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• $_SESSION v. $_COOKIE

  - by taeja87

  I learned about $_SESSION about several weeks ago when creating a login page. I can successfully login and use it with variables. Currently I am trying to understand $_SESSION and $_COOKIE. Please correct me if I am wrong, I can use $_SESSION when logging in and moving around pages. With $_COOKIE, it is used to remember when I last visit and preferences. Another thing involving cookies is that when websites use advertisements (for example: Google AdSense), they use the cookies to track when visitor click on a advertisement, right? I can use both ($_SESSION & $_COOKIE)? I read somewhere that you can store the session_id as value for the cookie. Also, I read about security which let to me finding this: What do I need to store in the php session when user logged in?. Is using session_regenerate_id good for when a user comes back to the site? And this: How to store a cookie with php involving uniqid. For those wanting to know about the login, I use email and password. That way the user can be able to change their username. I look forward to learning more about these two from anybody who would like to share their knowledge about it. If I asked too many question, you can just answer the one that you have more experience with. If you need more information, just ask since I might have forgotten to include something. Thank You. Found this: What risks should I be aware of before allowing advertisements being placed on my website?

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• C# array of objects - conditional validation

  - by fishdump

  Sorry about the vague title! I have an class with a number of member variables (system, zone, site, ...) public sealed class Cello { public String Company; public String Zone; public String System; public String Site; public String Facility; public String Process; //... } I have an array of objects of this class. private Cello[] m_cellos = null; // ... I need to know whether the array contains objects with the same site but different systems, zones or companies since such a situation would be illegal. I have various other checks to make but they are all along similar lines. The Array class has a number of functions that look promising but I am not very up on defining 'key selector' functions and things like that. Any suggestions or pointers would be greatly appreciated. --- Alistair.

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• Javascript function objects, this keyword points to wrong object

  - by Rody van Sambeek

  I've got a problem concerning the javascript "this" keyword when used within a javascript functional object. I want to be able to create an object for handling a Modal popup (JQuery UI Dialog). The object is called CreateItemModal. Which i want to be able to instantiate and pass some config settings. One of the config settings. When the show method is called, the dialog will be shown, but the cancel button is not functioning because the this refers to the DOM object instead of the CreateItemModal object. How can I fix this, or is there a better approach to put seperate behaviour in seperate "classes" or "objects". I've tried several approaches, including passing the "this" object into the events, but this does not feel like a clean solution. See (simplified) code below: function CreateItemModal(config) { // initialize some variables including $wrapper }; CreateItemModal.prototype.show = function() { this.$wrapper.dialog({ buttons: { // this crashes because this is not the current object here Cancel: this.close } }); }; CreateItemModal.prototype.close = function() { this.config.$wrapper.dialog('close'); };

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• Accessing program information that gdb sees in C++

  - by anon

  I have a program written in C++, on Linux, compiled with -g. When I run it under gdb, I can 1) set breakpoints 2) at those breakpoints, print out variables 3) see the stackframe 4) given a variable that's a structure, print out parts of the structure (i.e. how ddd displays information). Now, given that my program is compiled with "-g" -- is there anyway that I can access this power within my program itself? I.e. given that my program is compiled with "-g", is there some std::vector<string> getStackFrame(); function I can call to get the current stackframe at the current point of execution? Given a pointer to an object and it's type ... can I do std::vector getClassMember(class_name); ? I realize the default answer is "no, C++ doesn't support that level of introspection" -- however, recall I'm on linux, my program is compiled with "-g", and gdb can do it, so clearly the inforamtion is there. Question is: is there some API for accessing it? EDIT: PS Naysers, I'd love to see a reason for closing this question.

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• C++ struct, public data members and inheritance

  - by Marius

  Is it ok to have public data members in a C++ class/struct in certain particular situations? How would that go along with inheritance? I've read opinions on the matter, some stated already here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/952907/practices-on-when-to-implement-accessors-on-private-member-variables-rather-than http://stackoverflow.com/questions/670958/accessors-vs-public-members or in books/articles (Stroustrup, Meyers) but I'm still a little bit in the shade. I have some configuration blocks that I read from a file (integers, bools, floats) and I need to place them into a structure for later use. I don't want to expose these externally just use them inside another class (I actually do want to pass these config parameters to another class but don't want to expose them through a public API). The fact is that I have many such config parameters (15 or so) and writing getters and setters seems an unnecessary overhead. Also I have more than one configuration block and these are sharing some of the parameters. Making a struct with all the data members public and then subclassing does not feel right. What's the best way to tackle that situation? Does making a big struct to cover all parameters provide an acceptable compromise (I would have to leave some of these set to their default values for blocks that do not use them)?

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• unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

  - by draconis

  Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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• Client Side Only Cookies

  - by Mike Jones

  I need something like a cookie, but I specifically don't want it going back to the server. I call it a "client side session cookie" but any reasonable mechanism would be great. Basically, I want to store some data encrypted on the server, and have the user type a password into the browser. The browser decrypts the data with the password (or creates and encrypts the data with the password) and the server stores only encrypted data. To keep the data secure on the server, the server should not store and should never receive the password. Ideally there should be a cookie session expiration to clean up. Of course I need it be available on multiple pages as the user walks through the web site. The best I can come up with is some sort of iframe mechanism to store the data in javascript variables, but that is ugly. Does anyone have any ideas how to implement something like this? FWIW, the platform is ASP.NET, but I don't suppose that matters. It needs to support a broad range of browsers, including mobile. In response to one answer below, let me clarify. My question is not how to achieve the crypto, that isn't a problem. The question is where to store the password so that it is persistent from page to page, but not beyond a session, and in such a way that the server doesn't see it.

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• What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

  - by MainMa

  Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

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• No operations allowed after statement closed issue

  - by Washu

  I have the next methods in my singleton to execute the JDBC connections public void openDB() throws ClassNotFoundException, IllegalAccessException, InstantiationException, SQLException { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost/mbpe_peru";//mydb conn = DriverManager.getConnection(url, "root", "admin"); st = conn.createStatement(); } public void sendQuery(String query) throws SQLException { st.executeUpdate(query); } public void closeDB() throws SQLException { st.close(); conn.close(); } And I'm having a problem in a void where i have to call this twice. private void jButton1ActionPerformed(ActionEvent evt) { Main.getInstance().openDB(); Main.getInstance().sendQuery("call insertEntry('"+EntryID()+"','"+SupplierID()+"');"); Main.getInstance().closeDB(); Main.getInstance().openDB(); for(int i=0;i<dataBox.length;i++){ Main.getInstance().sendQuery("call insertCount('"+EntryID()+"','"+SupplierID()+"','"+BoxID()+"'); Main.getInstance().closeDB(); } } I have already tried to keep the connection open and send the 2 querys and after that closed and it didnt work... The only way it worked was to not use the methods, declare the commands for the connection and use different variables for the connection and the statement. I thought that if i close the Connecion and the Statement I could use the variable once again since is a method but I'm not able to. Is there any way to solve this using my methods for the JDBC connection?

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• Passing a outside variable into a <asp:sqldatasource> tag. ASP.NET 2.0

  - by MadMAxJr

  I'm designing some VB based ASP.NET 2.0, and I am trying to make more use of the various ASP tags that visual studio provides, rather than hand writing everything in the code-behind. I want to pass in an outside variable from the Session to identify who the user is for the query. <asp:sqldatasource id="DataStores" runat="server" connectionstring="<%$ ConnectionStrings:MY_CONNECTION %>" providername="<%$ ConnectionStrings:MY_CONNECTION.ProviderName %>" selectcommand="SELECT THING1, THING2 FROM DATA_TABLE WHERE (THING2 IN (SELECT THING2 FROM RELATED_DATA_TABLE WHERE (USERNAME = @user)))" onselecting="Data_Stores_Selecting"> <SelectParameters> <asp:parameter name="user" defaultvalue ="" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:sqldatasource> And on my code behind I have: Protected Sub Data_Stores_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs) Handles Data_Stores.Selecting e.Command.Parameters("user").Value = Session("userid") End Sub Oracle squaks at me with ORA-01036, illegal variable name. Am I declaring the variable wrong in the query? I thought external variables share the same name with a @ prefixed. from what I understand, this should be placing the value I want into the query when it executes the select. EDIT: Okay, thanks for the advice so far, first error was corrected, I need to use : and not @ for the variable declaration in the query. Now it generates an ORA-01745 invalid host/bind variable name. EDIT AGAIN: Okay, looks like user was a reserved word. It works now! Thanks for other points of view on this one. I hadn't thought of that approach.

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• How to manage large amounts of delegates and usercallbacks in C# async http library

  - by Tyler

  I'm coding a .NET library in C# for communicating with XBMC via its JSON RPC interface using HTTP. I coded and released a preliminary version but everything is done synchronously. I then recoded the library to be asynchronous for my own purposes as I was/am building an XBMC remote for WP7. I now want to release the new async library but want to make sure it's nice and tidy before I do. Due to the async nature a user initiates a request, supplies a callback method that matches my delegate and then handles the response once it's been received. The problem I have is that within the library I track a RequestState object for the lifetime of the request, it contains the http request/response as well as the user callback etc. as member variables, this would be fine if only one type of object was coming back but depending on what the user calls they may be returned a list of songs or a list of movies etc. My implementation at the moment uses a single delegate ResponseDataRecieved which has a single parameter which is a simple Object - As this has only be used by me I know which methods return what and when I handle the response I cast said object to the type I know it really is - List, List etc. A third party shouldn't have to do this though - The delegate signature should contain the correct type of object. So then I need a delegate for every type of response data that can be returned to the third party - The specific problem is, how do I handle this gracefully internally - Do I have a bunch of different RequestState objects that each have a different member variable for the different delegates? That doesn't "feel" right. I just don't know how to do this gracefully and cleanly.

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• php script randomly hangs up

  - by sergdev

  I install php 5 (more precisely 5.3.1) as apache module. After this one of my application becomes randomly hang up on mysql_connect - sometimes works, sometimes no, sometimes reload of page helps. How can this be fixed? I use Windows Vista, Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) PHP/5.3.1 with php module, MySql 5.0.67-community-nt. After a minute I obtain the error message: Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 60 seconds exceeded in path\to\mysqlcon.php on line 9 I run MySql locally and heavy load could not be a reason: SHOW PROCESSLIST shows about 3 process SHOW VARIABLES LIKE 'MAX_CONNECTIONS' is 100. UPDATE: At first I thought that this is connected with mysql_connect. But now I can't say for certain. More difficult thing is when I insert the line to debug: $fh = fopen("E://_debugLog", 'a'); fwrite($fh, __FILE__ . " : " . __LINE__ . "\n"); fclose($fh); script start working near that location as a rule.

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• Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

  - by NBrowne

  Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

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• XSL match some but not all

  - by Willb

  I have a solution from an earlier post that was kindly provided by Dimitre Novatchev. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:my="my:my"> <xsl:output method="xml" version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1" indent="yes"/> <xsl:key name="kPhysByName" match="KB_XMod_Modules" use="Physician"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <result> <xsl:apply-templates/> </result> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="/*/*/*[starts-with(name(), 'InfBy')]"> <xsl:variable name="vCur" select="."/> <xsl:for-each select="document('doc2.xml')"> <xsl:variable name="vMod" select="key('kPhysByName', $vCur)"/> <xsl:copy> <items> <item> <label> <xsl:value-of select="$vMod/Physician"/> </label> <value> <xsl:value-of select="$vMod/XModID"/> </value> </item> </items> </xsl:copy> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I now need to use additional fields in my source XML and need the existing labels intact but I'm having problems getting this going. <instance> <NewTag>Hello</newTag1> <AnotherNewTag>Everyone</AnotherNewTag> <InfBy1>Dr Phibes</InfBy1> <InfBy2>Dr X</InfBy2> <InfBy3>Dr Chivago</InfBy3> </instance> It drops the additional labels and outputs <result xmlns:my="my:my"> HelloEveryone <items> <item> <label>Dr Phibes</label> <value>60</value> </item> </items> ... I've been experimenting a lot with <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:copy-of select="."> </xsl:copy-of> </xsl:otherwise> but being an xsl newbie I can't seem to get this to work. I've a feeling I'm barking up the wrong tree! Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Will

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• Asp.Net Cookie sharing

  - by SH

  This is C#.Net code: How to share Cookie between 2 HttpWebRequest calls? Details: I am posting a form in first request, this form contains some setting variables which are used by the system. lets say there is a input field in the form which sets the size of grid pages to be displayed in other pages. Once i have updated the setings in previous request, i go to send a request to another page which shows off asp.net gridview/grid. The grid might contaian several pages and the page size should be the one which i set in previous request. But when i do this via HttpWebReeust it does not happen. When i do it via browser, loading the setting page in the browser and then going to the grid view page... i see the page size is updated. I want to achieve this via code. Sicne i am scraping this grid. i have to set page size or visit the gird pages one by one via code. Or is it possible to set a cookie on 2nd request which is used to set in first request? It will be great if i go this way. any solution?

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• .NET binary serialization conditionally without ISerializable

  - by SillyWhy

  I got 2 classes, for example: public class A { private B b; ... } public class B { ... } I need to serialize an object A using BinaryFormatter. When remoting it shall include the field b, but not when serialize to file. Here is what I added: [Serializable] public class A : MarshalByRefObject { private B b; [OnSerializing] private void OnSerializing(StreamingContext context) { if (context.State == StreamingContextStates.File) { this.b = null; } } ... } [Serializable] public class B : MarshalByRefObject { ... } I think this is a bad design because if another class C also contains B, in class C we must add the duplicate OnSerializing() logic as in A. Class B should decide what to do, not class A or C. I don't want to use ISerializable interface because there are too many variables in class B have to be added to SerializationInfo. I can create a SerializationSurrogate for class B, which perform nothing in GetObjectData() & SetObjectData(), then use it when serializing to file. However the same maintenance issue because whoever modify class B can't notice what going to happen during serialization & the existence of SerializationSurrogate. Is there a better alternative?

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• Serialization of Queue type not working

  - by Soham

  Consider this piece of code: private Queue Date=new Queue(); //other declarations public DateTime _Date { get { return (DateTime)Date.Peek();} set { Date.Enqueue(value); } } //other properties and stuff.... public void UpdatePosition(...) { //other code IFormatter formatter = new BinaryFormatter(); Stream Datestream = new MemoryStream(); formatter.Serialize(Datestream, Date); byte[] Datebin = new byte[2048]; Datestream.Read(Datebin,0,2048); //Debug-Bug Console.WriteLine(Convert.ToString(this._Date)); Console.WriteLine(BitConverter.ToString(Datebin, 0, 3)); //other code } The output of the first WriteLine is perfect. I.e to check if really the Queue is initialised or not. It is. The right variables are stored etc. (I inserted a value in that Queue, that part of the code is not shown.) But the second WriteLine is not giving the right expected answer: It serializes the entire Queue to 00-00-00.

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• L2S DataContext out of synch: row not found or changed

  - by awrigley

  The Problem I am getting a number of errors that imply that the DataContext, or rather, the way I am using the DataContext is getting out of synch. The error occurs on db.SubmitChanges() where db is my DataContext instance. The error is: Row not found or changed. The problem only occurs intermitently, for example, adding a row then deleting it. If I stop the dev server and restart, the added row is there and I can delete it no problem. Ie, it seems that the problem is related to the DataContext losing track of the rows that have been added. IMPORTANT: Before anyone votes to close this thread, on the basis of it being a duplicate, I have checked the sql server profiler and there is no "Where 0 = 1" in the SQL. I have also recreated the dbml file, so am satisfied that the database schema is in synch with the schema represented by the dbml file. Ie, no cases of mismatched nullable/not nullable columns, etc. My Diagnosis (for what it is worth): It seems to be a problem related to how I am using the DataContext. I am new to MVC, Repositories and Services patterns, so suspect that I have wired things up wrong. The Setup Simple eLearning app in its early stages. Pupils need to be able to add and delete courses (Courses table) to their UserCourses. To do this, I have a service that gets a specific DataContext instance Dependency Injected into its constructor. Service Class Constructor: public class SqlPupilBlockService : IPupilBlockService { DataContext db; public SqlPupilBlockService(DataContext db) { this.db = db; CoursesRepository = new SqlRepository<Course>(db); UserCoursesRepository = new SqlRepository<UserCourse>(db); } // Etc, etc } The CoursesRepository and UserCoursesRepository are both private properties of the service class that are of Type IRepository (just a simple generic repository interface). Sql Respoitory Code: public class SqlRepository<T> : IRepository<T> where T : class { DataContext db; public SqlRepository(DataContext db) { this.db = db; } #region IRepository<T> Members public IQueryable<T> Query { get { return db.GetTable<T>(); } } public List<T> FetchAll() { return Query.ToList(); } public void Add(T entity) { db.GetTable<T>().InsertOnSubmit(entity); } public void Delete(T entity) { db.GetTable<T>().DeleteOnSubmit(entity); } public void Save() { db.SubmitChanges(); } #endregion } The two methods for adding and deleting UserCourses are: Service Methods for Adding and Deleting UserCourses: public void AddUserCourse(int courseId) { UserCourse uc = new UserCourse(); uc.IdCourse = courseId; uc.IdUser = UserId; uc.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; uc.DateAmended = DateTime.Now; uc.Role = "Pupil"; uc.CourseNotes = string.Empty; uc.ActiveStepIndex = 0; UserCoursesRepository.Add(uc); UserCoursesRepository.Save(); } public void DeleteUserCourse(int courseId) { var uc = (UserCoursesRepository.Query.Where(x => x.IdUser == UserId && x.IdCourse == courseId)).Single(); UserCoursesRepository.Delete(uc); UserCoursesRepository.Save(); } Ajax I am using Ajax via Ajax.BeginForm I don't think that is relevant. ASP.NET MVC 3 I am using mvc3, but don't think that is relevant: the errors are related to model code.

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• How to Prevent PostBack Event Handler from Firing

  - by user331744

  I have a custom class (ServerSideValidator.vb) that validates user input on server side (it doesn't use any of the .NET built in validators, therefore Page.Validate() is not an option for me). I am calling the Validate() method on page.IsPostback event and the class performs without any problem My issue is, when validation fails (returns false), I want to stop the postback event handler from firing, but load the page along with all the controls and user-input values in them. If I do, Response.End(), the page comes up blank. I can programmatically instruct the page to go to the previous page (original form before postback), but it loses all user-inputs. I thought of creating a global boolean variable in the page code behind file and check the value before performing any postback method, but this approach takes away from my plan to provide all functionalities inside the class itself. The page object is being referenced to ServerSideValidator. Seems like all the postback related properties/variables I come across inside Page class are 'Readonly' and I can't assign value(s) to control/prevent postback event from firing. Any idiea on how I can accomplish this? Please let me know if you need further details

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• WordPress issues with htaccess causing 500 server error

  - by Scott B

  I have a few customers of my custom wordpress theme that are reporting that their sites have went down over the past few weeks due to a 500 internal server error. In each case, it appears that the htaccess file has been to blame. In one case, the user's hosting company found a "_pvt/service.pwd" line in there that was apparently causing the problem. In another instance, the hosting company indicated that a chron job appeared to be causing the issue and sent the user the following as evidence... root@cherry [/home/login/public_html]# stat .htaccess File: `.htaccess.orig' Size: 587 Blocks: 8 IO Block: 4096 regular file Device: 811h/2065d Inode: 590021607 Links: 1 Access: (0644/-rw-r--r--) Uid: ( 2234/login) Gid: ( 2231/login) Access: 2010-03-07 16:42:01.000000000 -0600 Modify: 2010-03-26 09:15:15.000000000 -0500 Change: 2010-03-26 09:45:05.000000000 -0500 In yet another instance, the user reported this as the cause... The permissions on my .index file somehow got changed to 777 instead of 644 I'm just seeking to help these users understand what's going on, the likely cause and how to prevent it. I also want to eliminate my theme as a potential contributing factor. I have two areas in which I want to submit here to make sure that they are not likely to cause such an issue. They are my permalink rewrite code as well as my upgrade script (which sets 755 on the destination folder (my theme folder). Here's the permalink rewrite code... if (file_exists(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php')) { require_once(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php'); if(get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%/" || get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks') !=="/%postname%/") { $mycustomtheme_permalinks = get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure($mycustomtheme_permalinks); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } if(!get_cat_ID('topMenu')){wp_create_category('topMenu');} if(!get_cat_ID('hidden')){wp_create_category('hidden');} if(!get_cat_ID('noads')){wp_create_category('noads');} } if (!is_dir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads')) { mkdir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads'); } And here is the relevant lines from my uploader script... // permission settings for newly created folders $chmod = 0755; // Ensures that the correct file was chosen $accepted_types = array('application/zip', 'application/x-zip-compressed', 'multipart/x-zip', 'application/s-compressed'); foreach($accepted_types as $mime_type) { if($mime_type == $type) { $okay = true; break; } } //Safari and Chrome don't register zip mime types. Something better could be used here. $okay = strtolower($name[1]) == 'zip' ? true: false; if(!$okay) { die("This upgrader requires a zip file. Please make sure your file is a valid zip file with a .zip extension"); } //mkdir($target); $saved_file_location = $target . $filename; if(move_uploaded_file($source, $saved_file_location)) { openZip($saved_file_location); } else { die("There was a problem. Sorry!"); }

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• How does PHP interface with Apache?

  - by Sbm007

  Hi, I've almost finished writing a HTTP/1.0 compliant web server under Java (no commercial usage as such, this is just for fun) and basically I want to include PHP support. I realize that this is no easy task at all, but I think it'll be a nice accomplishment. So I want to know how PHP exactly interfaces with the Apache web server (or any other web server really), so I can learn from it and write my own PHP wrapper. It doesn't necessarily have to be mod_php, I don't mind writing a FastCGI wrapper - which to my knowledge is capable of running PHP as well. I would've thought that all that PHP needs is the output that goes to client (so it can interpret the PHP parts), the full HTTP request from client (so it can extract POST variables and such) and the client's host name. And then you simply take the parsed PHP code and write that to the output stream. There will probably be more things, but in essence that's how I would have thought it works. From what I've gathered so far, apache2handler provides an API which PHP makes use of to 'connect' to Apache. I guess it's an idea to look at the source code for apache2handler and php5apache2.dll or so, but before I do that I thought I'd ask SO first. If anyone has more information, experience, or some sort of specification that is relevant to this then please let me know. Thanks in advance!

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• Segmentation fault on returning from main (very short and simple code, no arrays or pointers)

  - by Gábor Kovács

  I've been wondering why the following trivial code produces a segmentation fault when returning from main(): //Produces "Error while dumping state (probably corrupted stack); Segmentation fault" #include <iostream> #include <fstream> #include <vector> using namespace std; class Test { vector<int> numbers; }; int main() { Test a; ifstream infile; cout << "Last statement..." << endl; // this gets executed return 0; } Interestingly, 1) if only one of the two variables is declared, I don't get the error, 2) if I declare a vector variable instead of an object with a vector member, everything's fine, 3) if I declare an ofstream instead of an ifstream, again, everything works fine. Something appears to be wrong with this specific combination... Could this be a compiler bug? I use gcc version 3.4.4 with cygwin. Thanks for the tips in advance. Gábor

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• Thread mutex behaviour

  - by Alberteddu

  Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

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• efficient sort with custom comparison, but no callback function

  - by rob

  I have a need for an efficient sort that doesn't have a callback, but is as customizable as using qsort(). What I want is for it to work like an iterator, where it continuously calls into the sort API in a loop until it is done, doing the comparison in the loop rather than off in a callback function. This way the custom comparison is local to the calling function (and therefore has access to local variables, is potentially more efficient, etc). I have implemented this for an inefficient selection sort, but need it to be efficient, so prefer a quick sort derivative. Has anyone done anything like this? I tried to do it for quick sort, but trying to turn the algorithm inside out hurt my brain too much. Below is how it might look in use. // the array of data we are sorting MyData array[5000], *firstP, *secondP; // (assume data is filled in) Sorter sorter; // initialize sorter int result = sortInit (&sorter, array, 5000, (void **)&firstP, (void **)&secondP, sizeof(MyData)); // loop until complete while (sortIteration (&sorter, result) == 0) { // here's where we do the custom comparison...here we // just sort by member "value" but we could do anything result = firstP->value - secondP->value; }

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• The linking is not done (gcc compilation)

  - by Moons

  Hello everyone! So i have this issue : i am declaring some extern global variables in my C program. If I don't use the -c option for gcc, i get undefined references errors. But with that -c option, the linking is not done, which means that i don't have an executable generated. So how do I solve this? Here is my makefile. As I am not good with writing makefiles, I took one from another project then I changed a few things. So maybe I'm missing something here. # Makefile calculPi INCL = -I$(INCL_DIR) DEFS = -D_DEBUG_ CXX_FLAGS =-g -c -lpthread -lm CXX = gcc $(CXX_FLAGS) $(INCL) $(DEFS) LINK_CXX = gcc OBJ = approx.o producteur.o sequentialApproximation.o main.o LINKOBJ = approx.o producteur.o sequentialApproximation.o main.o BIN = calculPi.exe RM = rm -fv all: calculPi.exe clean: ${RM} *\~ \#*\# $(OBJ) clean_all: clean ${RM} $(BIN) cleanall: clean ${RM} $(BIN) $(BIN): $(OBJ) $(CXX) $(LINKOBJ) -o "calculPi.exe" main.o: main.c $(CXX) main.c -o main.o $(CXX_FLAGS) approx.o: approx.c approx.h $(CXX) -c approx.c -o approx.o $(CXX_FLAGS); producteur.o: producteur.c producteur.h $(CXX) -c producteur.c -o producteur.o $(CXX_FLAGS); sequentialApproximation.o : sequentialApproximation.c sequentialApproximation.h $(CXX) -c sequentialApproximation.c -o sequentialApproximation.o $(CXX_FLAGS);

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