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  • Post method in Servlet is not being called again after being executed once

    - by SaurabhCsIITKgp
    I am implementing a database based web application using servlets. Now, when I input a parameter using a form in the jsp page, it redirects it to a servlet which subsequently adds the value to the database (the servlet creates a new table if the table doesn't already exist). The creation of the table and the addition of value works fine if the table doesn't already exists. Once it is created however and the parameter is inputted again in the form, the submit button no longer redirects it to the servlet. Nor is the value added to the database. Kindly advise me as to where I am going wrong. Following are the snippets of my code: From the JSP page (/showmanager is the urlpattern of the servlet): <form action="showmanager" method="post"> <h3>Enter name of the show: </h3> <input type="text" name="showname" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="task" value="addshow" /> <input type="button" value="Add Show"> </form> From the servlet (POST method): p rotected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if(request.getParameter("task").equals("addshow")){ this.addShow(request.getParameter("showname")); response.sendRedirect("showmanager.jsp"); } } Method to add in database: protected boolean addShow(String showname){ try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } } catch(Exception e) { try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("create table showdb10 (id int NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, date varchar(20),time varchar(20), b_total int, o_total int, b_avbl int, o_avbl int, b_price double(10,2), o_price double(10,2), seat_no varchar(20), transaction_id varchar(255), total_sales double(10,2), paymnt_artists double(10,2), paymnt_othr double(10,2), flag varchar(20), PRIMARY KEY(id))"); statement.executeUpdate(); statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } }catch(Exception e2){} } return false; }

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  • Entity Framework 4 overwrite Equals and GetHashCode of an own class property

    - by Zhok
    Hi, I’m using Visual Studio 2010 with .NET 4 and Entity Framework 4. I’m working with POCO Classes and not the EF4 Generator. I need to overwrite the Equals() and GetHashCode() Method but that doesn’t really work. Thought it’s something everybody does but I don’t find anything about the problem Online. When I write my own Classes and Equals Method, I use Equals() of property’s, witch need to be loaded by EF to be filled. Like this: public class Item { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Name { get; set; } public virtual List<UserItem> UserItems { get; set; } public virtual ItemType ItemType { get; set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { Item item = obj as Item; if (obj == null) { return false; } return item.Name.Equals(this.Name) && item.ItemType.Equals(this.ItemType); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode() ^ this.ItemType.GetHashCode(); } } That Code doesn’t work, the problems are in Equals and GetHashCode where I try to get HashCode or Equal from “ItemType” . Every time I get a NullRefernceException if I try to get data by Linq2Entites. A dirty way to fix it, is to capture the NullReferenceException and return false (by Equals) and return base.GetHashCode() (by GethashCode) but I hope there is a better way to fix this problem. I’ve wrote a little test project, with SQL Script for the DB and POCO Domain, EDMX File and Console Test Main Method. You can download it here: Download

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  • Setting spring bean property value using ref-bean

    - by Apache Fan
    Hi, I am trying to set a property value using spring. <bean id="velocityPropsBean" class="com.test.CustomProperties" abstract="false" singleton="true" lazy-init="false" autowire="default" dependency-check="default"> <property name="properties"> <props> <prop key="resource.loader">file</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.cache">true</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.class">org.apache.velocity.runtime.resource.loader.FileResourceLoader</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.path">NEED TO INSERT VALUE AT STARTUP</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="velocityResourcePath" class="java.lang.String" factory-bean="velocityHelper" factory-method="getLoaderPath"/> Now what i need to do is insert the result from getLoaderPath into file.resource.loader.path. The value of getLoaderPath changes so it has to be loaded at server startup. Any thoughts how i can inset the velocityResourcePath value to the property?

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  • MySQL: order by and limit gives wrong result

    - by Larry K
    MySQL ver 5.1.26 I'm getting the wrong result with a select that has where, order by and limit clauses. It's only a problem when the order by uses the id column. I saw the MySQL manual for LIMIT Optimization My guess from reading the manual is that there is some problem with the index on the primary key, id. But I don't know where I should go from here... Question: what should I do to best solve the problem? Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) WRONG result when limit added! Should be the first row, id - 1336 mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.01 sec) Works correctly with limit: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) Additional info: explain SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | billing_invoices | range | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | 4 | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+

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  • Extract primary key from MySQL in PHP

    - by Parth
    I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, please help me in how can i modify to get primary key I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

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  • pagination in jsf

    - by gurupriyan.e
    I would like your comments and suggestion on this. I am doing the pagination for a page in jsf. The datatable is bound to a Backing Bean property through the "binding" attribute. I have 2 boolean variables to determine whether to render 'Prev' and 'Next' Button - which is displayed below the datatable. When either the 'Prev' or 'Next' button is clicked, In the backing bean I get the bound dataTable property and through which i get the "first" and "rows" attribute of the datatable and change accordingly. I display 5 rows in the page. Please comment and suggest if there any better ways. btw, I am not interested in any JSF Component libraries but stick to only core html render kit. public String goNext() { UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); setShowPrev(true); //set Rows "0" or "5" if(getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)>5 ) { htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows }else if (getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)<=5) { htdbl.setRows(0);//display all rows (which are less than 5) setShowNext(false); } //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()+5); return "success"; } public String goPrev() { setShowNext(true); UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()-5); if(htdbl.getFirst()==0) { setShowPrev(false); } //set Rows - always display 5 htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows return "success"; }

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  • Using max-width = 100% and max-height = 100% on an image, calculate the display width/height

    - by NatalieMac
    I am creating a slideshow for images of various sizes to display centered vertically and horizontally within a canvas area. In my CSS, I set the width and height of the image to 100% so that each image would proportionally fill the canvas. I want the canvas to auto-size itself to fit within the viewer's screensize as the original size of the images is quite large (up to 800 pixels tall). I am using jQuery 1.4, and using the height of the image to calculate the top value for absolute positioning it to the middle of the canvas. I have tried using jQuery to get the .height(), innerHeight(), and outerHeight(), but it always gets the full size of the image. I extracted the DOM element from the jQuery object and tried using .width, .offsetWidth, and .clientWidth, but that too always seems to return the full size of the image. Firebug displays the correct dimensions, so I know there's some way of calculating the actual display height of the image, I just can't figure out what it is. How do you get the actual display height of an image if you've set max-height = 100%? I didn't want to have to calculate and set the height of each image in the js, but if I have to, I will. It just seems like I should be able to set the canvas size and have the images auto-adjust.

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  • Problems by inserting values from textboxes

    - by simon
    I'm trying to insert the current date to the database and i allways get the message(when i press the button on the form to save to my access database), that the data type is incorect in the conditional expression. the code: string conString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=C:\\Users\\Simon\\Desktop\\save.mdb"; OleDbConnection empConnection = new OleDbConnection(conString); string insertStatement = "INSERT INTO obroki_save " + "([ID_uporabnika],[ID_zivila],[skupaj_kalorij]) " + "VALUES (@ID_uporabnika,@ID_zivila,@skupaj_kalorij)"; OleDbCommand insertCommand = new OleDbCommand(insertStatement, empConnection); insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@ID_uporabnika", OleDbType.Char).Value = users.iDTextBox.Text; insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@ID_zivila", OleDbType.Char).Value = iDTextBox.Text; insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@skupaj_kalorij", OleDbType.Char).Value = textBox1.Text; empConnection.Open(); try { int count = insertCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (OleDbException ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { empConnection.Close(); textBox1.Clear(); textBox2.Clear(); textBox3.Clear(); textBox4.Clear(); textBox5.Clear(); } I have now cut out the date,( i made access paste the date ), still there is the same problem. Is the first line ok? users.idtextbox.text? Please help !

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  • 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

    - by user72603
    I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How do I validate a model wrapped in a ViewModel?

    - by Deniz Dogan
    For the login page of my website I would like to list the latest news for my site and also display a few fields to let the user log in. So I figured I should make a login view model - I call this LoginVM. LoginVM contains a Login model for the login fields and a List<NewsItem> for the news listing. This is the Login model: public class Login { [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a username.")] [DisplayName("Username")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a password.")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [DisplayName("Password")] public string Password { get; set; } } This is the LoginVM view model: public class LoginVM { public Login login { get; set; } public List<NewsItem> newsItems { get; set; } } This is where I get stuck. In my login controller, I get passed a LoginVM. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Login(LoginVM model, FormCollection form) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // What? In the code I'm checking whether ModelState is valid and this would work fine if the view model was actually the Login model, but now it's LoginVM which has no validation attributes at all. How do I make LoginVM "traverse" through its members to validate them all? Am I doing something fundamentally wrong using ModelState in this manner?

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  • C# String.Replace with a start/index (Added my (slow) implementation)

    - by Chris T
    I'd like an efficient method that would work something like this EDIT: Sorry I didn't put what I'd tried before. I updated the example now. // Method signature, Only replaces first instance or how many are specified in max public int MyReplace(ref string source,string org, string replace, int start, int max) { int ret = 0; int len = replace.Length; int olen = org.Length; for(int i = 0; i < max; i++) { // Find the next instance of the search string int x = source.IndexOf(org, ret + olen); if(x > ret) ret = x; else break; // Insert the replacement source = source.Insert(x, replace); // And remove the original source = source.Remove(x + len, olen); // removes original string } return ret; } string source = "The cat can fly but only if he is the cat in the hat"; int i = MyReplace(ref source,"cat", "giraffe", 8, 1); // Results in the string "The cat can fly but only if he is the giraffe in the hat" // i contains the index of the first letter of "giraffe" in the new string The only reason I'm asking is because my implementation I'd imagine getting slow with 1,000s of replaces.

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  • Python Regular Expressions: Capture lookahead value (capturing text without consuming it)

    - by Lattyware
    I wish to use regular expressions to split words into groups of (vowels, not_vowels, more_vowels), using a marker to ensure every word begins and ends with a vowel. import re MARKER = "~" VOWELS = {"a", "e", "i", "o", "u", MARKER} word = "dog" if word[0] not in VOWELS: word = MARKER+word if word[-1] not in VOWELS: word += MARKER re.findall("([%]+)([^%]+)([%]+)".replace("%", "".join(VOWELS)), word) In this example we get: [('~', 'd', 'o')] The issue is that I wish the matches to overlap - the last set of vowels should become the first set of the next match. This appears possible with lookaheads, if we replace the regex as follows: re.findall("([%]+)([^%]+)(?=[%]+)".replace("%", "".join(VOWELS)), word) We get: [('~', 'd'), ('o', 'g')] Which means we are matching what I want. However, it now doesn't return the last set of vowels. The output I want is: [('~', 'd', 'o'), ('o', 'g', '~')] I feel this should be possible (if the regex can check for the second set of vowels, I see no reason it can't return them), but I can't find any way of doing it beyond the brute force method, looping through the results after I have them and appending the first character of the next match to the last match, and the last character of the string to the last match. Is there a better way in which I can do this? The two things that would work would be capturing the lookahead value, or not consuming the text on a match, while capturing the value - I can't find any way of doing either.

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  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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  • How do I get Ctrl-Backspace to delete a word in vim within gnome-terminal?

    - by Michael Gundlach
    I'd like Ctrl-Backspace to delete the current word in vim insert mode. From within xterm I can pull this off via :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> but in gnome-terminal I cannot figure out a way to make it happen. When in vim insert mode, if I type control-v and then press backspace, I get ^H in xterm, and ^? in gnome-terminal. Unfortunately, :inoremap <C-?> <C-W> doesn't do the trick in gnome-terminal; control-backspace just erases a single character no matter what. Regarding ASCII codes: Gnome-terminal lets you change the backspace character under Edit - Profile Preferences - Compatibility. Unfortunately, no option works, as far as I can tell: whatever character I apply to Backspace via the settings, if I try mapping the character itself, like :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace both erase an entire word; and if I try mapping control plus that character, like :inoremap <C-^H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace just erase a single character.

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  • Combining aggregate functions in an (ANSI) SQL statement

    - by morpheous
    I have aggregate functions foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats() I want to create a domain specific query language (DSQL) above my DB, to facilitate using using a domain language to query the DB. The 'language' comprises of boolean expressions (or more specifically SQL like criteria) which I then 'translate' back into pure (ANSI) SQL and send to the underlying Db. The following lines are examples of what the language statements will look like, and hopefully, it will help further clarify the concept: **Example 1** DQL statement: foobar('yellow') between 1 and 3 and fredstats('weight') > 42 Translation: fetch all rows in an underlying table where computed values for aggregate function foobar() is between 1 and 3 AND computed value for AGG FUNC fredstats() is greater than 42 **Example 2** DQL statement: fredstats('weight') < barneystats('weight') AND foo('fighter') in (9,10,11) AND foobar('green') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 3** DQL statement: foobar('green') / foobar('red') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 4** DQL statement: foobar('green') - foobar('red') >= 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches Given the following information: The table upon which the queries above are being executed is called 'tbl' table 'tbl' has the following structure (id int, name varchar(32), weight float) The result set returns only the tbl.id, tbl.name and the names of the aggregate functions as columns in the result set - so for example the foobar() AGG FUNC column will be called foobar in the result set. So for example, the first DQL query will return a result set with the following columns: id, name, foobar, fredstats Given the above, my questions then are: What would be the underlying SQL required for Example1 ? What would be the underlying SQL required for Example3 ? Given an algebraic equation comprising of AGGREGATE functions, Is there a way of generalizing the algorithm needed to generate the required ANSI SQL statement(s)? I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible.

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  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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  • Jquery Ajax json Serializable

    - by willsonchan
    I am learing using jquery ajax to hander the JSON..i writre a demo code. HTMLCODE $(function () { $("#add").click(function () { var json = '{ "str":[{"Role_ID":"2","Customer_ID":"155","Brands":"Chloe;","Country_ID":"96;"}]}'; $.ajax({ url: "func.aspx/GetJson", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json", dataType: 'json', data: json, success: function (result) { alert(result); }, error: function () { alert("error"); } }); }); }); <div> <input type="button" value="add" id="add" /> </div> i got a input and bind a script function to it, now the proble is comeing.. my C# functiong like that. [WebMethod] public static string GetJson(object str) { return str.ToString();//good for work } [Serializable] public class TestClass { public TestClass() { } public TestClass(string role_id, string customer_id, string brands, string countryid) { this.Role_ID = role_id; this.Customer_ID = customer_id; this.Brands = brands; this.Country_ID = countryid; } public string Role_ID { get; set; } public string Customer_ID { get; set; } public string Brands { get; set; } public string Country_ID { get; set; } } when i user public static string GetJson(object str) everything is so good.~~ no error at all but . when i try to use my own class TestClass. firebug tell me that "Type 'TestClass' is not supported for deserialization of an array." .any body can give me help:XD

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  • MySQL INJECTION Solution...

    - by Val
    I have been bothered for so long by the MySQL injections and was thinking of a way to eliminate this problem all together. I have came up with something below hope that many people will find this useful. The only Draw back I can think of this is the partial search: Jo =returns "John" by using the like %% statement. Here is a php solution: <?php function safeQ(){ $search= array('delete','select');//and every keyword... $replace= array(base64_encode('delete'),base64_encode('select')); foreach($_REQUEST as $k=>$v){ str_replace($search, $replace, $v); } } foo(); function html($str){ $search= array(base64_encode('delete'),base64_encode('select')); $replace= array('delete','select');//and every keyword... str_replace($search, $replace, $str); } //example 1 ... ... $result = mysql_fetch_array($query); echo html($result[0]['field_name']); //example 2 $select = 'SELECT * FROM safeQ($_GET['query']) '; //example 3 $insert = 'INSERT INTO .... value(safeQ($_GET['query']))'; ?> I know, I know that you still could inject using 1=1 or any other type of injections... but this I think could solve half of your problem so the right mysql query is executed. So my question is if anyone can find any draw backs on this then please feel free to comment here. PLEASE GIVE AN ANSWER only if you think that this is a very useful solution and no major drawbacks are found OR you think is a bad idea all together...

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  • Error in Postgres execute

    - by RAJA
    I'm using this function... -- Function: dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) -- DROP FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(IN in_orgmgrtype character varying, INOUT in_parentid integer, IN in_levelid integer, IN in_name character varying, IN in_phone character varying, IN in_webpage character varying, IN in_owner character varying, OUT out_accountid integer) RETURNS record AS $BODY$ DECLARE l_CoID int; l_CurrID int; l_OrgMgrId int; errmsg varchar(250); BEGIN IF in_ParentID = -1 THEN errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; l_CoID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser(in_user); IF l_CoID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; END IF; errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; l_OrgMgrID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany(in_OrgMgrType, l_CoID); IF l_OrgMgrID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; END IF; in_ParentID := l_OrgMgrID; ELSE errmsg := 'Select orgmgrid failed'; SELECT OrgMgrID INTO l_CurrID FROM dbo.OrgMgr WHERE Name = in_Name AND ParentID = in_ParentID; END IF; -- if not, add it IF l_CurrID IS NULL THEN errmsg := 'Insert into orgmgr(account creation) failed'; INSERT INTO dbo.OrgMgr (ParentID, LevelID, Name, PrimaryPhone, WebPage, Owner) VALUES (in_ParentID, in_LevelID, in_Name, in_Phone, in_WebPage, in_Owner); out_AccountID := currval('dbo.OrgMgr_accountid_seq'); ELSE out_AccountID := -1; END IF; COMMIT; EXCEPTION WHEN RAISE_EXCEPTION THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE NOTICE 'ERROR : %',errmsg; WHEN OTHERS THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE EXCEPTION 'ERROR : %',errmsg; END $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 100; ALTER FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) OWNER TO postgres; But.. it's showing error in execute time .. ERROR: SPI_execute_plan failed executing query "ROLLBACK": SPI_ERROR_TRANSACTION

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  • 404 when getting private YouTube video even when logged in with the owner's account using gdata-pyth

    - by Gonzalo
    If a YouTube video is set as private and I try to fetch it using the gdata Python API a 404 RequestError is raised, even though I have done a programmatic login with the account that owns that video: from gdata.youtube import service yt_service = service.YouTubeService(email=my_email, password=my_password, client_id=my_client_id, source=my_source, developer_key=my_developer_key) yt_service.ProgrammaticLogin() yt_service.GetYouTubeVideoEntry(video_id='IcVqemzfyYs') --------------------------------------------------------------------------- RequestError Traceback (most recent call last) <ipython console> /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/youtube/service.pyc in GetYouTubeVideoEntry(self, uri, video_id) 203 elif video_id and not uri: 204 uri = '%s/%s' % (YOUTUBE_VIDEO_URI, video_id) --> 205 return self.Get(uri, converter=gdata.youtube.YouTubeVideoEntryFromString) 206 207 def GetYouTubeContactFeed(self, uri=None, username='default'): /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/service.pyc in Get(self, uri, extra_headers, redirects_remaining, encoding, converter) 1100 'body': result_body} 1101 else: -> 1102 raise RequestError, {'status': server_response.status, 1103 'reason': server_response.reason, 'body': result_body} 1104 RequestError: {'status': 404, 'body': 'Video not found', 'reason': 'Not Found'} This happens every time, unless I go into my YouTube account (through the YouTube website) and set it public, after that I can set it as private and back to public using the Python API. Am I missing a step or is there another (or any) way to fetch a YouTube video set as private from the API? Thanks in advance.

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  • Microsoft Reporting: Setting subreport parameters in code

    - by Svish
    How can I set a parameter of a sub-report? I have successfully hooked myself up to the SubreportProcessing event, I can find the correct sub-report through e.ReportPath, and I can add datasources through e.DataSources.Add. But I find no way of adding report parameters?? I have found people suggesting to add them to the master report, but I don't really want to do that, since the master report shouldn't have to be connected to the sub-report at all, other than that it is wrapping the sub-report. I am using one report as a master template, printing name of the report, page numbers etc. And the subreport is going to be the report itself. And if I could only find a way to set those report parameters of the sub-report I would be good to go... Clarification: Creating/Defining the parameters is not the problem. The problem is to set their values. I thought the natural thing to do was to do it in the SubreportProcessing event. And the SubreportProcessingEventArgs do in fact have a Parameters property. But it is read only! So how do you use that? How can I set their value?

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  • Nhibernate join on a table twice

    - by Zuber
    Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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  • Setting routes in application.ini in Zend Framework

    - by Paul Watson
    I'm a Zend Framework newbie, and I'm trying to work out how to add another route to my application.ini file. I currently have my routes set up as follows: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = display ...so that /artists/joe-bloggs uses the "display" action of the "artists" controller to dipslay the profile the artist in question - that works fine. What I want to do now is to set up another route so that /artists/joe-bloggs/random-gallery-name goes to the "galleries" action of the "artists" controller. I tried adding an additional block to the application.ini file (beneath the block above) like so: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub/:gallery resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = galleries ...but when I do that the page at /artists/joe-bloggs no longer works (Zend tries to route it to the "joe-bloggs" controller). How do I set up the routes in application.ini so that I can change the action of the "artists" controller depending on whether "/:gallery" exists? I realise I'm probably making a really stupid mistake, so please point out my stupidity and set me on the right path (no pun intended).

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  • What's wrong with this code to un-camel-case a string?

    - by omair iqbal
    Here is my attempt to solve the About.com Delphi challenge to un-camel-case a string. unit challenge1; interface uses Windows, Messages, SysUtils, Variants, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, StdCtrls; type check = 65..90; TForm1 = class(TForm) Edit1: TEdit; Button1: TButton; procedure Button1Click(Sender: TObject); private { Private declarations } public { Public declarations } end; var Form1: TForm1; var s1,s2 :string; int : integer; implementation {$R *.dfm} procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i: Integer; checks : set of check; begin s1 := edit1.Text; for i := 1 to 20 do begin int :=ord(s1[i]) ; if int in checks then insert(' ',s1,i-1); end; showmessage(s1); end; end. check is a set that contains capital letters so basically whenever a capital letter is encountered the insert function adds space before its encountered (inside the s1 string), but my code does nothing. ShowMessage just shows text as it was entered in Edit1. What have I done wrong?

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  • C# reflection, cloning

    - by Enriquev
    Say I have this class Myclass that contains this method: public class MyClass { public int MyProperty { get; set; } public int MySecondProperty { get; set; } public MyOtherClass subClass { get; set; } public object clone<T>(object original, T emptyObj) { FieldInfo[] fis = this.GetType().GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic); object tempMyClass = Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T)); foreach (FieldInfo fi in fis) { if (fi.FieldType.Namespace != original.GetType().Namespace) fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, fi.GetValue(original)); else fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, this.clone(fi.GetValue(original), fi.GetValue(original))); } return tempMyClass; } } Then this class: public class MyOtherClass { public int MyProperty777 { get; set; } } when I do this: MyClass a = new MyClass { MyProperty = 1, MySecondProperty = 2, subClass = new MyOtherClass() { MyProperty777 = -1 } }; MyClass b = a.clone(a, a) as MyClass; how come on the second call to clone, T is of type object and not of type MyOtherClass

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