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  • How can I create a new Person object correctly in Javascript?

    - by TimDog
    I'm still struggling with this concept. I have two different Person objects, very simply: ;Person1 = (function() { function P (fname, lname) { P.FirstName = fname; P.LastName = lname; return P; } P.FirstName = ''; P.LastName = ''; var prName = 'private'; P.showPrivate = function() { alert(prName); }; return P; })(); ;Person2 = (function() { var prName = 'private'; this.FirstName = ''; this.LastName = ''; this.showPrivate = function() { alert(prName); }; return function(fname, lname) { this.FirstName = fname; this.LastName = lname; } })(); And let's say I invoke them like this: var s = new Array(); //Person1 s.push(new Person1("sal", "smith")); s.push(new Person1("bill", "wonk")); alert(s[0].FirstName); alert(s[1].FirstName); s[1].showPrivate(); //Person2 s.push(new Person2("sal", "smith")); s.push(new Person2("bill", "wonk")); alert(s[2].FirstName); alert(s[3].FirstName); s[3].showPrivate(); The Person1 set alerts "bill" twice, then alerts "private" once -- so it recognizes the showPrivate function, but the local FirstName variable gets overwritten. The second Person2 set alerts "sal", then "bill", but it fails when the showPrivate function is called. The new keyword here works as I'd expect, but showPrivate (which I thought was a publicly exposed function within the closure) is apparently not public. I want to get my object to have distinct copies of all local variables and also expose public methods -- I've been studying closures quite a bit, but I'm still confused on this one. Thanks for your help.

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  • Obtaining Current Fiscal Year from Hierarchy with MDX

    - by Robert Iver
    I'm building a report in Reporting Services 2005 based on a SSAS 2005 cube. The basic idea of the report is that they want to see sales for this fiscal year to date vs. last year sales year to date. It sounds simple, but being that this is my first "real" report based on SSAS, I'm having a hell of a time. First, how would one calculate the current fiscal year, quarter, or month. I have a Fiscal Date Hierarchy with all that information in it, but I can't figure out how to say: "Based on today's date, find the current fiscal year, quarter, and month." My second, but slightly smaller problem, is getting last years sales vs. this years sales. I have seen MANY examples on how to do this, but they all assume that you select the date manually. Since this is a report and will run pretty much on it's own, I need a way to insert the "current" fiscal year, quarter, and month into the PERIODSTODATE or PARALLELPERIOD functions to get what I want. So, I'm begging for your help on this one. I have to have this report done by tomorrow monring and I'm beginning to freak out a bit. Thanks in advance.

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  • SQL Server search filter and order by performance issues

    - by John Leidegren
    We have a table value function that returns a list of people you may access, and we have a relation between a search and a person called search result. What we want to do is that wan't to select all people from the search and present them. The query looks like this SELECT qm.PersonID, p.FullName FROM QueryMembership qm INNER JOIN dbo.GetPersonAccess(1) ON GetPersonAccess.PersonID = qm.PersonID INNER JOIN Person p ON p.PersonID = qm.PersonID WHERE qm.QueryID = 1234 There are only 25 rows with QueryID=1234 but there are almost 5 million rows total in the QueryMembership table. The person table has about 40K people in it. QueryID is not a PK, but it is an index. The query plan tells me 97% of the total cost is spent doing "Key Lookup" witht the seek predicate. QueryMembershipID = Scalar Operator (QueryMembership.QueryMembershipID as QM.QueryMembershipID) Why is the PK in there when it's not used in the query at all? and why is it taking so long time? The number of people total 25, with the index, this should be a table scan for all the QueryMembership rows that have QueryID=1234 and then a JOIN on the 25 people that exists in the table value function. Which btw only have to be evaluated once and completes in less than 1 second.

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  • Fetching Core Data for Tableview on iPhone - Tutorial leaves me with crashes when adding items to a

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    Been following the Core Data tutorial on Apple's developer site, and all is good until I have to add something to the fetched store. I am getting this error after a successful build and load when I try to add a new item to the list: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (0) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (0), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (1 inserted, 0 deleted). Due to the fact that the fetch goes through fine, and that if I replace the fetching with eventList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init] it works as expected (without persistance, of course), I am led to believe that the problem comes from not creating the Mutable Array correctly. Here's the problematic part of the code: NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Event" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"creationDate" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; NSError *error; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; if (mutableFetchResults = nil) { //Handle the error } [self setEventList:mutableFetchResults]; [mutableFetchResults release]; [request release]; I have tried switching the NSArrays in the second chunk out with NSMutableArrays, but I still get the same error. For reference, the section of code that is throwing the error when I try adding an entry is here: [eventList insertObject:event atIndex:0]; NSIndexPath *indexPath = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; [self.tableView scrollToRowAtIndexPath:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0] atScrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionTop animated:YES]; it errors out at the insertRowsAtIndexPaths call. Thanks in advance for any help

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  • JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

    - by Steve Armstrong
    I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

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  • Important question about linq to SQL performance on high loaded web applications

    - by Alex
    I started working with linq to SQL several weeks ago. I got really tired of working with SQL server directly through the SQL queries (sqldatareader, sqlcommand and all this good stuff).  After hearing about linq to SQL and mvc I quickly moved all my projects to these technologies. I expected linq to SQL work slower but it suprisongly turned out to be pretty fast, primarily because I always forgot to close my connections when using datareaders. Now I don't have to worry about it. But there's one problem that really bothers me. There's one page that's requested thousands of times a day. The system gets data in the beginning, works with it and updates it. Primarily the updates are ++ @ -- (increase and decrease values). I used to do it like this UPDATE table SET value=value+1 WHERE ID=@I'd It worked with no problems obviously. But with linq to SQL the data is taken in the beginning, moved to the class, changed and then saved. Stats.registeredusers++; Db.submitchanges(); Let's say there were 100 000 users. Linq will say "let it be 100 001" instead of "let it be increased by 1". But if there value of users has already been increased (that happens in my site all the time) then linq will be like oops, this value is already 100 001. Whatever I'll throw an exception" You can change this behavior so that it won't throw an exception but it still will not set the value to 100 002. Like I said, it happened with me all the time. The stas value was increased twice a second on average. I simply had to rewrite this chunk of code with classic ado net. So my question is how can you solve the problem with linq

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  • Design problem with callback functions in android

    - by Franz Xaver
    Hi folks! I'm currently developing an app in android that is accessing wifi values, that is, the application needs to scan for all access point and their specific signal strengths. I know that I have to extend the class BroadcastReceiver overwriting the method BroadcastReceiver.onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) which is called when the values are ready. Perhaps there exist solutions provided by the android system itself but I'm relatively new to android so I could need some help. The problem I encountered is that I got one class (an activity, thus controlled by the user) that needs this scan results for two different things (first to save the values in a database or second, to use them for further calculations but not both at one moment!) So how to design the callback system in order to "transport" the scan results from onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) to the operation intended by the user? My first solution was to define enums for each use case (save or use for calculations) which wlan-interested classes have to submit when querying for the values. But that would force the BroadcastReceiverextending class to save the current enum and use it as a parameter in the callback function of the querying class (this querying class needs to know what it asked for when getting backcalled) But that seems to me kind of dirty ;) So anyone a good idea for this?

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  • Adding a date every few days

    - by Luke
    I have some code that generates fixtures, I am looking to add a fixture date to the code. $totalRounds = $teams - 1; $matchesPerRound = $teams / 2; $rounds = array(); for ($i = 0; $i < $totalRounds; $i++) { $rounds[$i] = array(); } for ($round = 0; $round < $totalRounds; $round++) { for ($match = 0; $match < $matchesPerRound; $match++) { $home = ($round + $match) % ($teams - 1); $away = ($teams - 1 - $match + $round) % ($teams - 1); // Last team stays in the same place while the others // rotate around it. if ($match == 0) { $away = $teams - 1; } $rounds[$round][$match] = "$user[$home]~$team[$home]@$user[$away]~$team[$away]"; } } $team is the amount of teams in the league. I want to add a variable for every 4 days, and for every round of fixtures generated, I want to add 4 days onto the previous round. For example, if today is 3rd may, i want 3rd may for first fixture, 7th may for second fixture, 11th may for third fixture. By fixture i mean round which includes a set of fixtures!

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  • How can I control the width of JTextFields in Java Swing?

    - by Jonas
    I am trying to have several JTextFields on a single row, but I don't want them to have the same width. How can I control the width and make some of them wider than others? I want that they together take up 100% of the total width, so it would be good if I could use some kind of weigthing. I have tried with .setColumns() but it doesn't make sense. Here is my code: class Row extends JComponent { public Row() { this.setLayout(new BoxLayout(this, BoxLayout.X_AXIS)); JTextField fld1 = new JTextField("First field"); JTextField fld2 = new JTextField("Second field, should be longer"); JTextField fld3 = new JTextField("Short field"); JTextField fld4 = new JTextField("Another field"); fld1.setBorder(null); fld2.setBorder(null); fld3.setBorder(null); fld4.setBorder(null); fld1.setFocusable(false); fld2.setFocusable(false); fld3.setFocusable(false); fld4.setFocusable(false); fld1.setColumns(5); // makes no sense this.add(fld1); this.add(fld2); this.add(fld3); this.add(fld4); } } this.setLayout(new GridLayout(20,0)); this.add(new Row()); this.add(new Row()); this.add(new Row());

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  • How do I populate these fields from existing data?

    - by dmanexe
    I'm not sure how to make a few parts of my form to populate from data from an array I'm passing from the database. First is this <select> object. The key estimate_lead_id in the database holds the value, and I want the dropdown to auto-select based on the value from the database. <select name="estimate_lead_id"> <? foreach($leads->result() as $lead) { ?> <option value="<?=$lead->id?>"><?=$lead->lead_name?></option> <? } ?> </select> Second (this is a little more complex), I have created a script that loops through and gets all of the items from each respective category. What I can't get it to do though is loop through these items and only display the items in the estimate, and then fill the fields with the respective values from the database. <?php foreach ($items['items_poolconcretedecking']->result() as $item) { ?> <input type="checkbox" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][checkmark]" value="<?=$item->id?>"> <input class="item_mult" value="" type="text" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][quantity]" /> <?php } ?>

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  • Custom Jquery slideshow doesn't want to reset?

    - by Jared
    Hello, Under $(document).ready(function(), I have the following code: num = $("#mainContentCategoryLinksWrapper > div").size(); This makes num equal the length of the children of #mainContentCategoryLinksWrapper. Currently, this equals 4. Above the $(document).ready(function( I have this: var timesRun = 0; function slideshow(){ if(timesRun < num){ $(".arrowIn").stop().animate({color: "#a12324", textIndent: "30px", backgroundPosition: '0px 0px'}, 100, function(){ //the first child in the series has a class of "arrowIn" $(".arrowIn").next().addClass("replaceMe"); //Adds the ".replaceMe" placeholder the the next element. $(".arrowIn").removeClass("arrowIn"); //Deletes the class on the current element $(".replaceMe").addClass("arrowIn").removeClass("replaceMe"); //reassigns ".arrowIn" over ".replaceMe" timesRun = timesRun + 1; //increases number of times run }).prev().animate({color: "#000000", textIndent: "25px", backgroundPosition: '0px -25px'}, {duration: 50}); //puts the previous element back to it's original position }else{ timesRun = 0; $(".arrowIn").removeClass("arrowIn"); $("#mainContentCategoryLinksWrapper:first-child").addClass("arrowIn"); //this is supposed to reset timesRun, and set the first child in the series back to the original ".arrowIn" } } setInterval( 'slideshow()', 1000 ); So here is the what the code does: 1) Animates the first in the series of 4 (#1) timesRun = 1 2) Animates the second in the series of 4 (#2) timesRun = 2 3) Animates the third in the series of 4 (#3) timesRun = 3 4) Animates the fourth in the series of 4 (#4) timesRun = 4 5) timesRun is now longer less than num. Reset class names back to original to .arrowIn, set timesRun to 0. However, when the slideshow() is reexectuted, it doesn't start over. Any ideas? See www.raceramps.com/v3 for an example.

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  • How can I get bitfields to arrange my bits in the right order?

    - by Jim Hunziker
    To begin with, the application in question is always going to be on the same processor, and the compiler is always gcc, so I'm not concerned about bitfields not being portable. gcc lays out bitfields such that the first listed field corresponds to least significant bit of a byte. So the following structure, with a=0, b=1, c=1, d=1, you get a byte of value e0. struct Bits { unsigned int a:5; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); (Actually, this is C++, so I'm talking about g++.) Now let's say I'd like a to be a six bit integer. Now, I can see why this won't work, but I coded the following structure: struct Bits2 { unsigned int a:6; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); Setting b, c, and d to 1, and a to 0 results in the following two bytes: c0 01 This isn't what I wanted. I was hoping to see this: e0 00 Is there any way to specify a structure that has three bits in the most significant bits of the first byte and six bits spanning the five least significant bits of the first byte and the most significant bit of the second? Please be aware that I have no control over where these bits are supposed to be laid out: it's a layout of bits that are defined by someone else's interface.

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  • Django FormWizard with dynamic forms

    - by krys
    I want to implement a simple 2 part FormWizard. Form 1 will by dynamically generated something like this: class BuyAppleForm(forms.Form): creditcard = forms.ChoiceField(widget = forms.RadioSelect) type = forms.ChoiceField(widget = forms.RadioSelect) def __init__(self,*args, **kwargs): user = kwargs['user'] del kwargs['user'] super(BuyAppleForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) credit_cards = get_credit_cards(user) self.fields['creditcard'].choices = [(card.id,str(card)) for card in credit_cards] apple_types= get_types_packages() self.fields['type'].choices = [(type.id,str(type)) for type in apple_types] This will dynamically create a form with lists of available choices. My second form, I actually want no input. I just want to display a confirmation screen containing the credit card info, apple info, and money amounts (total, tax, shipping). Once user clicks OK, I want the apple purchase to commence. I was able to implement the single form way by passing in the request.user object in the kwargs. However, with the FormWizard, I cannot figure this out. Am I approaching the problem wrong and is the FormWizard not the proper way to do this? If it is, how can the Form __init__ method access the user object from the HTTP request?

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  • PHPUnit reporting "Aborted" no matter what tests are run

    - by GrumpyCanuck
    Having a weird problem with PHPUnit. We're using PHPUnit as part of a continuous integration environment, that contains one app written using Zend Framework and one app written using CodeIgniter. Unit tests run just fine under Zend Framework, but whenever I run the tests for CodeIgniter using fooStack's CIUnit bridge, I always get the same problem at the end: PHPUnit 3.4.14 by Sebastian Bergmann. ............... . Time: 1 second, Memory: 7.00Mb OK (16 tests, 14 assertions) Aborted First off, I do not know what those empty spaces between the . means. Secondly, no matter what test I run (all of them or each one separately) I get the same Aborted message at the very end. The tests themselves do not contain any exit or die statements. When I run the same version of PHPUnit on my laptop (running OS-X Snow Leopard and same version of Zend Server Community Edition) I do not get that aborted message. Running PHP 5.3.2 on Ubuntu installed using Zend Server Community Edition. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Dynamically populated NSPopUpButtonCell menu in an NSOutlineView

    - by Mo
    I’m working with an NSOutlineView which has two columns. My dataSource supplies the outline view with a tree of items of a custom class which represents file types (that is, you initialise it with a UTI). The first column is the display name of the file type (e.g., “Source code”, “Interface Builder NIB document”, etc.). The second column is an NSPopUpButtonCell which is supposed to allow the user to pick a handler for the given document type (think of Xcode’s “File Types” preference pane, and you’re pretty much there). I can generate an NSMenu for a given item in the tree, populated with options based upon the Launch Services database entries for the UTI, complete with the relevant application icon and and so on. In fact, the menu itself works wonderfully, populated by way of NSPopUpButtonCellWillPopUpNotification. The problem is, try as I might, the cell when the menu isn’t popped up always contains precisely one of two things: either an empty string, or the default text for the cell, the former if the result of -handlerName on the item (the attribute assigned to the column) is non-nil, the latter otherwise. Moreover, I’m manually calling -selectItem: on the NSPopUpButtonCell instance, which just seems Wrong. In contrast, the left-hand column, which is just an NSTextFieldCell, everything just works (although granted, all it’s got to do is read the value from the item and present it). (Disclaimer: I’m fairly new at Cocoa UI stuff; I know Objective-C, and lots of other programming languages, but I’ve not a huge amount of experience of building Mac OS X UIs, so be gentle).

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  • MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

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  • How do I browse a Websphere MQ message without removing it?

    - by jmgant
    I'm writing a .NET Windows Forms application that will post a message to a Websphere MQ queue and then poll a different queue for a response. If a response is returned, the application will partially process the response in real time. But the response needs to stay in the queue so that a daily batch job, which also reads from the response queue, can do the rest of the processing. I've gotten as far as reading the message. What I haven't been able to figure out is how to read it without removing it. Here's what I've got so far. I'm an MQ newbie, so any suggestions will be appreciated. And feel free to respond in C#. Public Function GetMessage(ByVal msgID As String) As MQMessage Dim q = ConnectToResponseQueue() Dim msg As New MQMessage() Dim getOpts As New MQGetMessageOptions() Dim runThru = Now.AddMilliseconds(CInt(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("responseTimeoutMS"))) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) 'Wait for one second before checking for the first response' While True Try q.Get(msg, getOpts) Return msg Catch ex As MQException When ex.Reason = MQC.MQRC_NO_MSG_AVAILABLE If Now > runThru Then Throw ex System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(3000) Finally q.Close() End Try End While Return Nothing 'Should never reach here' End Function NOTE: I haven't verified that my code actually removes the message. But that's how I understand MQ to work, and that appears to be what's happening. Please correct me if that's not the default behavior.

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  • System.InvalidOperationException with SQlBulkCopy

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I got the following error when executing bulkcopy. System.InvalidOperationException The given value of type String from the data source cannot be converted to type decimal of the specified target column. I use the following code. DataTable empTable = DataTemplate.GetEmployees(); DataRow row; for (int i = 0; i < gv.Rows.Count;i++ ) { row = empTable.NewRow(); string empName = gv.DataKeys[i].Values[0].ToString(); //first key string hourSalary = gv.DataKeys[i].Values[1].ToString(); //second key row["Emp_Name"] = empName; row["Hour_Salary"] = Convert.ToDecimal(hourSalary); row["Advance_amount"] = Convert.ToDecimal(0); row["Created_Date"] = Convert.ToDateTime(System.DateTime.Now.ToString()); row["Created_By"] = Convert.ToInt64(1); row["Is_Deleted"] = Convert.ToInt64(0); empTable.Rows.Add(row); } InsertintoEmployees(empTable, "Employee"); My SQL datatypes for the above fields are: Emp_Name nvarchar(50) , Hour_Salary numeric(18, 2), Advance_amount numeric(18, 2), Created_Date datetime, Created_By numeric(18, 0), Is_Deleted numeric(18, 0) I don't know what I am doing wrong.

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  • php - replace array elements with another array's elements?

    - by Simpson88Keys
    Not sure how to go about this... But, I have two arrays, one with updated information, another with outdated information... There are a lot more elements in the second array, but I'm looking to "update" the outdated one with the updated information. Here's what the arrays look like: //Outdated Array ( [0] => Array ( [anum] => 3236468462 [cid] => 4899097762 [mid] => 1104881401 [na_title] => [na_fname] => JOHN [m_initial] => [na_lname] => DOE [na_suffix] => [na_addr1] => 1234 SAMPLE AVENUE [na_addr2] => [na_city] => NORWALK [state] => OH [zip] => [zip_plus_4] => [route] => R002 [dma_code] => 510334 ) ) //Updated Array ( [1] => Array ( [0] => YUD990 [1] => 98 [2] => 1234 Sample Avenue [3] => [4] => Norwalk [5] => OH [6] => 44857-9215 [7] => 3236468462 ) ) To clarify, I want to: (1) Match up the value for [7] from the updated array with the value for [anum] in the outdated array, and then update [na_addr1], [na_addr2], [na_city], [state], [zip], [zip_plus_4] in the outdated array with the values for [2],[3],[4],[5],[6] (I know I'll need to split the updated [6] in order to get it to map corrected to the outdated) Feel like I'm making this very confusing... sorry about that...

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  • How to position an element next to another an element of undefined position?

    - by allin
    Hi, I am very new to html/xml/css and I'm trying my best to teach myself. However, I have run into a problem that a Google search could not solve. I would like to position a small image in a fixed location relative to another element(?) I believe this is the code of the element i want to position the second element relative to. #wrap { width:550px; background-color:#fff; margin:0 auto; padding:0; border-right:1px solid #ccc; border-left:1px solid #ccc; } #container { width: 500px; margin:0 auto; padding: 25px; font-size:.85em; background-color: #fff; } and this is partial code I'm trying to edit to position .xyz to the right of "#wrap" .xyz { position: ???; top: 200px; right: ???; _position: ???; _margin: ???; _text-align: right; z-index: 1337; } my search of SOF has lead me to believe i'm supposed to do something along the lines of this - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/104953/position-an-html-element-relative-to-its-container-using-css - but i haven't been able to. I greatly appreciate any help you may offer. Hopefully I've explained my problem properly.

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  • I installed XAMPP in a virtual drive and now I can't run its services. Why?

    - by Haris
    Hi, The description is quite long. Please spend some time to read it. ^:)^ I have an old PHP application and I'm trying to test and debug it. Unfortunately, the application uses important data so I can't just click this and that. Now, what I'm trying to do is create a copy of the application in a different computer. From now on, I will call the computer running my original PHP application as 'Computer A' and the computer which I'm going to use to run the copy of the application as 'Computer B'. To prevent missing link problems since the application contains static paths, such in images or tags, I have to copy all files and folder related to my PHP application from Computer A to the same path in Computer B. Unfortunately, Computer B only has drive C while Computer A has drive D and the files of my PHP application is located in 'D:\xampp\htdocs' in Computer A. OK, now I have to create drive D in computer B. At first, I tried to create a second partition in Computer B by using PowerQuest Partition Magic 8, but somehow Partition Magic doesn't run in Computer B. I have tried to reinstall it but it still doesn't run. So, another alternative is to create a virtual drive. That is what I did. I created a virtual drive by running the 'subst' command in Command Prompt. The virtual drive is D and it refers to a directory, which is 'C:\Virtual'. After I have drive D in Computer B, I installed XAMPP there. The installation was successful. Now, I also have 'D:\xampp\htdocs' in Computer B. However, when I ran the Apache, MySQL, or Filezilla service, I receive an error message "Error 3: The system cannot find the file specified.". In Computer B, there is no IIS or process using the port 80. What should I do? Please help me. Many thanks in advance, Haris

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  • How to generate an ear file from a maven-archetype-webapp artifact?

    - by Mike
    I currently have a project built with maven-archetype-webapp artifact. The default packaging for this project is war. Is it possible for me to insert the maven-ear-plugin in this webapp pom.xml generate an ear file that contains this project war? I tried that, but the war file doesn't get embedded in the generated ear file. It has everything except the war file. I read many Maven related articles, and perhaps I could use maven-archetype-j2ee-simple artifact. However, I'm reluctant to this use for 2 reasons:- This artifact handles ejbs and all the extra features that I don't use. It makes my project looks bloated. Second, it seems like it requires me to install the web module into the repository first before I can create the ear file. Is this the preferred way to create an ear file? How do I create an ear file that contains the war file using maven-ear-plugin from my webapp's pom.xml? If this way is not possible, what's the preferred way? I'm sorry if my questions sound a little novice, I realized I have whole lot more to learn about Maven. Thanks much.

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  • Retrieving dll version info via Win32 - VerQueryValue(...) crashes under Win7 x64

    - by user256890
    The respected open source .NET wrapper implementation (SharpBITS) of Windows BITS services fails identifying the underlying BITS version under Win7 x64. Here is the source code that fails. NativeMethods are native Win32 calls wrapped by .NET methods and decorated via DllImport attribute. private static BitsVersion GetBitsVersion() { try { string fileName = Path.Combine( System.Environment.SystemDirectory, "qmgr.dll"); int handle = 0; int size = NativeMethods.GetFileVersionInfoSize(fileName, out handle); if (size == 0) return BitsVersion.Bits0_0; byte[] buffer = new byte[size]; if (!NativeMethods.GetFileVersionInfo(fileName, handle, size, buffer)) { return BitsVersion.Bits0_0; } IntPtr subBlock = IntPtr.Zero; uint len = 0; if (!NativeMethods.VerQueryValue(buffer, @"\VarFileInfo\Translation", out subBlock, out len)) { return BitsVersion.Bits0_0; } int block1 = Marshal.ReadInt16(subBlock); int block2 = Marshal.ReadInt16((IntPtr)((int)subBlock + 2 )); string spv = string.Format( @"\StringFileInfo\{0:X4}{1:X4}\ProductVersion", block1, block2); string versionInfo; if (!NativeMethods.VerQueryValue(buffer, spv, out versionInfo, out len)) { return BitsVersion.Bits0_0; } ... The implementation follows the MSDN instructions by the letter. Still during the second VerQueryValue(...) call, the application crashes and kills the debug session without hesitation. Just a little more debug info right before the crash: spv = "\StringFileInfo\040904B0\ProductVersion" buffer = byte[1900] - full with binary data block1 = 1033 block2 = 1200 I looked at the targeted "C:\Windows\System32\qmgr.dll" file (The implementation of BITS) via Windows. It says that the Product Version is 7.5.7600.16385. Instead of crashing, this value should return in the verionInfo string. Any advice?

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  • Stack usage with MMX intrinsics and Microsoft C++

    - by arik-funke
    I have an inline assembler loop that cumulatively adds elements from an int32 data array with MMX instructions. In particular, it uses the fact that the MMX registers can accommodate 16 int32s to calculate 16 different cumulative sums in parallel. I would now like to convert this piece of code to MMX intrinsics but I am afraid that I will suffer a performance penalty because one cannot explicitly intruct the compiler to use the 8 MMX registers to accomulate 16 independent sums. Can anybody comment on this and maybe propose a solution on how to convert the piece of code below to use intrinsics? == inline assembler (only part within the loop) == paddd mm0, [esi+edx+8*0] ; add first & second pair of int32 elements paddd mm1, [esi+edx+8*1] ; add third & fourth pair of int32 elements ... paddd mm2, [esi+edx+8*2] paddd mm3, [esi+edx+8*3] paddd mm4, [esi+edx+8*4] paddd mm5, [esi+edx+8*5] paddd mm6, [esi+edx+8*6] paddd mm7, [esi+edx+8*7] ; add 15th & 16th pair of int32 elements esi points to the beginning of the data array edx provides the offset in the data array for the current loop iteration the data array is arranged such that the elements for the 16 independent sums are interleaved.

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  • Java problem with multiple threads when executing a runnable jar file

    - by Spi1988
    I have developed a Java Swing application, which uses the SwingWorker class to perform some long running tasks. When the application is run from the IDE (Netbeans), I can start multiple long running tasks simultaneously without any problem. I created a runnable jar file for the application, in order to be able to run it from outside the IDE. The application when run from this jar file works well with the only exception that it doesn't allow me to start 2 long running tasks simultaneously. When I start the first task (assume it takes 2 minitues to complete), every thing works fine, the UI does not freeze (it never freezes). However, when I try to run another task (assume it takes just 10 seconds, therefore it should finish before the first task) while the first task has not yet completed, nothing seems to happen. In reality, the second task would have started, and also finished its processing, however its results are only displayed once the first task completes. I dunno why this is happening. Is there some restriction on the number of threads which could run simultaneously on the JVM? Are there any jvm arguments which i could try to solve this problem. I hope i explained my problem well. Thanks in advance, Peter Bartolo

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