.size, "what?" assert cart.total_price > 15 #fail, prices are not enough, quantity of product1 = 1 #we get total price from quantity, it's a simple method in model end And once again: IT DOES WORK in browser as it should. Even with cycle. I feel so dumb right now...

    Read the article

  • Calculating percent "x/y * 100" always results in 0?

    - by Patrick Beninga
    In my assignment i have to make a simple version of Craps, for some reason the percentage assignments always produce 0 even when both variables are non 0, here is the code. import java.util.Random; Header, note the variables public class Craps { private int die1, die2,myRoll ,myBet,point,myWins,myLosses; private double winPercent,lossPercent; private Random r = new Random(); Just rolls two dies and produces their some. public int roll(){ die1 = r.nextInt(6)+1; die2 = r.nextInt(6)+1; return(die1 + die2); } The Play method, this just loops through the game. public void play(){ myRoll = roll(); point = 0; if(myRoll == 2 ||myRoll == 3 || myRoll == 12){ System.out.println("You lose!"); myLosses++; }else if(myRoll == 7 || myRoll == 11){ System.out.println("You win!"); myWins++; }else{ point = myRoll; do { myRoll = roll(); }while(myRoll != 7 && myRoll != point); if(myRoll == point){ System.out.println("You win!"); myWins++; }else{ System.out.println("You lose!"); myLosses++; } } } This is where the bug is, this is the tester method. public void tester(int howMany){ int i = 0; while(i < howMany){ play(); i++; } bug is right here in these assignments statements winPercent = myWins/i * 100; lossPercent = myLosses/i* 100; System.out.println("program ran "+i+" times "+winPercent+"% wins "+ lossPercent+"% losses with "+myWins+" wins and "+myLosses+" losses"); } }

    Read the article

  • IE8 and below <input type="image"> value work around

    - by kielie
    Hi guys, I have a slight problem, I am trying to capture the input of two buttons, one yes, one no, into a database but for some reason the database doesn't always show the value of the button clicked, it just shows up blank. <form action="refer.php" method="post" id="formID" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: left;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/yes.jpg" alt="submit" value="yes" onclick="this.disabled=true,this.form.submit();" /></span> <input type="hidden" name="refer" value="yes"> </div> </form> <form action="thank_you.php" method="post" id="formID" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: right;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/no.jpg" alt="submit" value="no" onclick="this.disabled=true,this.form.submit();" /></span> <input type="hidden" name="refer" value="no" > </div> </form> Apparently anything lower than IE8 will ignore the value attribute of all form inputs. How could I get this to work properly in all browsers? jQuery or Javascript maybe?

    Read the article

  • Confusion about pointers and their memory addresses

    - by TimothyTech
    alright, im looking at a code here and the idea is difficult to understand. #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Point { public : int X,Y; Point() : X(0), Y(0) {} }; void MoveUp (Point * p) { p -> Y += 5; } int main() { Point point MoveUp(&point) cout <<point.X << point.Y; return 0; } Alright, so i believe that a class is created and X and Y are declared and they are put inside a constructor a method is created and the argument is Point * p, which means that we are going to stick the constructor's pointer inside the function; now we create an object called point then call our method and put the pointers address inside it? isnt the pointers address just a memory number like 0x255255? and why wasnt p ever declared? (int * p = Y) what is a memory addres exactly? that it can be used as an argument?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate many-to-many relationship

    - by Capitan
    I have two mapped types, related many-to-many. @Entity @Table(name = "students") public class Student{ ... @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name = "students2courses", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn( name = "student_id", referencedColumnName = "_id") }, inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn( name = "course_id", referencedColumnName = "_id") }) public Set<Course> getCourses() { return courses; } public void setCourses(Set<Course> courses) { this.courses = courses; } ... } __ @Entity @Table(name = "courses") public class Course{ ... @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, mappedBy = "courses") public Set<Student> getStudents() { return students; } public void setStudents(Set<Student> students) { this.students = students; } ... } But if I update/delete Course entity, records are not created/deleted in table students2courses. (with Student entity updating/deleting goes as expected) I wrote abstract class HibObject public abstract class HibObject { public String getRemoveMTMQuery() { return null; } } which is inherited by Student and Course. In DAO I added this code (for delete() method): String query = obj.getRemoveMTMQuery(); if (query != null) { session.createSQLQuery(query).executeUpdate(); } and I ovrerided method getRemoveMTMQuery() for Course @Override @Transient public String getRemoveMTMQuery() { return "delete from students2courses where course_id = " + id + ";"; } Now it works but I think it's a bad code. Is there a best way to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods?

    - by RCola
    Why I can noy access my variable p in mull form iterate method? How to resolve a problem? Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods? public class mull { public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { final JPanel p = createAndShowGUI(); Timer timer = new Timer(1000, new MyTimerActionListener()); timer.start(); try { Thread.sleep(10000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } timer.stop(); public static void iterate(){ for (int i = 0; i < 55; i++){ // "p cannot be resolved" p.moveSquare(i*10, i*10); p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); // p.repaint(); } } } class MyPanel extends JPanel { .... } How to access variable set in another method (in this example main())? Why Eclipse forces me to use this ((MyPanel) p).setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); instead of this p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200);?

    Read the article

  • Is it an good idea to make a wrapper specifically for a DateTime that respresents Now?

    - by Dirk Boer
    I have been noticing lately that is really nice to use a DateTime representing 'now' as an input parameter for your methods, for mocking and testing purposes. Instead of every method calling DateTime.UtcNow themselves, I do it once in the upper methods and forward it on the lower ones. So a lot of methods that need a 'now', have an input parameter DateTime now. (I'm using MVC, and try to detect a parameter called now and modelbind DateTime.UtcNow to it) So instead of: public bool IsStarted { get { return StartTime >= DateTime.UtcNow; } } I usually have: public bool IsStarted(DateTime now) { return StartTime >= now; } So my convention is at the moment, if a method has a DateTime parameter called now, you have to feed it with the current time. Of course this comes down to convention, and someone else can easily just throw some other DateTime in there as a parameter. To make it more solid and static-typed I am thinking about wrapping DateTime in a new object, i.e. DateTimeNow. So in one of the most upper layers I will convert the DateTime to a DateTimeNow and we will get compile errors when, someone tries to fiddle in a normal DateTime. Of course you can still workaround this, but at least if feels more that you are doing something wrong at point. Did anyone else ever went into this path? Are there any good or bad results on the long term that I am not thinking about?

    Read the article

  • Call to a member function ... on a non-object

    - by jayceekay
    i have an object which is instantiated in an initialize file, which is called with every request. the name is right, so why is it telling me that oourls isn't an object and that redirectLoggedIn isn't its method? a var dump on oourls says NULL. but it's instantiated, and the backtrace at the bottom shows that it goes through initialization and instantiates it. pretty small snippet of code, here's the relevant bit: if($email) { global $session; $session->grantLogin($email); global $oourls; $oourls->redirectLoggedIn(); } else { return false; } and here's the output of debug_print_backtrace i threw in above the oourls method call because i'm completely confused: #0 accounts::verifyEmailRegisterAccount(37a6274c8f4bfa5c537b40e8e04d634a) called at [\public\includes\default\verifyemail.php:16] #1 require_once(\public\includes\default\verifyemail.php) called at [\support\php\ObjectOrientedURLs.class.php:48] #2 ObjectOrientedURLs->mhqqrVerifyemail(Array ([0] => 37a6274c8f4bfa5c537b40e8e04d634a)) #3 ReflectionMethod->invoke(ObjectOrientedURLs Object (), Array ([0] => 37a6274c8f4bfa5c537b40e8e04d634a)) called at [\support\php\ObjectOrientedURLs.class.php:280] #4 ObjectOrientedURLs->parseAndInvokeURL() called at [\support\php\ObjectOrientedURLs.class.php:255] #5 ObjectOrientedURLs->__construct() called at [\support\php\initialize.php:76] #6 require_once(\support\php\initialize.php) called at [\public\index.php:2]

    Read the article

  • Printing a JFrame and its components

    - by Alex Terreaux
    I have been working in a big program and one of its functionalities should be to print the contents of the main window. I checked the API and found this example: http://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/2d/printing/gui.html it was very helpful, I tried to use that code in my program by placing this inside the actionperformed method of my print button: PrinterJob job = PrinterJob.getPrinterJob(); job.setPrintable(this); boolean ok = job.printDialog(); if (ok) { try { job.print(); } catch (PrinterException ex) { /* The job did not successfully complete */ } } If I click the print button, I get a printer dialog and when I tell it to print, it just prints a blank document. I know the above code is not all I need, as I've seen in the API's examples there is a print() method, but apparently they never call it, so it is pretty confusing. I've tried calling and using it many times, but with no success. Also, I think that when I finally get it to print, my window will need to be printed in the landscape orientation, it even may need some scaling. Any ideas on how to do that? I would like any useful help to help me implement this code successfully. I know I should be able to do it by myself just by checking the documentation (I've tried for almost 2 days now) but I can't get it to work. I've learned all the programming I know through the internet. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Store data in tableview to NSUserDefaults

    - by Jozef Vrana
    Tricks.h file #import "Tricks.h" @implementation Tricks static NSMutableArray *trickList = nil; +(NSMutableArray *)trickList { if(!trickList){ trickList = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } return trickList; } @end Tricks.m file @interface Tricks : NSObject @property(strong, nonatomic) NSString *trickName; Method for adding objects to array -(IBAction)saveAction:(id)sender { Tricks *trick = [[Tricks alloc]init]; trick.trickName = self.trickLabel.text; [[Tricks trickList]insertObject:trick atIndex:0]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } In .h file of UITabelview class I am making a reference to tricks class, but I am sure there is error on this line. @property (strong, nonatomic) Tricks *tricks; In cellForRow method I am storing data _trick = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]initWithObjectsAndKeys:trick,nil]; NSUserDefaults *defaults=[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [defaults setObject:_trick forKey:@"numberArray"]; [defaults synchronize]; NSLog(@"%@",_trick); In .m class of UITableview in viewDidLoad I want to retrieve data if([[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"numberArray"] != nil) { _tricks = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"numberArray"]; } Thanks for advices

    Read the article

  • Why should I install Python packages into `~/.local`?

    - by Matthew Rankin
    Background I don't develop using OS X's system provided Python versions (on OS X 10.6 that's Python 2.5.4 and 2.6.1). I don't install anything in the site-packages directory for the OS provided versions of Python. (The only exception is Mercurial installed from a binary package, which installs two packages in the Python 2.6.1 site-packages directory.) I installed three versions of Python, all using the Mac OS X installer disk image: Python 2.6.6 Python 2.7 Python 3.1.2 I don't like polluting the site-packages directory for my Python installations. So I only install the following five base packages in the site-packages directory. For the actual method/commands used to install these, see SO Question 4324558. setuptools/ez_setup distribute pip virtualenv virtualenvwrapper All other packages are installed in virtualenvs. I am the only user of this MacBook. Questions Given the above background, why should I install the five base packages in ~/.local? Since I'm installing these base packages into the site-packages directories of Python distributions that I've installed, I'm isolated from the OS X's Python distributions. Using this method, should I be concerned about Glyph's comment that other things could potentially break (see his comment below)? Again, I'm only interested in where to install those five base packages. Related Questions/Info I'm asking because of Glyph's comment to my answer to SO question 4314376, which stated: NO. NEVER EVER do sudo python setup.py install whatever. Write a ~/.pydistutils.cfg that puts your pip installation into ~/.local or something. Especially files named ez_setup.py tend to suck down newer versions of things like setuptools and easy_install, which can potentially break other things on your operating system. Previously, I asked What's the proper way to install pip, virtualenv, and distribute for Python?. However, no one answered the "why" of using ~/.local.

    Read the article

  • Properties in User-Control Ctor are duplicated to the hosting form

    - by fortis
    An annoying behavior of Visual Studio (2008)'s designer is to duplicate any property of a control, which is set inside the control's constructor code to the InitializeComponent() method of the hosting form. For example, if I create a new user control and write the following line in its Ctor: this.Text = "Hard Coded Name"; then this same line will appear inside the InitializeComponent() method of any form hosting this control. As long as it's about this kind of properties, it's only annoying because if I were to change the Text property inside the control to: "Better Hard Coded Name", I'd have to go over all hosting controls and manually change the Text value over there too. The real problem is with ".Add(something)" properties - like if my control is a TableLayoutPanel and I want it to have a certain number of columns and rows. Any col or row style set inside the user control will be duplicated in the hosting form and we end up with having twice as wanted. The count (e.g. ColumnCount) will be as planned but if I were to add cols later on, things will get messy. Is there a way to signal VS's designer not to duplicate properties? What can I do to avoid this behavior?

    Read the article

  • Validation Logic

    - by user2961971
    I am trying to create some validation for a form I have. There are two text boxes and two radio buttons on the form. My logic for this validation I know is a little rusty at the moment so any suggestions would be great. Here is the code for what I have so far: Keep in mind that the int errors is a public variable in the class Start Button code: private void btnStart_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { errors = validateForm(); //Here I want the user to be able to fix any errors where I am little stuck on that logic at the moment //validate the form while (errors > 0) { validateForm(); errors = validateForm(); } } ValidateForm Method: private int validateForm() { errors = 0; //check the form if there are any unentered values if (txtDest.Text == "") { errors++; } if (txtExt.Text == "") { errors++; } if (validateRadioBtns() == true) { errors++; } return errors; } ValidateRadioBtns Method: private Boolean validateRadioBtns() { //flag - false: selected, true: none selected Boolean blnFlag = false; //both of the radio buttons are unchecked if (radAll.Checked == false && radOther.Checked == false) { blnFlag = true; } //check if there is a value entered in the text box if other is checked else if(radOther.Checked == true && txtExt.Text == "") { blnFlag = true; } return blnFlag; } Overall I feel like this can somehow be more stream lined which I am fairly stuck on. Also, I am stuck on how to ensure the user can return to the form, fix the errors, and then validate again to ensure said errors are fixed. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated since I know this is such a nooby question.

    Read the article

  • Passing list of items from Controller/Model to a variable in javascript - autocomplete

    - by newbie_developer
    I've a method in a NamesModel which fetches all the names and returns a list of names: public static List<NamesModel> GetAllNames() { List<NamesModel> names = new List<NamesModel>(); // // code to fetch records // return names; } In my controller: public ActionResult Index() { NamesModel model = new NamesModel(); model.GetAllNames(); return View(model); } In the view, I've got a textbox: @Html.TextBox("search-name") Now in my javascript, I want to fetch all names into a variable either from a model (from method) or from controller, for example: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { var names = ........... $(document).ready(function () { $('#search-name').autocomplete({ source: names }); }); }); </script> If I use hardcoding then it works but I want to use the names stored in the db. Is it possible? hardcoding example: var names = ["abc", "xyz"];

    Read the article

  • ASP disable button during postback

    - by user667430
    I have a button which i am trying to add a css class to appear disabled once the user has clicked it. protected void Button_Continue_OnClick(object sender, EventArgs e) { Panel_Error.Visible = false; Literal_Error.Text = ""; if (RadioButton_Yes.Checked) { ...//if radio checked get text and process etc. } } My button onlick is above which simply processes a textbox filled on the page. My button looks like this: <asp:Button runat="server" ID="Button_Continue" CssClass="button dis small" Text="Continue" OnClick="Button_Continue_OnClick" ClientIDMode="Static" OnClientClick="return preventMult();" /> And my javscript is as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> var isSubmitted = false; function preventMult() { if (isSubmitted == false) { $('#Button_Continue').removeClass('ready'); $('#Button_Continue').addClass('disabled'); isSubmitted = true; return true; } else { return false; } } </script> The problem I am having is that the css class added works fine on the first postback, but after which my button onclick doesnt work and the button cant be clicked again if the user needs to resubmit the data if it is wrong Another problem I am having is that with a breakpoint in my method i notice that the method is fired twice on the click.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518  | Next Page >