Search Results

Search found 63114 results on 2525 pages for 'set identity insert'.

Page 512/2525 | < Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >

  • Extract primary key from MySQL in PHP

    - by Parth
    I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, please help me in how can i modify to get primary key I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

    Read the article

  • write html content from javascript

    - by Nikita Rybak
    There's one thing I want to do with javascript, but don't know how. In a perfect world it would look like this: <p>My very cool page!</p> <script type="text/javascript"> document.write('<div>some content</div>'); </script> And this script would insert <div>some content</div> right before (or after, or instead of) script tag. But in the real world, document.write starts writing html anew, removing any static content in the page (<p> tag, in this case). This is simplified example, but should give you the idea. I know that I can statically put <div id="some_id"></div> before script tag and insert html in it from js, but I wanna be able to use multiple instances of this snippet without changing it (generating random id manually) each time. I'm ok to use jquery or any other existing library as well. Is there any way to achieve this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Scale image to fit text boxes around borders

    - by nispio
    I have the following plot in Matlab: The image size may vary, and so may the length of the text boxes at the top and left. I dynamically determine the strings that go in these text boxes and then create them with: [M,N] = size(img); imagesc((1:N)-0.5,(1:M)-0.5, img > 0.5); axis image; grid on; colormap([1 1 1; 0.5 0.5 0.5]); set(gca,'XColor','k','YColor','k','TickDir','out') set(gca,'XTick',1:N,'XTickLabel',cell(1,N)) set(gca,'YTick',1:N,'YTickLabel',cell(1,N)) for iter = 1:M text(-0.5, iter-0.5, sprintf(strL, br{iter,:}), ... 'FontSize',16, ... 'HorizontalAlignment','right', ... 'VerticalAlignment','middle', ... 'Interpreter','latex' ); end for iter = 1:N text(iter-0.5, -0.5, {bc{:,iter}}, ... 'FontSize',16, ... 'HorizontalAlignment','center', ... 'VerticalAlignment','bottom', ... 'Interpreter','latex' ); end where br and bc are cell arrays containing the appropriate numbers for the labels. The problem is that most of the time, the text gets clipped by the edges of the figure. I am using this as a workaround: set(gca,'Position',[0.25 0.25 0.5 0.5]); As you can see, I am simply adding a larger border around the plot so that there is more room for the text. While this scaling works for one zoom level, if I maximize my plot window I get way too much empty space, and if I shrink my plot window, I get clipping again. Is there a more intelligent way to add these labels to use the minimum amount of space while making sure that the text does not get clipped?

    Read the article

  • MySQL: order by and limit gives wrong result

    - by Larry K
    MySQL ver 5.1.26 I'm getting the wrong result with a select that has where, order by and limit clauses. It's only a problem when the order by uses the id column. I saw the MySQL manual for LIMIT Optimization My guess from reading the manual is that there is some problem with the index on the primary key, id. But I don't know where I should go from here... Question: what should I do to best solve the problem? Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) WRONG result when limit added! Should be the first row, id - 1336 mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.01 sec) Works correctly with limit: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) Additional info: explain SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | billing_invoices | range | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | 4 | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+

    Read the article

  • 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

    - by user72603
    I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

    Read the article

  • Problems by inserting values from textboxes

    - by simon
    I'm trying to insert the current date to the database and i allways get the message(when i press the button on the form to save to my access database), that the data type is incorect in the conditional expression. the code: string conString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=C:\\Users\\Simon\\Desktop\\save.mdb"; OleDbConnection empConnection = new OleDbConnection(conString); string insertStatement = "INSERT INTO obroki_save " + "([ID_uporabnika],[ID_zivila],[skupaj_kalorij]) " + "VALUES (@ID_uporabnika,@ID_zivila,@skupaj_kalorij)"; OleDbCommand insertCommand = new OleDbCommand(insertStatement, empConnection); insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@ID_uporabnika", OleDbType.Char).Value = users.iDTextBox.Text; insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@ID_zivila", OleDbType.Char).Value = iDTextBox.Text; insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@skupaj_kalorij", OleDbType.Char).Value = textBox1.Text; empConnection.Open(); try { int count = insertCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (OleDbException ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { empConnection.Close(); textBox1.Clear(); textBox2.Clear(); textBox3.Clear(); textBox4.Clear(); textBox5.Clear(); } I have now cut out the date,( i made access paste the date ), still there is the same problem. Is the first line ok? users.idtextbox.text? Please help !

    Read the article

  • pagination in jsf

    - by gurupriyan.e
    I would like your comments and suggestion on this. I am doing the pagination for a page in jsf. The datatable is bound to a Backing Bean property through the "binding" attribute. I have 2 boolean variables to determine whether to render 'Prev' and 'Next' Button - which is displayed below the datatable. When either the 'Prev' or 'Next' button is clicked, In the backing bean I get the bound dataTable property and through which i get the "first" and "rows" attribute of the datatable and change accordingly. I display 5 rows in the page. Please comment and suggest if there any better ways. btw, I am not interested in any JSF Component libraries but stick to only core html render kit. public String goNext() { UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); setShowPrev(true); //set Rows "0" or "5" if(getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)>5 ) { htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows }else if (getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)<=5) { htdbl.setRows(0);//display all rows (which are less than 5) setShowNext(false); } //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()+5); return "success"; } public String goPrev() { setShowNext(true); UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()-5); if(htdbl.getFirst()==0) { setShowPrev(false); } //set Rows - always display 5 htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows return "success"; }

    Read the article

  • Post method in Servlet is not being called again after being executed once

    - by SaurabhCsIITKgp
    I am implementing a database based web application using servlets. Now, when I input a parameter using a form in the jsp page, it redirects it to a servlet which subsequently adds the value to the database (the servlet creates a new table if the table doesn't already exist). The creation of the table and the addition of value works fine if the table doesn't already exists. Once it is created however and the parameter is inputted again in the form, the submit button no longer redirects it to the servlet. Nor is the value added to the database. Kindly advise me as to where I am going wrong. Following are the snippets of my code: From the JSP page (/showmanager is the urlpattern of the servlet): <form action="showmanager" method="post"> <h3>Enter name of the show: </h3> <input type="text" name="showname" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="task" value="addshow" /> <input type="button" value="Add Show"> </form> From the servlet (POST method): p rotected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if(request.getParameter("task").equals("addshow")){ this.addShow(request.getParameter("showname")); response.sendRedirect("showmanager.jsp"); } } Method to add in database: protected boolean addShow(String showname){ try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } } catch(Exception e) { try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("create table showdb10 (id int NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, date varchar(20),time varchar(20), b_total int, o_total int, b_avbl int, o_avbl int, b_price double(10,2), o_price double(10,2), seat_no varchar(20), transaction_id varchar(255), total_sales double(10,2), paymnt_artists double(10,2), paymnt_othr double(10,2), flag varchar(20), PRIMARY KEY(id))"); statement.executeUpdate(); statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } }catch(Exception e2){} } return false; }

    Read the article

  • C# String.Replace with a start/index (Added my (slow) implementation)

    - by Chris T
    I'd like an efficient method that would work something like this EDIT: Sorry I didn't put what I'd tried before. I updated the example now. // Method signature, Only replaces first instance or how many are specified in max public int MyReplace(ref string source,string org, string replace, int start, int max) { int ret = 0; int len = replace.Length; int olen = org.Length; for(int i = 0; i < max; i++) { // Find the next instance of the search string int x = source.IndexOf(org, ret + olen); if(x > ret) ret = x; else break; // Insert the replacement source = source.Insert(x, replace); // And remove the original source = source.Remove(x + len, olen); // removes original string } return ret; } string source = "The cat can fly but only if he is the cat in the hat"; int i = MyReplace(ref source,"cat", "giraffe", 8, 1); // Results in the string "The cat can fly but only if he is the giraffe in the hat" // i contains the index of the first letter of "giraffe" in the new string The only reason I'm asking is because my implementation I'd imagine getting slow with 1,000s of replaces.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: How do I validate a model wrapped in a ViewModel?

    - by Deniz Dogan
    For the login page of my website I would like to list the latest news for my site and also display a few fields to let the user log in. So I figured I should make a login view model - I call this LoginVM. LoginVM contains a Login model for the login fields and a List<NewsItem> for the news listing. This is the Login model: public class Login { [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a username.")] [DisplayName("Username")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a password.")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [DisplayName("Password")] public string Password { get; set; } } This is the LoginVM view model: public class LoginVM { public Login login { get; set; } public List<NewsItem> newsItems { get; set; } } This is where I get stuck. In my login controller, I get passed a LoginVM. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Login(LoginVM model, FormCollection form) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // What? In the code I'm checking whether ModelState is valid and this would work fine if the view model was actually the Login model, but now it's LoginVM which has no validation attributes at all. How do I make LoginVM "traverse" through its members to validate them all? Am I doing something fundamentally wrong using ModelState in this manner?

    Read the article

  • Combining aggregate functions in an (ANSI) SQL statement

    - by morpheous
    I have aggregate functions foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats() I want to create a domain specific query language (DSQL) above my DB, to facilitate using using a domain language to query the DB. The 'language' comprises of boolean expressions (or more specifically SQL like criteria) which I then 'translate' back into pure (ANSI) SQL and send to the underlying Db. The following lines are examples of what the language statements will look like, and hopefully, it will help further clarify the concept: **Example 1** DQL statement: foobar('yellow') between 1 and 3 and fredstats('weight') > 42 Translation: fetch all rows in an underlying table where computed values for aggregate function foobar() is between 1 and 3 AND computed value for AGG FUNC fredstats() is greater than 42 **Example 2** DQL statement: fredstats('weight') < barneystats('weight') AND foo('fighter') in (9,10,11) AND foobar('green') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 3** DQL statement: foobar('green') / foobar('red') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 4** DQL statement: foobar('green') - foobar('red') >= 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches Given the following information: The table upon which the queries above are being executed is called 'tbl' table 'tbl' has the following structure (id int, name varchar(32), weight float) The result set returns only the tbl.id, tbl.name and the names of the aggregate functions as columns in the result set - so for example the foobar() AGG FUNC column will be called foobar in the result set. So for example, the first DQL query will return a result set with the following columns: id, name, foobar, fredstats Given the above, my questions then are: What would be the underlying SQL required for Example1 ? What would be the underlying SQL required for Example3 ? Given an algebraic equation comprising of AGGREGATE functions, Is there a way of generalizing the algorithm needed to generate the required ANSI SQL statement(s)? I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible.

    Read the article

  • How do I get Ctrl-Backspace to delete a word in vim within gnome-terminal?

    - by Michael Gundlach
    I'd like Ctrl-Backspace to delete the current word in vim insert mode. From within xterm I can pull this off via :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> but in gnome-terminal I cannot figure out a way to make it happen. When in vim insert mode, if I type control-v and then press backspace, I get ^H in xterm, and ^? in gnome-terminal. Unfortunately, :inoremap <C-?> <C-W> doesn't do the trick in gnome-terminal; control-backspace just erases a single character no matter what. Regarding ASCII codes: Gnome-terminal lets you change the backspace character under Edit - Profile Preferences - Compatibility. Unfortunately, no option works, as far as I can tell: whatever character I apply to Backspace via the settings, if I try mapping the character itself, like :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace both erase an entire word; and if I try mapping control plus that character, like :inoremap <C-^H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace just erase a single character.

    Read the article

  • Setting spring bean property value using ref-bean

    - by Apache Fan
    Hi, I am trying to set a property value using spring. <bean id="velocityPropsBean" class="com.test.CustomProperties" abstract="false" singleton="true" lazy-init="false" autowire="default" dependency-check="default"> <property name="properties"> <props> <prop key="resource.loader">file</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.cache">true</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.class">org.apache.velocity.runtime.resource.loader.FileResourceLoader</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.path">NEED TO INSERT VALUE AT STARTUP</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="velocityResourcePath" class="java.lang.String" factory-bean="velocityHelper" factory-method="getLoaderPath"/> Now what i need to do is insert the result from getLoaderPath into file.resource.loader.path. The value of getLoaderPath changes so it has to be loaded at server startup. Any thoughts how i can inset the velocityResourcePath value to the property?

    Read the article

  • Can can I reference extended methods/params without having to cast from the base class object return

    - by Greg
    Hi, Is there away to not have a "cast" the top.First().Value() return to "Node", but rather have it automatically assume this (as opposed to NodeBase), so I then see extended attributes for the class I define in Node? That is is there a way to say: top.Nodes.First().Value.Path; as opposed to now having to go: ((Node)top.Nodes.First().Value).Path) thanks [TestMethod()] public void CreateNoteTest() { var top = new Topology(); Node node = top.CreateNode("a"); node.Path = "testpath"; Assert.AreEqual("testpath", ((Node)top.Nodes.First().Value).Path); // *** HERE *** } class Topology : TopologyBase<string, Node, Relationship> { } class Node : NodeBase<string> { public string Path { get; set; } } public class NodeBase<T> { public T Key { get; set; } public NodeBase() { } public NodeBase(T key) { Key = key; } } public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<RelationshipBase<TKey>> Relationships { get; private set; } }

    Read the article

  • Error in Postgres execute

    - by RAJA
    I'm using this function... -- Function: dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) -- DROP FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(IN in_orgmgrtype character varying, INOUT in_parentid integer, IN in_levelid integer, IN in_name character varying, IN in_phone character varying, IN in_webpage character varying, IN in_owner character varying, OUT out_accountid integer) RETURNS record AS $BODY$ DECLARE l_CoID int; l_CurrID int; l_OrgMgrId int; errmsg varchar(250); BEGIN IF in_ParentID = -1 THEN errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; l_CoID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser(in_user); IF l_CoID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; END IF; errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; l_OrgMgrID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany(in_OrgMgrType, l_CoID); IF l_OrgMgrID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; END IF; in_ParentID := l_OrgMgrID; ELSE errmsg := 'Select orgmgrid failed'; SELECT OrgMgrID INTO l_CurrID FROM dbo.OrgMgr WHERE Name = in_Name AND ParentID = in_ParentID; END IF; -- if not, add it IF l_CurrID IS NULL THEN errmsg := 'Insert into orgmgr(account creation) failed'; INSERT INTO dbo.OrgMgr (ParentID, LevelID, Name, PrimaryPhone, WebPage, Owner) VALUES (in_ParentID, in_LevelID, in_Name, in_Phone, in_WebPage, in_Owner); out_AccountID := currval('dbo.OrgMgr_accountid_seq'); ELSE out_AccountID := -1; END IF; COMMIT; EXCEPTION WHEN RAISE_EXCEPTION THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE NOTICE 'ERROR : %',errmsg; WHEN OTHERS THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE EXCEPTION 'ERROR : %',errmsg; END $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 100; ALTER FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) OWNER TO postgres; But.. it's showing error in execute time .. ERROR: SPI_execute_plan failed executing query "ROLLBACK": SPI_ERROR_TRANSACTION

    Read the article

  • Custom Model Validator for MVC

    - by scottrakes
    I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

    Read the article

  • C# reflection, cloning

    - by Enriquev
    Say I have this class Myclass that contains this method: public class MyClass { public int MyProperty { get; set; } public int MySecondProperty { get; set; } public MyOtherClass subClass { get; set; } public object clone<T>(object original, T emptyObj) { FieldInfo[] fis = this.GetType().GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic); object tempMyClass = Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T)); foreach (FieldInfo fi in fis) { if (fi.FieldType.Namespace != original.GetType().Namespace) fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, fi.GetValue(original)); else fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, this.clone(fi.GetValue(original), fi.GetValue(original))); } return tempMyClass; } } Then this class: public class MyOtherClass { public int MyProperty777 { get; set; } } when I do this: MyClass a = new MyClass { MyProperty = 1, MySecondProperty = 2, subClass = new MyOtherClass() { MyProperty777 = -1 } }; MyClass b = a.clone(a, a) as MyClass; how come on the second call to clone, T is of type object and not of type MyOtherClass

    Read the article

  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate join on a table twice

    - by Zuber
    Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

    Read the article

  • XSLT inserting once off custom text

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: The folloiwng is a pre-existing xml file. I was wondering how can I insert a element before the first element using xslt? <XmlFile> <!-- insert another <tag> element here --> <tag> <innerTag> </innerTag> </tag> <tag> <innerTag> </innerTag> </tag> <tag> <innerTag> </innerTag> </tag> </XmlFile> I was thinking of using a for-each loop and test the position = 0, but upon the first occurence of the for-each its already too late. This is a once-off text so I can't combine it with other xslt templates that are already inside the xsl file. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • MySQL INJECTION Solution...

    - by Val
    I have been bothered for so long by the MySQL injections and was thinking of a way to eliminate this problem all together. I have came up with something below hope that many people will find this useful. The only Draw back I can think of this is the partial search: Jo =returns "John" by using the like %% statement. Here is a php solution: <?php function safeQ(){ $search= array('delete','select');//and every keyword... $replace= array(base64_encode('delete'),base64_encode('select')); foreach($_REQUEST as $k=>$v){ str_replace($search, $replace, $v); } } foo(); function html($str){ $search= array(base64_encode('delete'),base64_encode('select')); $replace= array('delete','select');//and every keyword... str_replace($search, $replace, $str); } //example 1 ... ... $result = mysql_fetch_array($query); echo html($result[0]['field_name']); //example 2 $select = 'SELECT * FROM safeQ($_GET['query']) '; //example 3 $insert = 'INSERT INTO .... value(safeQ($_GET['query']))'; ?> I know, I know that you still could inject using 1=1 or any other type of injections... but this I think could solve half of your problem so the right mysql query is executed. So my question is if anyone can find any draw backs on this then please feel free to comment here. PLEASE GIVE AN ANSWER only if you think that this is a very useful solution and no major drawbacks are found OR you think is a bad idea all together...

    Read the article

  • Appropriate SQL Server Permissions for Developers

    - by BJ Safdie
    After a couple of Google searches and a quick look at questions here, I cannot seem to find what I thought would be a cookbook answer for SQL Server permissions. As I often see in small shops, most developers here were using an admin account for SQL Server while developing. I want to set up roles and permissions that I can assign to developers so that we can get our jobs done, but also do so with the minimum permissions required. Can anyone offer advice on what SQL Server permissions to assign? Components: SQL Server 2008 SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) 2008 SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2008 Platforms: Production Staging/QA Development/Integration We are running "Mixed Mode" security because of some legacy apps and networks, but are moving to Windows Auth. I am not sure if that really affects the role set up. I plan to set up access for Developers to Prod and Staging/QA DBs as Read-Only. However, I still want developers to retain the ability to run Profiling. We need Deployment accounts with higher privilege levels. We are currently trying to figure out exactly what privileges we need for SSIS package deployments. Within the Development Server, Developers need broad privileges. However, I am not sure that just making them all admins is really the best choice. It's hard to believe that no one has published a decent example script that sets up these kinds of roles with a good set of appropriate permissions for developers and deployers. We can probably figure this all out by locking things down and then adding permissions as we discover the need, but that will be way too big a PITA for everyone. Can anyone point me to, or provide, a good exemplar for permissions for these kinds of roles on these kinds of platforms?

    Read the article

  • 404 when getting private YouTube video even when logged in with the owner's account using gdata-pyth

    - by Gonzalo
    If a YouTube video is set as private and I try to fetch it using the gdata Python API a 404 RequestError is raised, even though I have done a programmatic login with the account that owns that video: from gdata.youtube import service yt_service = service.YouTubeService(email=my_email, password=my_password, client_id=my_client_id, source=my_source, developer_key=my_developer_key) yt_service.ProgrammaticLogin() yt_service.GetYouTubeVideoEntry(video_id='IcVqemzfyYs') --------------------------------------------------------------------------- RequestError Traceback (most recent call last) <ipython console> /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/youtube/service.pyc in GetYouTubeVideoEntry(self, uri, video_id) 203 elif video_id and not uri: 204 uri = '%s/%s' % (YOUTUBE_VIDEO_URI, video_id) --> 205 return self.Get(uri, converter=gdata.youtube.YouTubeVideoEntryFromString) 206 207 def GetYouTubeContactFeed(self, uri=None, username='default'): /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/service.pyc in Get(self, uri, extra_headers, redirects_remaining, encoding, converter) 1100 'body': result_body} 1101 else: -> 1102 raise RequestError, {'status': server_response.status, 1103 'reason': server_response.reason, 'body': result_body} 1104 RequestError: {'status': 404, 'body': 'Video not found', 'reason': 'Not Found'} This happens every time, unless I go into my YouTube account (through the YouTube website) and set it public, after that I can set it as private and back to public using the Python API. Am I missing a step or is there another (or any) way to fetch a YouTube video set as private from the API? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Update table variable with function

    - by Joris
    I got a table variable @RQ, I want it updated using a table-valued function. Now, I think I do the update wrong, because my function works... The function: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[usf_GetRecursiveFoobar] ( @para int, @para datetime, @para varchar(30) ) RETURNS @ReQ TABLE ( Onekey int, Studnr nvarchar(10), Stud int, Description nvarchar(32), ECTSGot decimal(5,2), SBUGot decimal(5,0), ECTSmax decimal(5,2), SBUmax decimal(5,0), IsFree bit, IsGot int, DateGot nvarchar(10), lvl int, path varchar(max) ) AS BEGIN; WITH RQ AS ( --RECURSIVE QUERY ) INSERT @ReQ SELECT RQ.Onekey, RQ.Studnr, RQ.Stud, RQ.Description, RQ.ECTSGot, RQ.SBUGot, RQ.ECTSmax, RQ.SBUmax, RQ.IsFree, RQ.IsGot, RQ.DatumGot, RQ.lvl, RQ.path FROM RQ RETURN END Now, when I run a simple query: DECLARE @ReQ TABLE ( OnderwijsEenheid_key int, StudentnummerHSA nvarchar(10), Student_key int, Omschrijving nvarchar(32), ECTSbehaald decimal(5,2), SBUbehaald decimal(5,0), ECTSmax decimal(5,2), SBUmax decimal(5,0), IsVrijstelling bit, IsBehaald int, DatumBehaald nvarchar(10), lvl int, path varchar(max) ) INSERT INTO @ReQ SELECT * FROM usf_GetRecursiveFoobar(@para1, @para2, @para3) I got error: Msg 8152, Level 16, State 13, Line 20 String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated. Why? What to do about it?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >