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• Cannot import the following keyfile: blah.pfx. The keyfile may be password protected.

  - by JasonD

  We just upgraded our Visual Studio 2008 projects to VS2010. All of our assemblies were strong signed using a Verisign code signing certificate. Since the upgrade we continuously get the following error: Cannot import the following key file: companyname.pfx. The key file may be password protected. To correct this, try to import the certificate again or manually install the certificate to the Strong Name CSP with the following key container name: VS_KEY_3E185446540E7F7A This happens on some developer machines and not others. Some methods used to fix this that worked some of the time include: re-installing the key file from Windows Explorer (right click on the PFX file and click Install) installing VS2010 on a fresh machine for the first time prompts you for the password the first time you open the project, and then it works. On machines upgraded from VS2008, you don't get this option. I've tried using the SN.EXE utility to register the key with the Strong Name CSP as the error message suggests, but whenever I run the tool with any options using the version that came with VS2010, SN.EXE just lists its command line arguments instead of doing anything. This happens regardless of what arguments I supply. Does anyone know WHY this is happening, and have clear steps to fix it? I'm about to give up on Click Once installs and Microsoft Code Signing. Thanks for any help!

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• XCode Build Parse Error 'Unexpected @ in Program'

  - by Grymjack

  I'm following a tutorial for creating an animation using Xcode Version 4.5.2 in Mountain Lion 10.8.2. When trying to build the code below, I get a Parse Error Unexpected '@' in program showing up for the 'hopAnimation=' line. While searching, I have found examples that build simple animations in a different way, but nothing that seems to address this particular problem. I'm a noob to XCode programming and if anyone could help me correct the syntax, I would highly appreciate it. I would also like to thank all the contributors to stackflow for making this such a valuable resource. Searching for the answers to most of my prior questions always seemed to have you guys at the top of the results list. ViewController.m - (void)viewDidLoad { // load all the frames of our animation into an array NSArray *hopAnimation; hopAnimation=[[NSArray alloc] arrayWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-1.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-2.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-3.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-4.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-5.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-6.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-7.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-8.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-9.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-10.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-11.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-12.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-13.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-14.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-15.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-16.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-17.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-18.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-19.png”], [UIImage imageNamed:@”frame-20.png”],nil]; self.bunnyView1.animationImages=hopAnimation; self.bunnyView2.animationImages=hopAnimation; self.bunnyView3.animationImages=hopAnimation; self.bunnyView4.animationImages=hopAnimation; self.bunnyView5.animationImages=hopAnimation; self.bunnyView1.animationDuration=1; self.bunnyView2.animationDuration=1; self.bunnyView3.animationDuration=1; self.bunnyView4.animationDuration=1; self.bunnyView5.animationDuration=1; [super viewDidLoad]; }

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• post xml to Spring REST server returns Unsupported Media Type

  - by Mayra

  I'm trying to create a simple spring based webservice that supports a "post" with xml content. In spring, I define an AnnotationMethodHandler: <bean id="inboundMessageAdapter" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"> <property name="messageConverters"> <util:list> <bean class="org.springframework.http.converter.xml.MarshallingHttpMessageConverter"> <property name="marshaller" ref="xmlMarshaller"/> <property name="unmarshaller" ref="xmlMarshaller"/> </bean> </util:list> </property> </bean> And a jaxb based xml marshaller: <bean id="xmlMarshaller" class="org.springframework.oxm.jaxb.Jaxb2Marshaller"> <property name="contextPaths"> <array> <value>com.company.schema</value> </array> </property> <property name="schemas"> <array> <value>classpath:core.xsd</value> </array> </property> </bean> My controller is annotated as follows, where "Resource" is a class autogenerated by jaxb: @RequestMapping(method = POST, value = "/resource") public Resource createResource(@RequestBody Resource resource) { // do work } The result of a webservice call is always "HTTP/1.1 415 Unsupported Media Type". Here is an example service call: HttpPost post = new HttpPost(uri); post.addHeader("Accept", "application/xml"); post.addHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); StringEntity entity = new StringEntity(request, "UTF-8"); entity.setContentType("application/xml"); post.setEntity(entity); It seems to me that I am setting the correct media type everywhere possible. Anyone have an ideas?

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• Deleting file with SharePoint List web service fails

  - by Robert MacLean

  I am trying to delete a file from SharePoint using the list web service which is failing with the following error. Error Code: 0x81020030 Message: Invalid file name Detail: The file name you specified could not be used. It may be the name of an existing file or directory, or you may not have permission to access the file. The update XML I sent through is: <Batch OnError="Continue" PreCalc="TRUE" ListVersion="0" ViewName="{8FE4E2C8-939E-4462-ABA2-D633EED7F76E}"><Method ID="1" Cmd="Delete"><Field Name="ID">84</Field><Field Name="FileRef">http://win-4h0xp59sn75:40414/Shared%20Documents/del.txt</Field></Method></Batch> The SharePoint server error logs indicate: ERROR: Failed to OpenThreadToken, LastError=1008 The file you are attempting to save or retrieve has been blocked from this Web site by the server administrators. Things I have tried I've tried the changes in #1372971 which has no helped. I have also tried the changes recommended on the Microsoft Social site, which has also not helped. I have confirmed that the txt file extension is not blocked as indicated here. In addition I can remove the file via the website, it is just on the web service that this fails. The permissions are correct (or rather not in play) as I am running as a SharePoint administrator, which is the same account that uploaded it via the copy web service.

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• Exception "The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction" using TransactionScope

  - by Lanfear

  We have a web service on server #1 and a database on server #2. Web service uses transaction scope to produce distributed transaction. Everything is correct. And we have another database on server #3. We had some problems with this server and we reinstalled operation system and software. We configured MSDTC and tried to use web service from server #1 to communicate with database on this server. And now after first select statement within transaction scope we get: "The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction". This exception falls in every web service request if it is using transaction scope. Server #2 and Server #3 is almost similar. The difference can be only in settings. .NET framework 3.5 SP1 installed and SQL Server SP3 on all servers. Full stacktrace: System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) ? System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction t ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction t ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() ? NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider.GetConnection() ? NHibernate.Impl.SessionFactoryImpl.OpenConnection() I searched this message but didn't found any appropriate solution. So what settings should I check and what exactly should I do to fix it?

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• Detect blocked popup in Chrome

  - by Andrew

  I am aware of javascript techniques to detect whether a popup is blocked in other browsers (as described in the answer to this question). Here's the basic test: var newWin = window.open(url); if(!newWin || newWin.closed || typeof newWin.closed=='undefined') { //POPUP BLOCKED } But this does not work in Chrome. The "POPUP BLOCKED" section is never reached when the popup is blocked. Of course, the test is working to an extent since Chrome doesn't actually block the popup, but opens it in a tiny minimized window at the lower right corner which lists "blocked" popups. What I would like to do is be able to tell if the popup was blocked by Chrome's popup blocker. I try to avoid browser sniffing in favor of feature detection. Is there a way to do this without browser sniffing? Edit: I have now tried making use of newWin.outerHeight, newWin.left, and other similar properties to accomplish this. Google Chrome returns all position and height values as 0 when the popup is blocked. Unfortunately, it also returns the same values even if the popup is actually opened for an unknown amount of time. After some magical period (a couple of seconds in my testing), the location and size information is returned as the correct values. In other words, I'm still no closer to figuring this out. Any help would be appreciated.

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• Binding Image.Source to String in WPF ?

  - by Mohammad

  I have below XAML code : <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}}" WindowStartupLocation="CenterScreen" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <Image x:Name="TestImage" Source="{Binding Path=ImageSource}" /> </Grid> </Window> Also, there is a method that makes an Image from a Base64 string : Image Base64StringToImage(string base64ImageString) { try { byte[] b; b = Convert.FromBase64String(base64ImageString); MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream(b); System.Drawing.Image img = System.Drawing.Image.FromStream(ms); ////////////////////////////////////////////// //convert System.Drawing.Image to WPF image System.Drawing.Bitmap bmp = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(img); IntPtr hBitmap = bmp.GetHbitmap(); System.Windows.Media.ImageSource imageSource = System.Windows.Interop.Imaging.CreateBitmapSourceFromHBitmap(hBitmap, IntPtr.Zero, Int32Rect.Empty, BitmapSizeOptions.FromEmptyOptions()); Image wpfImage = new Image(); wpfImage.Source = imageSource; wpfImage.Width = wpfImage.Height = 16; ////////////////////////////////////////////// return wpfImage; } catch { Image img1 = new Image(); img1.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"/passwordManager;component/images/TreeView/empty-bookmark.png", UriKind.Relative)); img1.Width = img1.Height = 16; return img1; } } Now, I'm gonna bind TestImage to the output of Base64StringToImage method. I've used the following way : public string ImageSource { get; set; } ImageSource = Base64StringToImage("iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAABAAAAAQCAMAAAAoLQ9TAAAABGdBTUEAAK/INwWK6QAAABl0RVh0U29mdHdhcmUAQWRvYmUgSW1hZ2VSZWFkeXHJZTwAAABjUExURXK45////6fT8PX6/bTZ8onE643F7Pf7/pDH7PP5/dns+b7e9MPh9Xq86NHo947G7Hm76NTp+PL4/bHY8ojD67rc85bK7b3e9MTh9dLo97vd8/D3/Hy96Xe76Nfr+H+/6f///1bvXooAAAAhdFJOU///////////////////////////////////////////AJ/B0CEAAACHSURBVHjaXI/ZFoMgEEMzLCqg1q37Yv//KxvAlh7zMuQeyAS8d8I2z8PT/AMDShWQfCYJHL0FmlcXSQTGi7NNLSMwR2BQaXE1IfAguPFx5UQmeqwEHSfviz7w0BIMyU86khBDZ8DLfWHOGPJahe66MKe/fIupXKst1VXxW/VgT/3utz99BBgA4P0So6hyl+QAAAAASUVORK5CYIII").Source.ToString(); but nothing happen. How can I fix it ? BTW, I'm dead sure that the base64 string is correct

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• Using parameters in reports for VIsual Studio 2008

  - by Jim Thomas

  This is my first attempt to create a Visual Studio 2008 report using parameters. I have created the dataset and the report. If I run it with a hard-coded filter on a column the report runs fine. When I change the filter to '?' I keep getting this error: No overload for method 'Fill' takes '1' argument Obviously I am missing some way to connect the parameter on the dataset to a report parameter. I have defined a report parameter using the Report/Report Parameter screen. But how does that report parameter get tied to the dataset table parameter? Is there a special naming convention for the parameter? I have Googled this a half dozen times and read the msdn documentation but the examples all seem to use a different approach (like creating a SQL query rather then a table based dataset) or entering the parameter name as "=Parameters!name.value" but I can't figure out where to do that. One msdn example suggestted I needed to create some C# code using a SetParameters() method to make the connection. Is that how it is done? If anyone can recommend a good walk-through I'd appreciate it. Edit: After more reading it appears I don't need report parameters at all. I am simply trying to add a parameter to the database query. So I would create a text box on the form, get the user's input, then apply that parameter programmatically to the fill() argument list. The report parameter on the other hand is an ad-hoc value generally entered by a user that you want to appear on the report. But there is no relationship between report parameters and query/dataset parameters. Is that correct?

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• Installing an exe with Powershell DSC Package resource gets return code 1619

  - by Jay Spang

  I'm trying to use Powershell DSC's Package resource to install an exe... Perforce's P4V to be specific. Here's my code: Configuration PerforceMachine { Node "SERVERNAME" { Package P4V { Ensure = "Present" Name = "Perforce Visual Components" Path = "\\nas\share\p4vinst64.exe" ProductId = '' Arguments = "/S /V/qn" # args for silent mode LogPath = "$env:ProgramData\p4v_install.log" } } } When running this, this is the error Powershell gives me: PowerShell provider MSFT_PackageResource failed to execute Set-TargetResource functionality with error message: The return code 1619 was not expected. Configuration is likely not correct + CategoryInfo : InvalidOperation: (:) [], CimException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : ProviderOperationExecutionFailure + PSComputerName : SERVERNAME According to documentation, return code 1619 means the MSI package couldn't be opened. However, when I manually log in to the machine and run "\\nas\share\p4vinst64.exe /S /V/qn", the install works flawlessly. Does anyone know why this is failing? Alternately, can anyone tell me how to troubleshoot this? I pasted all the error information I got from the terminal, my log file (p4v_install.log) is a 0 byte file, and there are no events in the event viewer. I don't know how to troubleshoot it any further! EDIT: I should note that I also tried using the File resource to copy the file locally, and then install it from there. Sadly, that met with the same result.

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• Very slow performance deserializing using datacontractserializer in a Silverlight Application.

  - by caryden

  Here is the situation: Silverlight 3 Application hits an asp.net hosted WCF service to get a list of items to display in a grid. Once the list is brought down to the client it is cached in IsolatedStorage. This is done by using the DataContractSerializer to serialize all of these objects to a stream which is then zipped and then encrypted. When the application is relaunched, it first loads from the cache (reversing the process above) and the deserializes the objects using the DataContractSerializer.ReadObject() method. All of this was working wonderfully under all scenarios until recently with the entire "load from cache" path (decrypt/unzip/deserialize) taking hundreds of milliseconds at most. On some development machines but not all (all machines Windows 7) the deserialize process - that is the call to ReadObject(stream) takes several minutes an seems to lock up the entire machine BUT ONLY WHEN RUNNING IN THE DEBUGGER in VS2008. Running the Debug configuration code outside the debugger has no problem. One thing that seems to look suspicious is that when you turn on stop on Exceptions, you can see that the ReadObject() throws many, many System.FormatException's indicating that a number was not in the correct format. When I turn off "Just My Code" thousands of these get dumped to the screen. None go unhandled. These occur both on the read back from the cache AND on a deserialization at the conclusion of a web service call to get the data from the WCF Service. HOWEVER, these same exceptions occur on my laptop development machine that does not experience the slowness at all. And FWIW, my laptop is really old and my desktop is a 4 core, 6GB RAM beast. Again, no problems unless running under the debugger in VS2008. Anyone else seem this? Any thoughts? Here is the bug report link: https://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/details/539609/very-slow-performance-deserializing-using-datacontractserializer-in-a-silverlight-application-only-in-debugger

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• solution for RPC_E_ATTEMPTED_MULTITHREAD error caused by SPRequestContext caching SPSites?

  - by kerray

  Hi, I'm developing a solution for SharePoint 2007, and I'm using SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges a lot, passing in UserToken of the SystemAccount. After reading http://hristopavlov.wordpress.com/2009/01/19/understanding-sharepoint-sprequest/ I finally began to understand why I get these System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80010102): Attempted to make calls on more than one thread in single threaded mode. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80010102 (RPC_E_ATTEMPTED_MULTITHREAD)) errors, but there seems to be no solution - "known issue in the product" The article is more then a year old. I wasn't able to find anything more recent and helpful, but I was hoping maybe someone else has? My code goes like this SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite elevatedSite = new SPSite(web.Site.ID, web.Site.SystemAccount.UserToken)) { using (SPWeb elevatedWeb = elevatedSite.OpenWeb(web.ID)) { // some operations on lists and items obtained through elevatedWeb } } } The errors come up wherever such an elevated code is used, and more often when there are more users who use these functionalities, so I guess perhaps the elevated SPSite is getting cached and reused. Is there any way to solve this? If my understanding is correct, how to make Sharepoint forget about the cached SPSites, and use a fresh one instead? Thanks

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• Conditionally add htmlAttributes to ASP.NET MVC Html.ActionLink

  - by macca1

  I'm wondering if it's possible to conditionally add a parameter in a call to a method. For example, I am rendering a bunch of links (six total) for navigation in my Site.Master: <%= Html.ActionLink("About", "About", "Pages") %> | <%= Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Pages") %> <%-- etc, etc. --%> I'd like to include a CSS class of "selected" for the link if it's on that page. So in my controller I'm returning this: ViewData.Add("CurrentPage", "About"); return View(); And then in the view I have an htmlAttributes dictionary: <% Dictionary<string,object> htmlAttributes = new Dictionary<string,object>(); htmlAttributes.Add("class","selected");%> Now my only question is how do I include the htmlAttributes for the proper ActionLink. I could do it this way for each link: <% htmlAttributes.Clear(); if (ViewData["CurrentPage"] == "Contact") htmlAttributes.Add("class","selected");%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Pages", htmlAttributes) %> But that seems a little repetitive. Is there some way to do something like this psuedo code: <%= Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Pages", if(ViewData["CurrentPage"] == "Contact") { htmlAttributes }) %> That's obviously not valid syntax, but is there a correct way to do that? I'm open to any totally different suggestions for rendering these links. I'd like to stay with something like ActionLink that takes advantage of using my routes though instead of hard coding the tag.

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• Multi tenant membership provider ASP.NET MVC

  - by Masna

  Hello, I'm building a multi-tenant app with ASP.NET MVC and have a problem with validating users. Situation I have: -a table with User(ID, Name, FirstName, Email) This table is made, so that a users who is registered in two tenants doesn't need to login again. -a table with Tentantuser(ID, TenantID, UserID (FK to table User), UserName, Loginname, Password, Active) This table contains de login en password for one tenant. Example: UserX is registered in TenantA and TenantB UserX logs in on TenantA, with his login and password for TenantA System verifies or login and password are correct in the table TenantUser System validates UserX which userID corresponds to the Id in the table User UserX goes to TenantB and is automatically logged in My problem: How can I create a custom Provider so I can check the login & password in a tenant? For example: public abstract bool ValidateUser(string username,string password); How can I say to my provider on which tenant the user is? How can I change this in something like: public overrides bool ValidateUser(string username,string password, string tenant); ? Or what is another way to solve this issue?

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• new ActiveXObject('Word.Application') creates new winword.exe process when IE security does not allo

  - by Mark Ott

  We are using MS Word as a spell checker for a few fields on a private company web site, and when IE security settings are correct it works well. (Zone for the site set to Trusted, and trusted zone modified to allow control to run without prompting.) The script we are using creates a word object and closes it afterward. While the object exists, a winword.exe process runs, but it is destroyed when the word object is closed. If our site is not set in the trusted zone (Internet zone with default security level) the call that creates the word object fails as expected, but the winword.exe process is still created. I do not have any way to interact with this process in the script, so the process stays around until the user logs off (users have no way to manually destroy the process, and it wouldn't be a good solution even if they did.) The call that attempts to create the object is... try { oWordApplication = new ActiveXObject('Word.Application'); } catch(error) { // irrelevant code removed, described in comments.. // notify user spell check cannot be used // disable spell check option } So every time the page is loaded this code may be run again, creating yet another orphan winword.exe process. oWordApplication is, of course, undefined in the catch block. I would like to be able to detect the browser security settings beforehand, but I have done some searching on this and do not think that it is possible. Management here is happy with it as it is. As long as IE security is set correctly it works, and it works well for our purposes. (We may eventually look at other options for spell check functionality, but this was quick, inexpensive, and does everything we need it to do.) This last problem bugs me and I'd like to do something about it, but I'm out of ideas and I have other things that are more in need of my attention. Before I put it aside, I thought I'd ask for suggestions here...

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• Code sign error with Xcode 3.2

  - by quux

  I had a fully working build environment before upgrading to iPhone OS 3.1 and Xcode 3.2. Now when I try to do a build, i get the following: Code Sign error: Provisioning profile 'FooApp test' specifies the Application Identifier 'no.fooapp.iphoneapp' which doesn't match the current setting 'TGECMYZ3VK.no.fooapp.iphoneapp' The problem is that Xcode somehow manages to think that the "FooApp Test" provisioning profile specifies the Application Identifier "no.fooapp.iphoneapp", but this is not the case. In the Organizer (and in the iPhone developer portal website) the app identifier is correctly seen as 'TGECMYZ3VK.no.fooapp.iphoneapp'. Also, when setting the provisioning profile in the build options at the project level, Xcode correctly identifies the app identifier, but when I go to the target, I'm unable to select any valid provisioning profile. What could be causing this problem? Update: I've tried to create a new provisioning profile, but still no luck. I also tried simply changing the app identified in Info.plist to just "no.fooapp.iphoneapp". The build succeeds, but now I get an error from the Organizer: The executable was signed with invalid entitlements. The entitlements specified in your application's Code Signing Entitlements file do not match those specified in your provisioning profile. (0xE8008016). This seems reasonable, as the provisioning profile still has the "TGECMYZ3VK.no.fooapp.iphoneapp" application identifier. I also double checked that all certiicates are valid in the Keychain. So my question is how I can get Xcode to see the correct application identifier? UPDATE: As noted below, what seems to fix the problem is deleting all provisioning profiles, certificates etc, making new certificates / profiles and installing them again. If anyone has any other solutions, they would be welcome. :)

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• Databinding a multiselect ListBox in a FormView control

  - by drs9222

  I have a multiselect ListBox within a FormView. I can't figure out how to setup the databinding for it. I can populate the listbox fine. If the listbox was a single select I could use say SelectValue='<%#Bind("col")%>' and that works fine. Is there something that I can bind to for a multiselect listbox? I've tried manually DataBinding by handling the DataBinding event of the listbox and setting the selected property on the appropriate items. Unfortunately, there are no items in the listbox during the DataBinding event. The closest thing I've found is to save the value that determines what items should be selecting during DataBinding and then use that value in the FormViews DataBinding event to select the right items which seems like a hack to me. Is there a better way? EDIT: To clarify what I am currently doing... I am using the FormViews's ItemCreated event to save the FormView's DataItem. Then in the FormView's DataBound event I find the listbox and manually set the selected items. It doesn't seem right that I have to save the value like this and I assume there is a more correct way to do this that I just can't see.

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• Android multiple email attachment using Intent question

  - by yyyy1234

  Hi, I've been working on Android program to send email with attachment (image file , audio file , etc) using Intent with (ACTION_SEND) . THe program is working when email has a single attachment. I used Intent.putExtra( android.content.Intent.EXTRA_STREAM, uri) to attach the designated image file to the mail and it is wokring fine , the mail can be delivered through Gmail . However, when I tried to have multiple images attached to the same mail by calling Intent.putExtra( android.content.Intent.EXTRA_STREAM, uri) multiple times, it failed to work. None of the attachment show up in the email . I searched the SDK documentation and Android programming user group about email attachment but cannot find any related info. However, I've discovered that there's another intent constnat ACTION_SEND_MULTIPLE (available since API level 4 ) which might meet my requirement. Based on SDK documentation, it simply states that it deliver multiple data to someone else , it works like ACTION_SEND , excpet the data is multiple. But I still could not figure out the correct usage for this command. I tried to delcare intent with ACTION_SEND_MULTIPLE , then call putExtra(EXTRA_STREAM, uri) multiple times to attach multiple images , but I got the same errnoenous result just like before, none of the attachment show up in the email. Has anyone tried with ACTION_SEND_MULTIPLE and got it working with multiple email attachment ? Thanks very much for your help. Regards, yyyy1234

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• apache htaccess rewrite rules make redirection loop

  - by Ali

  Hi guys, Have a very strange problem with Apache .htaccess URL Rewriting and Redirection. Here's my setup: I have a zend application with a single point of entry (index.php) directly under my apache document root (call this the "public" folder). I also have all other public files (images, js, css, etc.) under the public folder. Here, I also have a wordpress blog under the "blog" folder. There's an empty test folder too The Problem When I go to mydomain.com/blog, I get redirected to http://www.theredpin.com/blog (correctly), then to http://www.theredpin.com/blog/ (just with an extra / at end), finally to http://theredpin.com/blog/ -- and we're back where we started. The loop continues. What I don't understand is why would wordpress try to remove the www? I'm guessing it's wordpress because my empty test folder acts just fine! PLEASE HELP. I"M REALLY DESPERATE :( Thank you very much Other things that happen: When I go to mydomain.com, i correctly get redirected to www.mydomain.com When I go to www.mydomain.com, i correctly stay where I am When I go to www.mydomain.com/test or mydomain.com/test, behaviour is correct. Setup So my .htaccess file does the following: If there's no www., then add it and do a 301 redirect. Here's the code I use RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^mydomain.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.mydomain.com/$1 [L,R=301] If the request is NOT for a resource (image, etc.), or the blog, then load zend application by rewriting to index.php RewriteRule !((^blog(/)?.*$)|(.(js|ico|gif|jpg|jpeg|png|css|cur|JPG|html|txt))$) index.php Thanks again for all your help!!! Ali

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• Problem with TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTime: missed the Daylight Saving switch.

  - by SirMoreno

  My web app runs on .Net 3.5, all of the dates are saved on the DB in UTC time (not in user time). When I want to display a date I convert it to user date (from UTC) //Get the current datetime of the user exp: GMT TO ISRAEL +2 public static DateTime GetUserDateTime(DateTime dateUTC) { string userTzId = "Israel Standard Time"; TimeZoneInfo userTZ = TimeZoneInfo.FindSystemTimeZoneById(userTzId); dateUTC = DateTime.SpecifyKind(dateUTC, DateTimeKind.Utc); DateTime ret = TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTime(dateUTC, TimeZoneInfo.Utc, userTZ); return ret; } Until now it worked fine but I have users from Israel (GMT +2), and Israel switched to Daylight saving time on 26/3/10 so now it's (GMT +3). For some reason the TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTime don't know the Daylight saving time switch is on 26/3/10 so it still converts to GMT +2. The strange thing is that on localhost it works fine, I set up a test page: DateTime userdate = GetUserDateTime(DateTime.UtcNow); string str2 = "UserDateTime = " + userdate.ToString("dd/MM/yy") + " " + userdate.ToString("HH:mm"); On the Server (windows 2003 set to UTC time) it shows the wrong time (+2): UserDateTime = 27/03/10 21:38 On localhost (windows XP set to Israel Time) it shows the correct time (+3): UserDateTime = 27/03/10 22:38 How can I update the TimeZoneInfo that the Daylight saving time switch in Israel was on the 26/3/10? Thanks.

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• Solving Diophantine Equations Using Python

  - by HARSHITH

  In mathematics, a Diophantine equation (named for Diophantus of Alexandria, a third century Greek mathematician) is a polynomial equation where the variables can only take on integer values. Although you may not realize it, you have seen Diophantine equations before: one of the most famous Diophantine equations is: We are not certain that McDonald's knows about Diophantine equations (actually we doubt that they do), but they use them! McDonald's sells Chicken McNuggets in packages of 6, 9 or 20 McNuggets. Thus, it is possible, for example, to buy exactly 15 McNuggets (with one package of 6 and a second package of 9), but it is not possible to buy exactly 16 nuggets, since no non- negative integer combination of 6's, 9's and 20's adds up to 16. To determine if it is possible to buy exactly n McNuggets, one has to solve a Diophantine equation: find non-negative integer values of a, b, and c, such that 6a + 9b + 20c = n. Write an iterative program that finds the largest number of McNuggets that cannot be bought in exact quantity. Your program should print the answer in the following format (where the correct number is provided in place of n): "Largest number of McNuggets that cannot be bought in exact quantity: n"

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• CA2000 and disposal of WCF client

  - by Mayo

  There is plenty of information out there concerning WCF clients and the fact that you cannot simply rely on a using statement to dispose of the client. This is because the Close method can throw an exception (i.e. if the server hosting the service doesn't respond). I've done my best to implement something that adheres to the numerous suggestions out there. public void DoSomething() { MyServiceClient client = new MyServiceClient(); // from service reference try { client.DoSomething(); } finally { client.CloseProxy(); } } public static void CloseProxy(this ICommunicationObject proxy) { if (proxy == null) return; try { if (proxy.State != CommunicationState.Closed && proxy.State != CommunicationState.Faulted) { proxy.Close(); } else { proxy.Abort(); } } catch (CommunicationException) { proxy.Abort(); } catch (TimeoutException) { proxy.Abort(); } catch { proxy.Abort(); throw; } } This appears to be working as intended. However, when I run Code Analysis in Visual Studio 2010 I still get a CA2000 warning. CA2000 : Microsoft.Reliability : In method 'DoSomething()', call System.IDisposable.Dispose on object 'client' before all references to it are out of scope. Is there something I can do to my code to get rid of the warning or should I use SuppressMessage to hide this warning once I am comfortable that I am doing everything possible to be sure the client is disposed of? Related resources that I've found: http://www.theroks.com/2011/03/04/wcf-dispose-problem-with-using-statement/ http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/151755/Correct-WCF-Client-Proxy-Closing.aspx http://codeguru.earthweb.com/csharp/.net/net_general/tipstricks/article.php/c15941/

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• System.Net.WebClient doesn't work with Windows Authentication

  - by Peter Hahndorf

  I am trying to use System.Net.WebClient in a WinForms application to upload a file to an IIS6 server which has Windows Authentication as it only 'Authentication' method. WebClient myWebClient = new WebClient(); myWebClient.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(@"boxname\peter", "mypassword"); byte[] responseArray = myWebClient.UploadFile("http://localhost/upload.aspx", fileName); I get a 'The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized', actually it is a 401.2 Both client and IIS are on the same Windows Server 2003 Dev machine. When I try to open the page in Firefox and enter the same correct credentials as in the code, the page comes up. However when using IE8, I get the same 401.2 error. Tried Chrome and Opera and they both work. I have 'Enable Integrated Windows Authentication' enabled in the IE Internet options. The Security Event Log has a Failure Audit: Logon Failure: Reason: An error occurred during logon User Name: peter Domain: boxname Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: ÈùÄ Authentication Package: NTLM Workstation Name: boxname Status code: 0xC000006D Substatus code: 0x0 Caller User Name: - Caller Domain: - Caller Logon ID: - Caller Process ID: - Transited Services: - Source Network Address: 127.0.0.1 Source Port: 1476 I used Process Monitor and Fiddler to investigate but to no avail. Why would this work for 3rd party browsers but not with IE or System.Net.WebClient?

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• [ckeditor] apply font size using execCommand

  - by Wiika

  Hi all, var wgetFrame = window.frames[0] wframeDoc = wgetFrame.document; editor.focus(); editor.execCommand('bold'); wframeDoc.execCommand('forecolor',false,'#00ff00'); wframeDoc.execCommand('JustifyCenter', false, null); wframeDoc.execCommand('fontsize', false, 15); (i use the code above as a plugin in CKEditor) bold, forecolor and JustifyCenter , they all rend corectly , the selected text is wrapped by a span element but when applying the fontsize command , the selected goes inside the font element, i know this is correct, but it need it to be inside a span element i need to know why bold, forecolor and JustifyCenter are wrapped by span and fontsize not !! and also if there another way to apply this styles ( ps : i run those commands when ckeditor is initialized, even if the editort doesn't contain any text, when u write the style definied is applied ) CKEDITOR.editorConfig = function(config) { CKEDITOR.addStylesSet('customStyles', [ { name: 'Header 1', element: 'h1' }, { name: 'Header 2', element: 'h2' }, { name: 'Header 3', element: 'h3' }, { name: 'Text', element: 'p' }, { name: 'Left Align', element: 'img', attributes: { 'class': 'ImageLeft'} }, { name: 'Right Align', element: 'img', attributes: { 'class': 'ImageRight'} } ]); }; can i apply editor.execCommand( "Header 1" ); ??

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• Return template as string - Django

  - by Ninefingers

  Hi All, I'm still not sure this is the correct way to go about this, maybe not, but I'll ask anyway. I'd like to re-write wordpress (justification: because I can) albeit more simply myself in Django and I'm looking to be able to configure elements in different ways on the page. So for example I might have: Blog models A site update message model A latest comments model. Now, for each page on the site I want the user to be able to choose the order of and any items that go on it. In my thought process, this would work something like: class Page(models.Model) Slug = models.CharField(max_length=100) class PageItem(models.Model) Page = models.ForeignKey(Page) ItemType = models.CharField(max_length=100) InstanceNum = models.IntegerField() # all models have primary keys. Then, ideally, my template would loop through all the PageItems in a page which is easy enough to do. But what if my page item is a site update as opposed to a blog post? Basically, I am thinking I'd like to pull different item types back in different orders and display them using the appropriate templates. Now, I thought one way to do this would be to, in views.py, to loop through all of the objects and call the appropriate view function, return a bit of html as a string and then pipe that into the resultant template. My question is - is this the best way to go about doing things? If so, how do I do it? If not, which way should I be going? I'm pretty new to Django so I'm still learning what it can and can't do, so please bear with me. I've checked SO for dupes and don't think this has been asked before...

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• Undefined control sequence

  - by Jelle Fresen

  Hi, I am making my Master's Thesis with LaTeX, but I can't get the provided style to work. Specifically, I get the error 'Undefined control sequence' when using the function makeformaltitlepages, which is defined in mscthesis.sty. On the internet, the only answer I could find is the straightforward 'you probably made a typo', or 'you probably forgot to include the package', but I have reason to believe neither of those apply to me. I am quite sure that the function exists, for when I add a little verification, using the @ifundefined command, the logfile shows that the function actually does exist. And, as can be seen in the following piece of code, I also include the package: \usepackage{mscthesis} % setup information like author, company, title, etc. \begin{document} \formatmatter \thispagestyle{empty} \maketitle \makeatletter \@ifundefined{makeformaltitlepages}{\message{Function is not defined.}}{\message{Function is defined.}} \makeatother \makeformaltitlepages{\input{abstract}} % add chapters, sections, etc. and end the document Now, the output shows the line "Function is defined." just before the output of maketitle (which I think is rather strange on its own, but that might be a flushing issue), followed by the following infinitely repeated error (well, cut off after 100 times by LaTeX): Function is defined. // some gibberish about font info ! Undefined control sequence. \GenericError ... #4 \errhelp \@err@ ... l.112 \makeformaltitlepages{} The control sequence at the end of the top line of your error message was never \def'ed. If you have misspelled it (e.g., `\hobx'), type `I' and the correct spelling (e.g., `I\hbox'). Otherwise just continue, and I'll forget about whatever was undefined. While the error keeps repeating, the line that starts with '#4' cycles between the following four lines: #4 \errhelp \@err@ ... \let \@err@ ... \@empty \def \MessageBreak... \endgroup Ok, so, do any of you have a suggestion of how I might continue to hunt this bug? Or what blatantly obvious mistake did I make?

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