Search Results

Search found 46088 results on 1844 pages for 'class loader'.

Page 518/1844 | < Previous Page | 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525  | Next Page >

  • JDO architecture: One to many relationship and cascading deleting

    - by user361897
    I’m new to object oriented database designs and I’m trying to understand how I should be structuring my classes in JDO for google app engine, particularly one to many relationships. Let’s say I’m building a structure for a department store where there are many departments, and each department has many products. So I’d want to have a class called Department, with a variable that is a list of a Product class. @PersistenceCapable public class Department { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private String deptID; @Persistent private String departmentName; @Persistent private List<Product>; } @PersistenceCapable public class Product { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private String productID; @Persistent private String productName; } But one Product can be in more than one Department (like a battery could be in electronics and household supplies). So the next question is, how do I not duplicate data in the OOD world and have only one copy of product data in numerous departments? And the next question is, let’s say I delete out a particular product, how do each of the departments know it was deleted?

    Read the article

  • zend-framework doctrine, and mvc pattern: what should connect data between models and forms?

    - by Skirmantas
    I am learning Zend Framework and Doctrine. I am wondering what is the best practice to connect forms to models and vice versa. I don't know where I should put my code. I have seen in Zendcast video tutorials where author creates methods like mapFormToRecord and mapRecordToForm in form class. Well I guess it is very handy when form is sophisticated and uses many records. Is it a good practice? I somehow believe that form-class should not need to know about data-records. And sometimes we might have model which is used in many forms. So It would be handy to have few functions in that model which would help to prepare data for forms. For example to give an array of id=name pairs so that it might be used in Zend_Form_Element_Select. However I would like to have a consistency. So I don't want to put this code nor in model nor in form because on different situations I act different. So only controller is what is left to deal it. However this will result in code duplication if one form will be used more than in one controller. Moreover controller gets bloated if form is not from the simple ones. Or maybe there is a consistent pattern in those data conversions between forms and models? I think that there is. At least in my simple cases. So maybe a separate class could be a solution? Where should I put such class and how should I name it? Another question: Zend_Form has validators and filter. Doctrine has validators and filters too. Which do we use and when? What is your way of dealing the connections between forms and models? (Sorry if it was hard for you to read my text. I don't have enough knowledge of English language to express myself freely)

    Read the article

  • Simple search form passing the searched string through GET

    - by Brian Roisentul
    Hi, I'd like my Search form to return the following url after submit: /anuncios/buscar/the_text_I_searched My form is the following: <% form_for :announcement, :url => search_path(:txtSearch) do |f| %> <div class="searchBox" id="basic"> <%= text_field_tag :txtSearch, params[:str_search].blank? ? "Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil." : params[:str_search], :maxlength=> 100, :class => "basicSearch_inputField", :onfocus => "if (this.value=='Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil.') this.value=''", :onblur => "if(this.value=='') { this.value='Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil.'; return false; }" %> <div class="basicSearch_button"> <input type="submit" value="BUSCAR" class="basicSearch_buttonButton" /> <br /><a href="#" onclick="javascript:jQuery('#advance').modal({opacity:60});">Busqueda avanzada</a> </div> </div> <% end %> My routes' line for search_path is this: map.search '/anuncios/buscar/:str_search', :controller => 'announcements', :action => 'search' Well, this will work if I manually type the url I want in the brower, but definitely, if you look at the form's url, you'll find a ":txtSearch" parameter, which is not giving me the actual value of the text field when the form is submitted. And that's what I'd like to get! Could anybody help me on this?

    Read the article

  • Where should test classes be stored in the project?

    - by limc
    I build all my web projects at work using RAD/Eclipse, and I'm interested to know where do you guys normally store your test's *.class files. All my web projects have 2 source folders: "src" for source and "test" for testcases. The generated *.class files for both source folders are currently placed under WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. I want to separate the test *.class files from the src *.class files for 2 reasons:- There's no point to store them in WebContent/WEB-INF/classes and deploy them in production. Sonar and some other static code analysis tools don't produce an accurate static code analysis because it takes account of my crappy yet correct testcase code. So, right now, I have the following output folders:- "src" source folder compiles to WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. "test" source folder compiles to target/test-classes folder. Now, I'm getting this warning from RAD:- Broken single-root rule: A project may not contain more than one output folder. So, it seems like Eclipse-based IDEs prefer one project = one output folder, yet it provides an option for me to set up a custom output folder for my additional source folder from the "build path" dialog, and then it barks at me. I know I can just disable this warning myself, but I want to know how you guys handle this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • CherryPy always returning HTTP 200 [closed]

    - by DarkArctic
    I'm having a bit of a problem when browsing to a non-existent resource. I get a response code of 200 instead of 404. I'm using the MethodDispatcher and I have a class that overloads the __getattr__ method to instantiate a resource if a child exists or to return AttributeError if one doesn't. My class is always returning the AttributeError correctly, but the data I actually get is always from the last good resource. Here's a simplified (except for __getattr__) version of my class: class BaseResource(object): exposed = True def __init__(self, name): self.children = [] # Pretend this has child resources def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._children: uuid, application, obj_type, server = self._children[name] try: resource = getattr(app[application], obj_type) except AttributeError as e: raise cherrypy.HTTPError(500, e) return resource(uuid) else: raise AttributeError('Child with name \'{}\' could not be found.'.format(name)) def GET(self): cherrypy.log.error('*** {} not found, raising AttributeError'.format(name)) return 'GET request for {}'.format(self._name) So fetching I get the following when I browse to the following resources: http://localhost:8000/users - This resource exists, so it returns it correctly. http://localhost:8000/users/fake - This returns the "users" resource giving an HTTP 200. http://localhost:8000/users/fake/reallyfake - This returns the "users" resource again. So my question is, where can I start looking to find out why my code isn't returning a 404 for a non-existent resource. I'm sure I've done something wrong, but I'm not sure what. Whatever I did wrong I've undone and I'm now getting a 404 returned correctly. I'm sorry I can't give any detail on what the issue was, but I'm honestly not sure what I did.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2010 compile error with std::string?

    - by AJG85
    So this is possibly the strangest thing I've seen recently and was curious how this could happen. The compiler gave me an error saying that std::string is undefined when used as a return type but not when used as a parameter in methods of a class! #pragma once #include <string> #include <vector> // forward declarations class CLocalReference; class CResultSetHandle; class MyClass { public: MyClass() {} ~MyClass {} void Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh, std::string& item); // this is fine const std::string Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh); // this fails with std::string is undefined?!?! }; Doing a Rebuild All it still happened I had to choose clean solution and then Rebuild All again after for the universe to realign. While it's resolved for the moment I'd still like to know what could have caused this because I'm at a loss as to why when there should be no conflicts especially when I always use fully qualified names for STL.

    Read the article

  • Make floating element "maximally wide"

    - by bobobobo
    I have some floating elements on a page. What I want is the div that is floated left to be "maximally wide" so that it is as wide as it possibly can be without causing the red div ("I go at the right") to spill over onto the next line. An example is here: The width:100%; doesn't produce the desired effect! ** I don't want the green element ("I want to be as wide as possible") to go "under" the red element. Its very important that they both stay separate i.e. .. I think they must both be floated! <div class="container"> <div class="a1">i go at the right</div> <div class="a2">i want to be as wide as possible,</div> <div class="clear"></div> </div> <style> div { border: solid 2px #000; background-color: #eee; margin: 8px; padding: 8px; } div.a1 { float:right; background-color: #a00; border: solid 2px #f00; margin: 12px; padding: 6px; } div.a2 { float: left; /*width: 100%;*/ /*this doens't produce desired effect!*/ background-color: #0b0; border: solid 2px #0f0; margin: 12px; padding: 14px; } .clear { border: none; padding: 0 ; margin: 0; clear:both; } </style>

    Read the article

  • C++ design question, container of instances and pointers

    - by Tom
    Hi all, Im wondering something. I have class Polygon, which composes a vector of Line (another class here) class Polygon { std::vector<Line> lines; public: const_iterator begin() const; const_iterator end() const; } On the other hand, I have a function, that calculates a vector of pointers to lines, and based on those lines, should return a pointer to a Polygon. Polygon* foo(Polygon& p){ std::vector<Line> lines = bar (p.begin(),p.end()); return new Polygon(lines); } Here's the question: I can always add a Polygon (vector Is there a better way that dereferencing each element of the vector and assigning it to the existing vector container? //for line in vector<Line*> v //vcopy is an instance of vector<Line> vcopy.push_back(*(v.at(i)) I think not, but I dont really like that approach. Hopefully, I will be able to convince the author of the class to change it, but I cant base my coding right now to that fact (and i'm scared of a performance hit). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • C++ design question, container of instances and pointers

    - by Tom
    Hi all, Im wondering something. I have class Polygon, which composes a vector of Line (another class here) class Polygon { std::vector<Line> lines; public: const_iterator begin() const; const_iterator end() const; } On the other hand, I have a function, that calculates a vector of pointers to lines, and based on those lines, should return a pointer to a Polygon. Polygon* foo(Polygon& p){ std::vector<Line> lines = bar (p.begin(),p.end()); return new Polygon(lines); } Here's the question: I can always add a Polygon (vector Is there a better way that dereferencing each element of the vector and assigning it to the existing vector container? //for line in vector<Line*> v //vcopy is an instance of vector<Line> vcopy.push_back(*(v.at(i)) I think not, but I dont really like that approach. Hopefully, I will be able to convince the author of the class to change it, but I cant base my coding right now to that fact (and i'm scared of a performance hit). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • C++ design question, container of instances and pointers

    - by Tom
    Hi all, Im wondering something. I have class Polygon, which composes a vector of Line (another class here) class Polygon { std::vector<Line> lines; public: const_iterator begin() const; const_iterator end() const; } On the other hand, I have a function, that calculates a vector of pointers to lines, and based on those lines, should return a pointer to a Polygon. Polygon* foo(Polygon& p){ std::vector<Line> lines = bar (p.begin(),p.end()); return new Polygon(lines); } Here's the question: I can always add a Polygon (vector Is there a better way that dereferencing each element of the vector and assigning it to the existing vector container? //for line in vector<Line*> v //vcopy is an instance of vector<Line> vcopy.push_back(*(v.at(i)) I think not, but I dont really like that approach. Hopefully, I will be able to convince the author of the class to change it, but I cant base my coding right now to that fact (and i'm scared of a performance hit). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate Cannot delete the child object

    - by Daoming Yang
    I know it has been asked for many times, i also have found a lot of answers on this website, but i just cannot get out this problem. Can anyone help me with this piece of code? Many thanks. Here is my parent mapping file <set name="ProductPictureList" table="[ProductPicture]" lazy="true" order-by="DateCreated" inverse="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan" > <key column="ProductID"/> <one-to-many class="ProductPicture"/> </set> Here is my child mapping file <class name="ProductPicture" table="[ProductPicture]" lazy="true"> <id name="ProductPictureID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="ProductID" type="Int32"></property> <property name="PictureName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> </class> Here is my c# code var item = _productRepository.Get(productID); var productPictrue = item.ProductPictureList .OfType<ProductPicture>() .Where(x => x.ProductPictureID == productPictureID); // reomve the finding item var ok = item.ProductPictureList.Remove(productPictrue); _productRepository.SaveOrUpdate(item); ok is false value and this child object is still in my database.

    Read the article

  • How am i overriding this C++ inherited member function without the virtual keyword being used?

    - by Gary Willoughby
    I have a small program to demonstrate simple inheritance. I am defining a Dog class which is derived from Mammal. Both classes share a simple member function called ToString(). How is Dog overriding the implementation in the Mammal class, when i'm not using the virtual keyword? (Do i even need to use the virtual keyword to override member functions?) mammal.h #ifndef MAMMAL_H_INCLUDED #define MAMMAL_H_INCLUDED #include <string> class Mammal { public: std::string ToString(); }; #endif // MAMMAL_H_INCLUDED mammal.cpp #include <string> #include "mammal.h" std::string Mammal::ToString() { return "I am a Mammal!"; } dog.h #ifndef DOG_H_INCLUDED #define DOG_H_INCLUDED #include <string> #include "mammal.h" class Dog : public Mammal { public: std::string ToString(); }; #endif // DOG_H_INCLUDED dog.cpp #include <string> #include "dog.h" std::string Dog::ToString() { return "I am a Dog!"; } main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "dog.h" using namespace std; int main() { Dog d; std::cout << d.ToString() << std::endl; return 0; } output I am a Dog! I'm using MingW on Windows via Code::Blocks.

    Read the article

  • sending specific data into a collection partial

    - by mikeglaz
    I have a User class with a has_many :messages and a Message class which belongs_to :user. In the Message controller's show action has the corresponding view: <% if @messages.any? %> <ol class="microposts"> <%= render partial: 'shared/message', collection: @messages %> </ol> <% end %> And the shared/_message.html.erb template looks like this: <li id="<%= message.id %>"> <span class="content"><%= message.body %></span> <% user_id = message.from %> <% user = User.find(user_id) %> From: <%= user.name %> </li> I feel like the following two lines should be done in the Messages controller from what I read in tutorials on Rails: <% user_id = message.from %> <% user = User.find(user_id) %> But how would I pass each message's corresponding from value (which stores user.id) into the partial? thanks, mike

    Read the article

  • How to best manage multi-frame MovieClips with classes?

    - by Arms
    After switching to AS3, I've been having a hell of a time figuring out the best way to manage MovieClips that have UI elements spread across multiple frames with a single class. An example that I am working on now is a simple email form. I have a MovieClip with two frames: the 1st frame has the form elements (text inputs, submit button) the 2nd frame has a "thank you" message and a button to go back to the first frame (to send another email) In the library I have linked the MovieClip to a custom class (Emailer). My immediate problem is how do I assign a MouseEvent.CLICK event to the button on the 2nd frame? I should note at this point that I am trying to avoid putting code on the timeline (except for stop() calls). This is how I am 'solving' the problem now: Emailer registers an event listener for a frame change ( addEventListener("frame 2", onFrameChange) ) On the 2nd frame of the MovieClip I am calling dispatchEvent(new Event("frame 2")); (I would prefer to not have this code on the frame, but I don't know what else to do) My two complaints with this method are that, first I have calls to addEventListener spread out across different class methods (I would rather have all UI event listeners registered in one method), and second that I have to dispatch those custom "onFrameChange" events. The second complaint grows exponentially for MovieClips that have more than just 2 frames. My so called solution feels makes me feel dirty and makes my brain hurt. I am looking for any advice on what to do differently. Perhaps there's a design pattern I should be looking at? Should I swallow my pride and write timeline code even though the rest of my application is written in class files (and I abhor the Flash IDE code editor)? I absolutely LOVE the event system, and have no problem coding applications with it, but I feel like I'm stuck thinking in terms of AS2 when working with mutl-frame movieclips and code. Any and all help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net MVC - Model binding image button

    - by big dave
    I've got a very complex form and i'm using the MVC model binding to capture all the information I've got it set up to capture all the different submissions that can happen as there are about 10 different submit buttons on the form, and there are also 2 image buttons I tried to get a bit clever (or so i thought) with capturing the image button submissions, and have created a child class so that i can capture the x value that's returned public class ImageButtonViewData { public int x { get; set; } public string Value { get; set; } } The parent class looks something like this public class ViewDataObject { public ImageButtonViewData ImageButton { get; set; } public ViewDataObject(){ this.ImageButton = new ImageButton(); } } The html for the image button then looks like <input type="image" id="ViewDataObject_ImageButton" name="ViewDataObject.ImageButton" /> This works fine in all browsers except for Chrome. When i debug it in chrome, the Request.Form object contains the values that i would expect, but after the model binding has occurred, the ImageButton property on the ViewDataObject has been set to null The only difference that i can see between the submission values is that Chrome passes the x as lower case (ViewDataObject.ImageButton.x) and IE passes it as upper case (ViewDataObject.ImageButton.X) but i didn't think that model binding took any notice of casing on property names Does anyone have any ideas ?

    Read the article

  • Jquery tooltip absolute position above a link which is inside paragraph text?

    - by BerggreenDK
    I am trying to retrieve the position of an HTML element inside a paragraph. Eg. a span or anchor. I would also like the width of the element. So that when I hover the object, I can activate/build/show a sort of toolbar/tooltip above the element dynamically. I need it to be dynamically added to exisiting content, so somekinda "search-replace" jQuery thingy that scans the elements within eg. a DIV and then does this for all that matches this "feature". Main problem/question is: How do I retrieve the "current absolute" position of the element I am hovering with the mouse. I dont want the toolbar/tooltip to be following the mouse, but instead it must "snap" to the element its hovering. so I was thinking: "place BOX -20px from current element. Match width.... Possible? is there a jQuery plugin for this already - or? Sample code: <div class="helper"> <h1>headline</h1> <p>Here is some sample text. But <a href="somewhere.htm" class="help help45">this is with an explanation you can hover</a>. <a href="somewhereelse.htm">And this isnt.</a> <ul> <li>We could also do it <a href="somewhere.htm" class="help help32">inside a bullet list</a></li> </ul> </div> The .help is the class triggering the "help" and the .help45 or .help32 is the helpsection needed to be shown (but thats another task later, as I am hoping to retreive the "id" from the "help45" so a serverlookup for id=45 can load the text needed to be shown. Nb. if the page scrolls etc. the helptip still needs to follow the item on the page until closed/hidden.

    Read the article

  • jquery fade an element in when a link is clicked and then swap the element when another link is clic

    - by Nik
    I have worked out how to fade an element in: Click here to view the page If you click on the heading Posture 1 : Standing Deep Breathing : you will notice the element fades in as it should. If you now click on posture 2 you will see the element fades in below posture 1. I need to be able to swap posture 1 with posture 2. I have a total of 26 postures that all have images that need to fade in and then be swapped with another image when another heading is clicked. $(document).ready(function(){ $('#section_Q_01,#section_Q_02').hide(); $('h5.trigger#Q_01').click(function(){ $('#section_Q_01').fadeIn(2000) ; }); $('h5.trigger#Q_02').click(function(){ $('#section_Q_02').fadeIn(5000) ; }); }); and the html <div id="section_Q_01" class="01"> <div class="pics"> <img src="../images/multi/poses/pose1/Pranayama._01.jpg"/> <img src="../images/multi/poses/pose1/Pranayama._02.jpg"/> <img src="../images/multi/poses/pose1/Pranayama._03.jpg"/> </div> </div> <div id="section_Q_02" class="02"> <div class="pics"> <img src="../images/multi/poses/pose2/Half_Moon_Pose_04.jpg" /> <img src="../images/multi/poses/pose2/Backward_Bending_05.jpg" /> <img src="../images/multi/poses/pose2/Hands_to_Feet_Pose_06.jpg" /> </div> </div> I need to be able to swap a total of 26 elements #section_Q_01 - #section_Q_26 Any help appreciated

    Read the article

  • Background Image Overlapped Problem with jQuery

    - by Devyn
    Hi, Here is my working page. I attached buttons to white bishop and you can move around but left images are overlapped by right images. I think the problem is with CSS. The brief structure is here. <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#top').click(function(){ $('#p81').animate({top: "-=64px"}, 100); }); </script> <style> div.chess_board{ height: 512px; position: relative; width: 512px; } div.chess_square{ height:64px; position: absolute; width:64px; } div.chess_square.white { background: none repeat scroll 0 0 #ffffff; } . . . div.chess_piece{ background-image: url("sprite.png"); height: 64px; width: 64px; position: absolute; } div.chess_piece.bishot.white{ background-position: -64px 0; } </style> <div class="chess_board"> <div id="b81" class="chess_square white" style="top: 448px; left: 64px;"> <div class="chess_square_inner"></div> <div id="p81" class="chess_piece bishot white"></div> </div> </div> <input type="button" id="top" value="top" />

    Read the article

  • jQuery Hover Fade Button with an Active State

    - by Tim
    I do not want to double post a question; I was trying to post an add-on to my first question that I was looking for additional help. How does one go about this? Here is the original question. jQuery Hover Fade Button with an Active State Was hoping to see if there is a solution to the glitch I found. The problem I am now looking for help with is all other buttons still have the hover effect, but a button that was once active no longer does. <ul class="buttons"> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 1</a></li> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 2</a></li> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 3</a></li> </ul> Best way to explain this. If button 2 is clicked – it is now active. Buttons 1 and 3 will still hover. If you click on button 1 – it is now active and button 2 will no longer hover while button 3 will. Eventually when you go through the series of all buttons the animation hover is no longer.

    Read the article

  • RIA Service - without database?

    - by Heko
    Helo! I need to write a RIA service to call Java webservices from Silverlight 3.0 app. I'm testing how stuff works and in my Web app I have a MyData class which has 2 properties (int ID, string Text): namespace SilverlightApplication1.Web { public class MyData { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Text { get; set; } } } Then I wrote simple DomainService: [EnableClientAccess()] public class MyService : DomainService { public IQueryable<MyData> GetMyData(string Url) { // here I will call my WebService List<MyData> result = new List<MyData>(); result.Add(new MyData { ID = 1, Text = Url }); return result.AsQueryable(); } } } How can I get data into my SL app? Now I have this: namespace SilverlightApplication1 { public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); MyContext context = new MyContext(); } } } I called and load but nothink worsk (exceptions, or nulls)... I had Invoke annotation but MyData is not TEntity and I can't use Strings or other simple types as well... :/ I'm reading and reading posts and nothing works like it should.. Any help would be really appreciated. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • PHP OO vs Procedure with AJAX

    - by vener
    I currently have a AJAX heavy(almost everything) intranet webapp for a business. It is highly modularized(components and modules ala Joomla), with plenty of folders and files. ~ 80-100 different viewing pages (each very unique in it's own sense) on last count and will likely to increase in the near future. I based around the design around commands and screens, the client request a command and sends the required data and receives the data that is displayed via javascript on the screen. That said, there are generally two types of files, a display files with html, javascript, and a little php for templating. And also a php backend file with a single switch statement with actions such as, save, update and delete and maybe other function. There is very little code reuse. Recently, I have been adding an server sided undo function that requires me to reuse some code. So, I took the chance to try out OOP but I notice that some functions are so simple, that creating a class, retrieving all the data then update all the related rows on the database seems like overkill for a simple action as speed is quite critical. Also I noticed there is only one class in an entire file. So, what if the entire php is a class. So, between creating a class and methods, and using global variables and functions. Which is faster?

    Read the article

  • update attribute a element in arraylist on java ?

    - by tiendv
    I have a class Class TextChunks extends Token { ArrayList<Token> arrt = new ArrayList<Token>(); } extent fron class : class Token { String s; int frequency = 1 ;// Tern frequency in TextChunk } Now in token i have arraylist token , i want to update attribute frequency of token in Texchunks when have more than one tokens same . For clearly a give a example : Texchunks :" in particular in domain and range in some " So have 8 token : in,particular,in,domain,and,range,in,some i want update attribute frequency for token : in this example when i get attribute frequency of token "in" must return 3 it mean when i call : get frequency of Texchunks when dislay : in 3 particular 1 in 3 domain 1 and 1 range 1 in 3 some 1 here my code : public TextChunks updateFrequencyOfTokenInTextChunks (TextChunks tc) throws CloneNotSupportedException { TextChunks result = (TextChunks) tc.clone(); for (int i =0 ; i< result.arrt.size() ; i++ ){ int j=i+1; if (result.arrt.get(i).compareTwoToken(result.arrt.get(j))== true ) { // help here how to update attribute result.arrt.get(i) // and result.arrt.get(J) = ++ and } } return tc; } Thanks in advandce

    Read the article

  • JavaScript text slideshow not working?

    - by I Build Websites
    I'm making a Javascript slideshow for my blog yet the array doesn't seem to be working. Can someone please say what I've been doing wrong <SCRIPT type="text/javascript"> var blog = new Array() blog[0]= "<h4>Sunday 17 of June 2012</h4><p title='Blog'>Donec tempus risus eget ligula viverra eget placerat odio tincidunt. Duis nisl sem, scelerisque faucibus congue vitae, accumsan at lectus. Cras vestibulum arcu ut lorem luctus eu pharetra tortor ultricies. Nam iaculis orci mauris. Etiam luctus, mauris sed adipiscing ullamcorper, augue enim volutpat sem, ut sagittis ipsum nibh ac nulla. Nam ultrices, quam eget sollicitudin porta, sapien mauris pulvinar augue, posuere hendrerit erat ligula ut magna. Maecenas laoreet nisi vitae magna consectetur a mollis purus tristique. Pellentesque elementum arcu non urna convallis eleifend. Aliquam eu lorem sed risus tempus tempor. Donec malesuada velit in odio vulputate iaculis. In tristique neque quis velit posuere adipiscing. Nullam dui neque, scelerisque non egestas feugiat, pellentesque vitae mauris.</p><hr>" and so the array continues till function display1() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML( blog[0]) } function display2() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[1]) } function display3() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[2]) } function display4() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[3]) } function display5() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[4]) } </SCRIPT> <div id="blogShow"> <SCRIPT type="text/javascript">display1()</SCRIPT> </div> <div id="blogNav"> <input type="button" onClick="display2()" value="1" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display3()" value="2" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display4()" value="3" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display5()" value="4" class="button"> </div> I know it's all inline and i will clean up after it works

    Read the article

  • Databinding to the DataGridView (Enums + Collections)

    - by Ian
    I'm after a little help with the techniques to use for Databinding. It's been quite a while since I used any proper data binding and want to try and do something with the DataGridView. I'm trying to configure as much as possible so that I can simply designed the DatagridView through the form editor, and then use a custom class that exposes all my information. The sort of information I've got is as follows: public class Result { public String Name { get; set; } public Boolean PK { get; set; } public MyEnum EnumValue { get; set; } public IList<ResultInfos> { get; set; } } public class ResultInfos { get; set; } { public class Name { get; set; } public Int Value { get; set; } public override String ToString() { return Name + " : " Value.ToString(); } } I can bind to the simple information without any problem. I want to bind to the EnumValue with a DataGridViewComboBoxColumn, but when I set the DataPropertyName I get exceptions saying the enum values aren't valid. Then comes the ResultInfo collection. Currently I can't figure out how to bind to this and display my items, again really I want this to be a combobox, where the 1st Item is selected. Anyone any suggestions on what I'm doing wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

  • C++: Declare static variable in function argument list

    - by MDC
    Is there any way at all in C++ to declare a static variable while passing it to a function? I'm looking to use a macro to expand to the expression passed to the function. The expression needs to declare and initialize a static variable on that particular line (based on the filename and line number using FILE and LINE). int foo(int b) { int c = b + 2; return c; } int main() { int a = 3; a = foo(static int h = 2); //<---- see this! cout << a; return 0; } The problem I'm trying to solve is getting the filename and line number with the FILE and LINE macros provided by the preprocessor, but then creating a lookup table with integer keys leading to the FILE, LINE pairs. For example, the key 89 may map to file foo.cpp, line 20. To get this to work, I'm trying to use local static variables, so that they are initialized only once per line execution. The static variable will be initialized by calling a function that calculates the integer key and adds an entry to the lookup table if it is not there. Right now the program uses a message class to send exception information. I'm writing a macro to wrap this class into a new class: WRAPPER_MACRO(old_class_object) will expand to NewClass(old_class_object, key_value). If I add the static variable declaration as a second line right before this, it should work. The problem is that in most places in the code, the old class object is passed as an argument to a function. So the problem becomes declaring and initializing the static variable somehow with the macro, while keeping the existing function calls.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525  | Next Page >