Search Results

Search found 19412 results on 777 pages for 'multiple resultsets'.

Page 515/777 | < Previous Page | 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522  | Next Page >

  • Setup SSH key per user for Git access

    - by ThatGuyJJ
    I'm setting up a site that will have multiple development instances running on the same server. Essentially, we'd have dev-a.whatever.com, dev-b.whatever.com, etc.. all running off a single server. I want to give each user some bit of SSH access in order to update and check in code from our Git repository and to manage files via SFTP. However, I want to restrict each user to their own site as well. So if you have access to dev-a.whatever.com, you don't also have access to dev-b.whatever.com and so on. The restriction is already in place if I login via FTP as a certain user, I can't navigate outside my own site -- but if I grant SSH access to that account I can immediately navigate to any file on the server in SFTP. Is RSSH part of the solution? And how can I assign the correct SSH pub key to the corresponding user? We're using BeanStalk for our Git repository management if that makes any impact.

    Read the article

  • Mac Terminal - Color Co-ordinated

    - by Biscuit128
    I would like to create a couple of short cuts on my iMac which ssh on to my dev box and on to my prod box. I would like my dev connection to use the settings something similar to home-brew (green text black background) and my prod connection to use red text black background) - How can this be configured so that this is possible. Would I need multiple bashrc files one for prod and one for dev and source individually? If this is the case, how can i get the profiles to be sources as soon as i double click the shortcuts? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to reference or vlookup a list of values based on a comma separated list of column references within a cell in excel?

    - by glallen
    I want to do a vlookup (or similar) against a column which is a list of values. This works fine for looking up a value from a single row, but I want to be able to look up multiple rows, sum the results, and divide by the number of rows referenced. For example: A B C D E F G [----given values----------------] [Work/Auth] [sum(vlookup(each(G),table,5)) /count(G)] [given vals] 1 Item Authorized OnHand Working Operational% DependencyOR% Dependencies 2 A 1 1 1 1 .55 B 3 B 10 5 5 .50 .55 C,D 4 C 100 75 50 .50 .60 D 5 D 10 10 6 .60 1 I want to be able to show an Operational Rate, and an operational rate of the systems each system depends on (F). In order to get a value for F, I want to sum over each value in column-E that was referenced by a dependency in column-G then divide by the number of dependencies in G. Column-G can have varying lengths, and will be a comma separated list of values from column-A. Is there any way to do this in excel?

    Read the article

  • Does a hard drive degrade if we always write to the same directory?

    - by code-gijoe
    I have a very heavy I/O application that is constantly receiving data through the network and writing to a specific directory on the HDD. Then, the application need to load the files from that specific place. One of my clients has been experiencing slowness and when I try to access the directory it takes quite long before I can see the content. My gut feeling is the HDD is degrading due to high I/O for a couple of years and I'm thinking of changing the HDD. Is there a benefit to write to multiple directories instead of using always the same? BTW he is using Windows XP.

    Read the article

  • VCS for single user using file sync service

    - by StackUnder
    I'm trying to setup a version control for my one man project. My project files are in sync thanks to live mesh (but I could be using dropbox for that matter), between my laptop, my home pc and my office pc. I'm now using Netbeans with local file history. Sometimes it helps to revert to a previous state of one file. But imagine a situation when multiple files have problems. Correct me if I'm wrong but I would have to go to every file and revert to previous "safe" state. I don't like this approach, so I'm considering using a version control between SVN and GIT. I have some previous experience with SVN (TortoiseSVN) and I know that I can create a file:// repo. So, what a want to do is setup a VCS inside my synced folder just to have the ability to "revert" to a previous version if something goes wrong. Since everything's been synced to all computers, I wouldn't ever need to run an update. The file tree organization would be the following: C:...\SyncedFolder\MyProject\ Inside MyProject folder are all the project files plus a directory that has SVN or GIT info of my project (the repo/master). What VCS is best for this situation: SVN or GIT? Does SVN need to store all files from HEAD revision, thus "duplicating" all my project inside my synced folder? Does GIT eliminates this problem? Is this the best approach?

    Read the article

  • Load-balance with LAN and Wi-Fi

    - by Synox
    I have a Mac, which runs Mac OS X 10.6 or Ubuntu 9.10 or Windows XP (Multiboot). Solution can be for any of the systems, whatever works better. I have two ISPs, one can be accessed via Wi-Fi, one can be accessed via LAN. In Mac OS X I can define the priority, which network to choose first. But what I wish to do is to load-balance with both networks. I don't want to buy extra hardware. I have some unused Wi-Fi routers if this would help. Compiling and configuring programs in Linux is no problem for me. Similar question: Load balancing with multiple gateways

    Read the article

  • vSphere 4 - how can I cancel a file copy in progress?

    - by DrStalker
    VMware vSphere 4 SAN storage with multiple data-stores No vCenter I shut-down a virtual machine and using the data-store browser did a copy/paste to copy the VM to a new datastore with additional space. The file copy performance was very poor, and due to time constraints I decided to cancel the copy task. However the copy task showing in the vsphere client can not be cancelled; the cancel option is disabled. Currently I am not able to start the machine in it's original location as the disk files are locked for the copy. How can I abort the copy? I tried deleting the target directory but this did not abort the copy task.

    Read the article

  • How can I limit the amount of messages SendMail will recieve in a single incoming connection?

    - by Mike B
    Is there a way to limit how many messages can be received by SendMail in a given SMTP session? I have a SendMail server and an upstream application server is trying to send dozens (potentially hundreds) of messages to it in a single SMTP session (ehlo... mail from... rcpt to... data... rset... mail from... etc). This is causing resource strain on the box since the traffic isn't effectively load balanced. I'd like to implement a policy to have sendmail only allow up to X number of messages in a given SMTP session after which it will require the remote host to reconnect again. I noticed that there's a confCONNECTION_RATE_THROTTLE option but that seems to protect more against multiple connections occurring at once - not a single connection sending a bunch of emails.

    Read the article

  • How do I make two different Google Chrome profiles?

    - by ldigas
    I have a laptop which I use for (the major part) of my work and private life, and would like to set those two apart starting with Google Chrome. So far, my Google Chrome contains my work bookmarks, logins/passwords and everything else ... which I use for work, which I use privately, which I use in my spare time (funny Youtube videos, what else :) Is it possible to define multiple Google Chrome profiles, let's say work and free-time, so one can quickly switch between them, where bookmarks, logins and so on, from one would be invisible in the other, and vice versa? Also, is it possible to put them into some directory different from the default, so one can easily backup them, when needed? If it is, could anyone describe it in simple terms, or his experiences if she/he has a better way of going about this?

    Read the article

  • Why is this server redirecting to another page???

    - by Mike L.
    I am building a site for a client. For a reason unknown to me www.domain.com forwards to www.domain.com/directory/home.html. If i type www.domain.com/index.php it works correctly. I have checked .htaccess there was nothing there, so I set the index to index.php which works fine in every directory other than the root directory. I have root access and have checked the httpd.conf (did a search in VI for the document that I was being redirected to) and anything else I could think of. Where should I look next? The server is a VPS running CentOS 5.5 with multiple domains, has CPanel WHM 11 for root access and CPanel X installed for each domain.

    Read the article

  • Notepad++. How to replace diffrent characters with corresponding letters at once?

    - by Algis
    How to find and replace in Notepad++ multiple different characters to corresponding letters at once throughout the text? For example, I have 32 characters that I want to replace. So I have the character like “À”, and I want to replace it with the letter “A”. Next, I have the character like “Æ” and I want to replace it with the letter “?” and so on. Generally, I have 32 such characters and each time I need to do the same operation. Is any way to do this at once? Please view the sample. http://tinypic.com/view.php?pic=34jenv4&s=6 Thanks

    Read the article

  • Should Production Windows Web Servers (IIS & SQL) be in a domain?

    - by tlianza
    We have a few web servers and a few database servers. To date, they've been standalone machines that are not part of a domain. The web servers don't talk to each other, and the web servers talk to the database servers via SQL Auth. My concern with putting the machines in a domain together were added complexity - it's one more "thing" running, and doing "things" that could go wrong. risk - if a domain controller fails, am I now putting other machines at risk? However, in certain scenarios it does seem convenient for them to be on a domain, sharing credentials. For example, if I want to give the "services" control on one machine access to another machine (because Remote Desktop craps out) I need to go in and assign privileges on multiple machines - something that I believe Active Directory and Domain Accounts set to simplify. My question: I'm sure there are things I'm not considering here. Is there a best practice?

    Read the article

  • How to force a drop of MSSQL Server database

    - by ng01
    I am trying to delete an MSSQL Server database, however I am having no luck. I have tried multiple things such as user ALTER DATABASE my_database SET RESTRICTED_USER WITH ROLLBACK IMMEDIATE; GO DROP DATABASE my_database; GO I have also tried to right click on it a delete it. This does not work, it tells me "Cannot drop database "ima_debts" because it is currently in use". The thing is there is definately no other user connected to it. In fact I disabled TCP/IP for the database and restarted it. Not even "Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (Administrator)" is connected to it. I have made sure to login to "master". Why is it telling me it is currently in use. Is it possible for me to delete perhaps a directory or something from the file system to get rid of this database? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Slow data transfer using SSH

    - by Floste
    The server is an ubuntu server 11.04 with sshd. SSH works fine for console programs. But data transfer is slow, which is very annoying when transferring large files. I tried two different client programs and changed the port, but the speed is always the same. I know the server can transfer data a lot faster over SSL, which afaik uses AES. I configured my SSH client to use AES, too, but no effect. Why is using SSH multiple times slower than SSL and is there a way to improve transfer speed of SSH?

    Read the article

  • Paying great programmers more than average programmers

    - by Kelly French
    It's fairly well recognized that some programmers are up to 10 times more productive than others. Joel mentions this topic on his blog. There is a whole blog devoted to the idea of the "10x productive programmer". In years since the original study, the general finding that "There are order-of-magnitude differences among programmers" has been confirmed by many other studies of professional programmers (Curtis 1981, Mills 1983, DeMarco and Lister 1985, Curtis et al. 1986, Card 1987, Boehm and Papaccio 1988, Valett and McGarry 1989, Boehm et al 2000). Fred Brooks mentions the wide range in the quality of designers in his "No Silver Bullet" article, The differences are not minor--they are rather like the differences between Salieri and Mozart. Study after study shows that the very best designers produce structures that are faster, smaller, simpler, cleaner, and produced with less effort. The differences between the great and the average approach an order of magnitude. The study that Brooks cites is: H. Sackman, W.J. Erikson, and E.E. Grant, "Exploratory Experimental Studies Comparing Online and Offline Programming Performance," Communications of the ACM, Vol. 11, No. 1 (January 1968), pp. 3-11. The way programmers are paid by employers these days makes it almost impossible to pay the great programmers a large multiple of what the entry-level salary is. When the starting salary for a just-graduated entry-level programmer, we'll call him Asok (From Dilbert), is $40K, even if the top programmer, we'll call him Linus, makes $120K that is only a multiple of 3. I'd be willing to be that Linus does much more than 3 times what Asok does, so why wouldn't we expect him to get paid more as well? Here is a quote from Stroustrup: "The companies are complaining because they are hurting. They can't produce quality products as cheaply, as reliably, and as quickly as they would like. They correctly see a shortage of good developers as a part of the problem. What they generally don't see is that inserting a good developer into a culture designed to constrain semi-skilled programmers from doing harm is pointless because the rules/culture will constrain the new developer from doing anything significantly new and better." This leads to two questions. I'm excluding self-employed programmers and contractors. If you disagree that's fine but please include your rationale. It might be that the self-employed or contract programmers are where you find the top-10 earners, but please provide a explanation/story/rationale along with any anecdotes. [EDIT] I thought up some other areas in which talent/ability affects pay. Financial traders (commodities, stock, derivatives, etc.) designers (fashion, interior decorators, architects, etc.) professionals (doctor, lawyer, accountant, etc.) sales Questions: Why aren't the top 1% of programmers paid like A-list movie stars? What would the industry be like if we did pay the "Smart and gets things done" programmers 6, 8, or 10 times what an intern makes? [Footnote: I posted this question after submitting it to the Stackoverflow podcast. It was included in episode 77 and I've written more about it as a Codewright's Tale post 'Of Rockstars and Bricklayers'] Epilogue: It's probably unfair to exclude contractors and the self-employed. One aspect of the highest earners in other fields is that they are free-agents. The competition for their skills is what drives up their earning power. This means they can not be interchangeable or otherwise treated as a plug-and-play resource. I liked the example in one answer of a major league baseball team trying to field two first-basemen. Also, something that Joel mentioned in the Stackoverflow podcast (#77). There are natural dynamics to shrink any extreme performance/pay ranges between the highs and lows. One is the peer pressure of organizations to pay within a given range, another is the likelyhood that the high performer will realize their undercompensation and seek greener pastures.

    Read the article

  • Inconsistent responses from ISAPI DLL in mod_isapi.

    - by William Leader
    I have a ISAPI dll which I created with Delphi 2009, and I have been able to test that it functions as designed when I run it inside of IIS 5.1. However when I attempt to host the web service from within Apache on Windows XP using mod_isapi, I do not get consistent results. The ISAPI dll implements a very simple SOAP service with two methods. One method is a simple echo service that sends back the string sent to it. The second method is used to send a file to the server using a TSoapAttachement (Mutipart MIME). The interface can be descibes as follows IPdiSvc2 = interface(IInvokable) ['{532DCDD7-D66B-4D2C-924E-2F389D3E0A74}'] function Echo(data:string): string; stdcall; function SendFile(request:TFileDescription; attachment: TSOAPAttachment): TSendFileResponse; stdcall; end; What is interesting is if I only call the echo function Apache handles this without error every time. The webservice only returns an error after calling send File, but not every time. There are three outcomes to calling send file that I have observed: A normal result without an error (HTTP 200 OK). A Soap encoded exception with the message: 'Required white space was missing. Line: 11 <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//IETF//DTD HTML.' (HTTP 500 Internal Error). This also generates a message in the Apache error.log 'Premature end of script headers: MYISAPI.dll' A Soap encoded exception with the message: 'Access violation at address 01A53D57 in module MYISAPI.dll. Read of address 00000000.' (HTTP 200 OK). What I find interesting is that the second third outcomes still occur if I call echo after calling send file. Calling SendFile, SendFile, SendFile, SendFile results in outcomes 1, 2, 3, 1. Calling Echo, SendFile, SendFile, SendFile results in outcomes 1, 1, 2, 3. Calling SendFile, Echo, Echo, SendFile results in outcomes 1, 2, 3, 1. The pattern I am seing is that after a Successful SendFile, the next to requests result in outcomes 2 and 3 regardless of what those two requests are. My guess is that because Apache uses multiple threads to handle multiple requests that each request is getting handled in a slightly different way, and that the DLL may not have been initialized in the same way for each worker thread. I do not think the problem exists in my code as when I attach the debugger to httpd.exe it does recognize the exceptions but it says the exceptions are in non-delphi code meaning that they are happening before the code inside my DLL has a chance to execute. I suspect it may have something to do with the way I have apache configured. My Apache configuration is the defaults created by the 2.2.15 installer for windows with the following addition: <IfModule isapi_module> AddHandler isapi-handler .dll ISAPILogNotSupported on ISAPIFakeAsync on ISAPIAppendLogToErrors on </IfModule> <IfModule alias_module> ScriptAlias /myisapi/ "C:/path/to/myisapi/" </IfModule> <Directory "C:/path/to/myisapi/"> AllowOverride None Options ExecCGI Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory>

    Read the article

  • Eclipse buildtime and runtime classpaths for easy execution of junit test cases

    - by emeraldjava
    Hey, I've a large eclipse project with multiple junit classes. I'm trying to strike a balance between adding runtime resources to the eclipse project classpath, and the need to configure mutliple junit launch configurations. I realise the default eclipse build classpath is inherited by all unit test configurations, but some of my tests require extra runtime resources. I could add these resources to the build classpath, but this does slow my overall project build time (since it has to keep more files in synch). I don't like the idea of including * resources and jars on the runtime classpath. The two options that i have are these, the positive and negative cases as i see it are listed 1 : Add all runtime resources to eclipse classpath. POS I can select a unit test and run it without having to configure the test classpath. POS Extra resources on build classpath means eclipse slows down. NEG More difficult to ensure each test uses the correct resources. 2 : Configure the classpath of each unit test POS I know exactly what resources are being used by a test. POS Smaller build classpath means quicker build and execution by eclipse. NEG Its a pain having to setup multiple separate junit runtime classpaths. Ideally i'd like to configure one base junit runtime configuration, which takes the default eclipse build classpath, adds extra runtime jars and resources. This configuration could then be reused by the specific junit test cases, Is anything like this possible? Looking at a specific junit launch configuration which can be exported to a share project file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <launchConfiguration type="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.launchconfig"> <stringAttribute key="bad_container_name" value="/CR-3089_5_1_branch."/> <listAttribute key="org.eclipse.debug.core.MAPPED_RESOURCE_PATHS"> <listEntry value="/CR-3089_5_1_branch/src/com/x/y/z/ParserJUnitTest.java"/> </listAttribute> <listAttribute key="org.eclipse.debug.core.MAPPED_RESOURCE_TYPES"> <listEntry value="1"/> </listAttribute> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.CONTAINER" value=""/> <booleanAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.KEEPRUNNING_ATTR" value="false"/> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.TESTNAME" value=""/> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.TEST_KIND" value="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.loader.junit4"/> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.MAIN_TYPE" value="com.x.y.z.ParserJUnitTest"/> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="CR-3089_5_1_branch"/> </launchConfiguration> is it possible to extend/reuse this configuration, and parameterise the 'org.eclipse.jdt.launching.MAIN_TYPE' value? I'm aware of the commons launch and jar manifest file solutions to configuring the classpath, but they both seem to assume that an ant build is run before the test can execute. I want to avoid any eclipse dependency on calling an ant target when refactoting code and executing tests. Basically - What is the the easiest way to seperate and maintain the eclipse buildtime classpath and junit runtime classpaths?

    Read the article

  • ADO.NET (WCF) Data Services Query Interceptor Hangs IIS

    - by PreMagination
    I have an ADO.NET Data Service that's supposed to provide read-only access to a somewhat complex database. Logically I have table-per-type (TPT) inheritance in my data model but the EDM doesn't implement inheritance. (Limitation of EF and navigation properties on derived types. STILL not fixed in EF4!) I can query my EDM directly (using a separate project) using a copy of the query I'm trying to run against the web service, results are returned within 10 seconds. Disabling the query interceptors I'm able to make the same query against the web service, results are returned similarly quickly. I can enable some of the query interceptors and the results are returned slowly, up to a minute or so later. Alternatively, I can enable all the query interceptors, expand less of the properties on the main object I'm querying, and results are returned in a similar period of time. (I've increased some of the timeout periods) Up til this point Sql Profiler indicates the slow-down is the database. (That's a post for a different day) But when I enable all my query interceptors and expand all the properties I'd like to have the IIS worker process pegs the CPU for 20 minutes and a query is never even made against the database. This implies to me that yes, my implementation probably sucks but regardless the Data Services "tier" is having an issue it shouldn't. WCF tracing didn't reveal anything interesting to my untrained eye. Details: Data model: Agent-Person-Student Student has a collection of referrals Students and referrals are private, queries against the web service should only return "your" students and referrals. This means Person and Agent need to be filtered too. Other entities (Agent-Organization-School) can be accessed by anyone who has authenticated. The existing security model is poorly suited to perform this type of filtering for this type of data access, the query interceptors are complicated and cause EF to generate some entertaining sql queries. Sample Interceptor [QueryInterceptor("Agents")] public Expression<Func<Agent, Boolean>> OnQueryAgents() { //Agent is a Person(1), Educator(2), Student(3), or Other Person(13); allow if scope permissions exist return ag => (ag.AgentType.AgentTypeId == 1 || ag.AgentType.AgentTypeId == 2 || ag.AgentType.AgentTypeId == 3 || ag.AgentType.AgentTypeId == 13) && ag.Person.OrganizationPersons.Count<OrganizationPerson>(op => op.Organization.ScopePermissions.Any<ScopePermission> (p => p.ApplicationRoleAccount.Account.UserName == HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name && p.ApplicationRoleAccount.Application.ApplicationId == 124) || op.Organization.HierarchyDescendents.Any<OrganizationsHierarchy>(oh => oh.AncestorOrganization.ScopePermissions.Any<ScopePermission> (p => p.ApplicationRoleAccount.Account.UserName == HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name && p.ApplicationRoleAccount.Application.ApplicationId == 124))) > 0; } The query interceptors for Person, Student, Referral are all very similar, ie they traverse multiple same/similar tables to look for ScopePermissions as above. Sample Query var referrals = (from r in service.Referrals .Expand("Organization/ParentOrganization") .Expand("Educator/Person/Agent") .Expand("Student/Person/Agent") .Expand("Student") .Expand("Grade") .Expand("ProblemBehavior") .Expand("Location") .Expand("Motivation") .Expand("AdminDecision") .Expand("OthersInvolved") where r.DateCreated >= coupledays && r.DateDeleted == null select r); Any suggestions or tips would be greatly associated, for fixing my current implementation or in developing a new one, with the caveat that the database can't be changed and that ultimately I need to expose a large portion of the database via a web service that limits data access to the data authorized for, for the purpose of data integration with multiple outside parties. THANK YOU!!!

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework many-to-many using VB.Net Lambda

    - by bgs264
    Hello, I'm a newbie to StackOverflow so please be kind ;) I'm using Entity Framework in Visual Studio 2010 Beta 2 (.NET framework 4.0 Beta 2). I have created an entity framework .edmx model from my database and I have a handful of many-to-many relationships. A trivial example of my database schema is Roles (ID, Name, Active) Members (ID, DateOfBirth, DateCreated) RoleMembership(RoleID, MemberID) I am now writing the custom role provider (Inheriting System.Configuration.Provider.RoleProvider) and have come to write the implementation of IsUserInRole(username, roleName). The LINQ-to-Entity queries which I wrote, when SQL-Profiled, all produced CROSS JOIN statements when what I want is for them to INNER JOIN. Dim query = From m In dc.Members From r In dc.Roles Where m.ID = 100 And r.Name = "Member" Select m My problem is almost exactly described here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/553918/entity-framework-and-many-to-many-queries-unusable I'm sure that the solution presented there works well, but whilst I studied Java at uni and I can mostly understand C# I cannot understand this Lambda syntax provided and I need to get a similar example in VB. I've looked around the web for the best part of half a day but I'm not closer to my answer. So please can somebody advise how, in VB, I can construct a LINQ statement which would do this equivalent in SQL: SELECT rm.RoleID FROM RoleMembership rm INNER JOIN Roles r ON r.ID = rm.RoleID INNER JOIN Members m ON m.ID = rm.MemberID WHERE r.Name = 'Member' AND m.ID = 101 I would use this query to see if Member 101 is in Role 3. (I appreciate I probably don't need the join to the Members table in SQL but I imagine in LINQ I'd need to bring in the Member object?) UPDATE: I'm a bit closer by using multiple methods: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim count As Integer Using dc As New CBLModel.CBLEntities Dim persons = dc.Members.Where(AddressOf myTest) count = persons.Count End Using System.Diagnostics.Debugger.Break() End Sub Function myTest(ByVal m As Member) As Boolean Return m.ID = "100" AndAlso m.Roles.Select(AddressOf myRoleTest).Count > 0 End Function Function myRoleTest(ByVal r As Role) As Boolean Return r.Name = "Member" End Function SQL Profiler shows this: SQL:BatchStarting SELECT [Extent1].[ID] AS [ID], ... (all columns from Members snipped for brevity) ... FROM [dbo].[Members] AS [Extent1] RPC:Completed exec sp_executesql N'SELECT [Extent2].[ID] AS [ID], [Extent2].[Name] AS [Name], [Extent2].[Active] AS [Active] FROM [dbo].[RoleMembership] AS [Extent1] INNER JOIN [dbo].[Roles] AS [Extent2] ON [Extent1].[RoleID] = [Extent2].[ID] WHERE [Extent1].[MemberID] = @EntityKeyValue1',N'@EntityKeyValue1 int',@EntityKeyValue1=100 SQL:BatchCompleted SELECT [Extent1].[ID] AS [ID], ... (all columns from Members snipped for brevity) ... FROM [dbo].[Members] AS [Extent1] I'm not certain why it is using sp_execsql for the inner join statement and why it's still running a select to select ALL members though. Thanks. UPDATE 2 I've written it by turning the above "multiple methods" into lambda expressions then all into one query, like this: Dim allIDs As String = String.Empty Using dc As New CBLModel.CBLEntities For Each retM In dc.Members.Where(Function(m As Member) m.ID = 100 AndAlso m.Roles.Select(Function(r As Role) r.Name = "Doctor").Count > 0) allIDs &= retM.ID.ToString & ";" Next End Using But it doesn't seem to work: "Doctor" is not a role that exists, I just put it in there for testing purposes, yet "allIDs" still gets set to "100;" The SQL in SQL Profiler this time looks like this: SELECT [Project1].* FROM ( SELECT [Extent1].*, (SELECT COUNT(1) AS [A1] FROM [dbo].[RoleMembership] AS [Extent2] WHERE [Extent1].[ID] = [Extent2].[MemberID]) AS [C1] FROM [dbo].[Members] AS [Extent1] ) AS [Project1] WHERE (100 = [Project1].[ID]) AND ([Project1].[C1] > 0) For brevity I turned the list of all the columns from the Members table into * As you can see it's just ignoring the "Role" query... :/

    Read the article

  • Parsing HTML using HtmlParser

    - by Blankman
    My html has 20 or so rows of the following HTML pattern. So the below is considered a single instance of the pattern. Each instance of this pattern represents a product. Again the below is a single instance, it spans multiple rows in the HTML table. <table> .. <!-- product starts here, this html comment is not in the real html --> <tr> <td rowspan="5" class="product" valign="top"><nobr> ????????????</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> </tr> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="5" ????????</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="6" width="100%">&nbsp;<hr></td> </tr> <!-- product ends here, this html comment is not in the real html --> <!-- above pattern repeats multiple times in the HTML --> .. <table> I am trying to use HtmlParser for this. Parser rowParser = new Parser(); rowParser.setInputHtml(page.getHtml()); // page object represents a html page rowParser.setEncoding("UTF-8"); NodeFilter productRowFilter = new AndFilter( new TagNameFilter("tr"), new HasChildFilter( new AndFilter( new TagNameFilter("td"), new HasAttributeFilter("class", "product"))) The above filter doesn't work, just showing you what I have so far. I need to somehow combine these filters, and use the last td to mark the end of the pattern i.e. the td with the colspan=6 and width=100% with child element hr. I have been struggling with this, and have resorted to Regex'ing but was told numerous times to NOT use regex for html parsing, so here I am! Your help is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • What is the reason of "Transaction context in use by another session"

    - by Shrike
    Hi, I'm looking for a description of the root of this error: "Transaction context in use by another session". I get it sometimes in one of my unittests so I can't provider repro code. But I wonder what is "by design" reason for the error. I've found this post: http://blogs.msdn.com/asiatech/archive/2009/08/10/system-transaction-may-fail-in-multiple-thread-environment.aspx and also that: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff649002.aspx But I can't understand what "Multiple threads sharing the same transaction in a transaction scope will cause the following exception: 'Transaction context in use by another session.' " means. All words are understandable but not the point. I actually can share a system transaction between threads. And there is even special mechanism for this - DependentTransaction class and Transaction.DependentClone method. I'm trying to reproduce a usecase from the first post: 1. Main thread creates DTC transaction, receives DependentTransaction (created using Transaction.Current.DependentClone on the main thread 2. Child thread 1 enlists in this DTC transaction by creating a transaction scope based on the dependent transaction (passed via constructor) 3. Child thread 1 opens a connection 4. Child thread 2 enlists in DTC transaction by creating a transaction scope based on the dependent transaction (passed via constructor) 5. Child thread 2 opens a connection with such code: using System; using System.Threading; using System.Transactions; using System.Data; using System.Data.SqlClient; public class Program { private static string ConnectionString = "Initial Catalog=DB;Data Source=.;User ID=user;PWD=pwd;"; public static void Main() { int MAX = 100; for(int i =0; i< MAX;i++) { using(var ctx = new TransactionScope()) { var tx = Transaction.Current; // make the transaction distributed using (SqlConnection con1 = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) using (SqlConnection con2 = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) { con1.Open(); con2.Open(); } showSysTranStatus(); DependentTransaction dtx = Transaction.Current.DependentClone(DependentCloneOption.BlockCommitUntilComplete); Thread t1 = new Thread(o => workCallback(dtx)); Thread t2 = new Thread(o => workCallback(dtx)); t1.Start(); t2.Start(); t1.Join(); t2.Join(); ctx.Complete(); } trace("root transaction completes"); } } private static void workCallback(DependentTransaction dtx) { using(var txScope1 = new TransactionScope(dtx)) { using (SqlConnection con2 = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) { con2.Open(); trace("connection opened"); showDbTranStatus(con2); } txScope1.Complete(); } trace("dependant tran completes"); } private static void trace(string msg) { Console.WriteLine(Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId + " : " + msg); } private static void showSysTranStatus() { string msg; if (Transaction.Current != null) msg = Transaction.Current.TransactionInformation.DistributedIdentifier.ToString(); else msg = "no sys tran"; trace( msg ); } private static void showDbTranStatus(SqlConnection con) { var cmd = con.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "SELECT 1"; var c = cmd.ExecuteScalar(); trace("@@TRANCOUNT = " + c); } } It fails on Complete's call of root TransactionScope. But error is different: Unhandled Exception: System.Transactions.TransactionInDoubtException: The transaction is in doubt. --- pired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. To sum up: I want to understand what "Transaction context in use by another session" means and how to reproduce it.

    Read the article

  • Join 2 children tables with a parent tables without duplicated

    - by user1847866
    Problem I have 3 tables: People, Phones and Emails. Each person has an UNIQUE ID, and each person can have multiple numbers or multiple emails. Simplified it looks like this: +---------+----------+ | ID | Name | +---------+----------+ | 5000003 | Amy | | 5000004 | George | | 5000005 | John | | 5000008 | Steven | | 8000009 | Ashley | +---------+----------+ +---------+-----------------+ | ID | Number | +---------+-----------------+ | 5000005 | 5551234 | | 5000005 | 5154324 | | 5000008 | 2487312 | | 8000009 | 7134584 | | 5000008 | 8451384 | +---------+-----------------+ +---------+------------------------------+ | ID | Email | +---------+------------------------------+ | 5000005 | [email protected] | | 5000005 | [email protected] | | 5000008 | [email protected] | | 5000008 | [email protected] | | 5000008 | [email protected] | | 8000009 | [email protected] | | 5000004 | [email protected] | +---------+------------------------------+ I am trying to joining them together without duplicates. It works great, when I try to join only Emails with People or only Phones with People. SELECT People.Name, People.ID, Phones.Number FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Phones ON People.ID=Phones.ID ORDER BY Name, ID, Number; +----------+---------+-----------------+ | Name | ID | Number | +----------+---------+-----------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | | John | 5000005 | 5154324 | | George | 5000004 | NULL | | Ashley | 8000009 | 7134584 | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | +----------+---------+-----------------+ SELECT People.Name, People.ID, Emails.Email FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Emails ON People.ID=Emails.ID ORDER BY Name, ID, Email; +----------+---------+------------------------------+ | Name | ID | Email | +----------+---------+------------------------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | [email protected] | | George | 5000004 | [email protected] | | Ashley | 8000009 | [email protected] | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | +----------+---------+------------------------------+ However, when I try to join Emails and Phones on People - I get this: SELECT People.Name, People.ID, Phones.Number, Emails.Email FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Phones ON People.ID = Phones.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Emails ON People.ID = Emails.ID ORDER BY Name, ID, Number, Email; +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Name | ID | Number | Email | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5154324 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5154324 | [email protected] | | George | 5000004 | NULL | [email protected] | | Ashley | 8000009 | 7134584 | [email protected] | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | NULL | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ What happens is - if a Person has 2 numbers, all his emails are shown twice (They can not be sorted! which means they can not be removed by @last) What I want: Bottom line, playing with the @last, I want to end up with somethig like this, but @last won't work if I don't arrange ORDER columns in the righ way - and this seems like a big problem..Orderin the email column. Because seen from the example above: Steven has 2 phone number and 3 emails. The JOIN Emails with Numbers happens with each email - thus duplicated values that can not be sorted (SORT BY does not work on them). **THIS IS WHAT I WANT** +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Name | ID | Number | Email | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | | | 24887312 | [email protected] | | | | | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | [email protected] | | | | 5154324 | [email protected] | | George | 5000004 | NULL | [email protected] | | Ashley | 8000009 | 7134584 | [email protected] | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | NULL | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ Now I'm told that it's best to keep emails and number in separated tables because one can have many emails. So if it's such a common thing to do, what isn't there a simple solution? I'd be happy with a PHP Solution aswell. What I know how to do by now that satisfies it, but is not as pretty. If I do it with GROUP_CONTACT I geat a satisfactory result, but it doesn't look as pretty: I can't put a "Email type = work" next to it. SELECT People.Ime, GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Phones.Number), GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Emails.Email) FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Phones ON People.ID=Phones.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Emails ON People.ID=Emails.ID GROUP BY Name; +----------+----------------------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | Name | GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Phones.Number) | GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Emails.Email) | +----------+----------------------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | Steven | 8451384,24887312 | [email protected],[email protected],[email protected] | | John | 5551234,5154324 | [email protected],[email protected] | | George | NULL | [email protected] | | Ashley | 7134584 | [email protected] | | Amy | NULL | NULL | +----------+----------------------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------------+

    Read the article

  • How Do I Bind a "selected Item" in a Listbox to a ItemsControl in WPF?

    - by Scott
    LowDown: I am trying to create a Document Viewer in WPF. It will allow the user to preview selected documents and if they want, compare the documents in WPF. So they can view them side by side. The layout is this: Left side is a full list box. On the right side is a Collection or an Items control. Inside the items control will be a collection of the "selected documents" in the list box. So A user can select multiple items in the list box and for each new item they select, they can add the item to the collection on the right. I want the collection to look like a image gallery that shows up in Google/Bing Image searches. Make sense? The problem I am having is I can't get the WPFPreviewer to bind correctly to the selected item in the list box under the itemscontrol. Side Note: The WPFPreviewer is something Micorosft puts out that allows us to preview documents. Other previewers can be built for all types of documents, but im going basic here until I get this working right. I have been successful in binding to the list box WITHOUT the items control here: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="listBoxTemplate"> <StackPanel Margin="3" > <DockPanel > <Image Source="{Binding IconURL}" Height="30"></Image> <TextBlock Text=" " /> <TextBlock x:Name="Title" Text="{Binding Title}" FontWeight="Bold" /> <TextBlock x:Name="URL" Visibility="Collapsed" Text="{Binding Url}"/> </DockPanel> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> <Grid Background="Cyan"> <ListBox HorizontalAlignment="Left" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource listBoxTemplate}" Width="200" AllowDrop="True" x:Name="lbDocuments" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=DocumentElements,ElementName=winDocument}" DragEnter="documentListBox_DragEnter" /> <l:WPFPreviewHandler Content="{Binding ElementName=lbDocuments, Path=SelectedItem.Url}"/> </Grid> Though, once I add in the ItemsControl, I can't get it to work anymore: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="listBoxTemplate"> <StackPanel Margin="3" > <DockPanel > <Image Source="{Binding IconURL}" Height="30"></Image> <TextBlock Text=" " /> <TextBlock x:Name="Title" Text="{Binding Title}" FontWeight="Bold" /> <TextBlock x:Name="URL" Visibility="Collapsed" Text="{Binding Url}"/> </DockPanel> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox HorizontalAlignment="Left" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource listBoxTemplate}" Width="200" AllowDrop="True" x:Name="lbDocuments" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=DocumentElements,ElementName=winDocument}" DragEnter="documentListBox_DragEnter" /> <ItemsControl x:Name="DocumentViewer" ItemsSource="{Binding ElementName=lbDocuments, Path=SelectedItem.Url}" > <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid Background="Cyan"> <l:WPFPreviewHandler Content="{Binding Url}"/> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </Grid> Can someone please help me out with trying to bind to the ItemsControl if I select one or even multiple items in the listbox.

    Read the article

  • How to implement an offline reader writer lock

    - by Peter Morris
    Some context for the question All objects in this question are persistent. All requests will be from a Silverlight client talking to an app server via a binary protocol (Hessian) and not WCF. Each user will have a session key (not an ASP.NET session) which will be a string, integer, or GUID (undecided so far). Some objects might take a long time to edit (30 or more minutes) so we have decided to use pessimistic offline locking. Pessimistic because having to reconcile conflicts would be far too annoying for users, offline because the client is not permanently connected to the server. Rather than storing session/object locking information in the object itself I have decided that any aggregate root that may have its instances locked should implement an interface ILockable public interface ILockable { Guid LockID { get; } } This LockID will be the identity of a "Lock" object which holds the information of which session is locking it. Now, if this were simple pessimistic locking I'd be able to achieve this very simply (using an incrementing version number on Lock to identify update conflicts), but what I actually need is ReaderWriter pessimistic offline locking. The reason is that some parts of the application will perform actions that read these complex structures. These include things like Reading a single structure to clone it. Reading multiple structures in order to create a binary file to "publish" the data to an external source. Read locks will be held for a very short period of time, typically less than a second, although in some circumstances they could be held for about 5 seconds at a guess. Write locks will mostly be held for a long time as they are mostly held by humans. There is a high probability of two users trying to edit the same aggregate at the same time, and a high probability of many users needing to temporarily read-lock at the same time too. I'm looking for suggestions as to how I might implement this. One additional point to make is that if I want to place a write lock and there are some read locks, I would like to "queue" the write lock so that no new read locks are placed. If the read locks are removed withing X seconds then the write lock is obtained, if not then the write lock backs off; no new read-locks would be placed while a write lock is queued. So far I have this idea The Lock object will have a version number (int) so I can detect multi-update conflicts, reload, try again. It will have a string[] for read locks A string to hold the session ID that has a write lock A string to hold the queued write lock Possibly a recursion counter to allow the same session to lock multiple times (for both read and write locks), but not sure about this yet. Rules: Can't place a read lock if there is a write lock or queued write lock. Can't place a write lock if there is a write lock or queued write lock. If there are no locks at all then a write lock may be placed. If there are read locks then a write lock will be queued instead of a full write lock placed. (If after X time the read locks are not gone the lock backs off, otherwise it is upgraded). Can't queue a write lock for a session that has a read lock. Can anyone see any problems? Suggest alternatives? Anything? I'd appreciate feedback before deciding on what approach to take.

    Read the article

  • SQL server deadlock between INSERT and SELECT statement

    - by dtroy
    Hi! I've got a problem with multiple deadlocks on SQL server 2005. This one is between an INSERT and a SELECT statement. There are two tables. Table 1 and Table2. Table2 has Table1's PK (table1_id) as foreign key. Index on table1_id is clustered. The INSERT inserts a single row into table2 at a time. The SELCET joins the 2 tables. (it's a long query which might take up to 12 secs to run) According to my understanding (and experiments) the INSERT should acquire an IS lock on table1 to check referential integrity (which should not cause a deadlock). But, in this case it acquired an IX page lock The deadlock report: <deadlock-list> <deadlock victim="process968898"> <process-list> <process id="process8db1f8" taskpriority="0" logused="2424" waitresource="OBJECT: 5:789577851:0 " waittime="12390" ownerId="61831512" transactionname="user_transaction" lasttranstarted="2010-04-16T07:10:13.347" XDES="0x222a8250" lockMode="IX" schedulerid="1" kpid="3764" status="suspended" spid="52" sbid="0" ecid="0" priority="0" transcount="2" lastbatchstarted="2010-04-16T07:10:13.350" lastbatchcompleted="2010-04-16T07:10:13.347" clientapp=".Net SqlClient Data Provider" hostname="VIDEV01-B-ME" hostpid="3040" loginname="DatabaseName" isolationlevel="read uncommitted (1)" xactid="61831512" currentdb="5" lockTimeout="4294967295" clientoption1="671088672" clientoption2="128056"> <executionStack> <frame procname="DatabaseName.dbo.prcTable2_Insert" line="18" stmtstart="576" stmtend="1148" sqlhandle="0x0300050079e62d06e9307f000b9d00000100000000000000"> INSERT INTO dbo.Table2 ( f1, table1_id, f2 ) VALUES ( @p1, @p_DocumentVersionID, @p1 ) </frame> </executionStack> <inputbuf> Proc [Database Id = 5 Object Id = 103671417] </inputbuf> </process> <process id="process968898" taskpriority="0" logused="0" waitresource="PAGE: 5:1:46510" waittime="7625" ownerId="61831406" transactionname="INSERT" lasttranstarted="2010-04-16T07:10:12.717" XDES="0x418ec00" lockMode="S" schedulerid="2" kpid="1724" status="suspended" spid="53" sbid="0" ecid="0" priority="0" transcount="2" lastbatchstarted="2010-04-16T07:10:12.713" lastbatchcompleted="2010-04-16T07:10:12.713" clientapp=".Net SqlClient Data Provider" hostname="VIDEV01-B-ME" hostpid="3040" loginname="DatabaseName" isolationlevel="read committed (2)" xactid="61831406" currentdb="5" lockTimeout="4294967295" clientoption1="671088672" clientoption2="128056"> <executionStack> <frame procname="DatabaseName.dbo.prcGetList" line="64" stmtstart="3548" stmtend="11570" sqlhandle="0x03000500dbcec17e8d267f000b9d00000100000000000000"> <!-- XXXXXXXXXXXXXX...SELECT STATEMENT WITH Multiple joins including both Table2 table 1 and .... XXXXXXXXXXXXXXX --> </frame> </executionStack> <inputbuf> Proc [Database Id = 5 Object Id = 2126630619] </inputbuf> </process> </process-list> <resource-list> <pagelock fileid="1" pageid="46510" dbid="5" objectname="DatabaseName.dbo.table1" id="lock6236bc0" mode="IX" associatedObjectId="72057594042908672"> <owner-list> <owner id="process8db1f8" mode="IX"/> </owner-list> <waiter-list> <waiter id="process968898" mode="S" requestType="wait"/> </waiter-list> </pagelock> <objectlock lockPartition="0" objid="789577851" subresource="FULL" dbid="5" objectname="DatabaseName.dbo.Table2" id="lock970a240" mode="S" associatedObjectId="789577851"> <owner-list> <owner id="process968898" mode="S"/> </owner-list> <waiter-list> <waiter id="process8db1f8" mode="IX" requestType="wait"/> </waiter-list> </objectlock> </resource-list> </deadlock> </deadlock-list> Can anyone explain why the INSERT gets the IX page lock ? Am I not reading the deadlock report properly? BTW, I have not managed to reproduce this issue. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522  | Next Page >