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  • Video memory buswidth vs video memory Bandwidth

    - by Mixxiphoid
    My current video card (9600GT) is dying and I'm searching for a new video card. Between acquiring my current one and now, I got a lot more knowledge about hardware and I want to use that to pick my new card. So I decided to not just buy some popular card blindly, but to search for a card able to handle my hardware requirements. I searched the specs at the NVidia site for the GT640 and was confused by the memory section and some questions raised. My current card's memory bus width is 256bit and has 1GB of memory. I checked Google about the importance of bus width. And all the links basically said the same 'The higher the number the more potential simultaneously traffic can be transferred'. This was already clear to me, yet there are currently a lot of new cards which are considered better than my current one with a lower bus width. To go in more detail about my question I copied the memory info from the NVidia site: GT 640 GT640 GDDR5 Memory Specs: Memory Clock 1.8 Gbps 5.0 Gbps Standard Memory Config 2048 MB 1024 MB Memory Interface DDR3 GDDR5 Memory Interface Width 128-bit 64-bit Memory Bandwidth (GB/sec) 28.5 40.0 What puzzled me is that the Memory Bandwidth seems to me the most important part, yet the lower bus width has the higher 'performance'. Is this due to the fact the memory interface is GDDR5 and is therefore able to have a higher memory clock speed (5Gbps)? If I am to buy a new video card, should I check the bus width? Memory clock? Bandwith? Amount of memory? My current card ahs 1GB memory, so I was searching for a 2GB memory card, but now I'm not so sure any more whether that is really 'better'. My main question: To me it seems that memory performance is made up by the combination of bus width and frequency. Is this true? If yes, why are there so many sites telling me I need to get a card with a high bus width? If no, then what IS important when it goes about memory performance on a video card. NOTE: The memory bandwidth is (almost) never displayed on vendor sites. How can I determine which card is better without knowing the bandwith?

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  • How to configure Transparent IP Address Sharing (TAS) on a Mediatrix 4102 with DGW 2.0 firmware?

    - by Pascal Bourque
    I am making the switch to VoIP. I chose voip.ms as my service provider and Mediatrix 4102 as my ATA. One reason why I chose the Mediatrix over other popular consumer ATAs is that it's supposed to be easy to place it in front of the router, so it can give priority to its own upstream traffic over the home network's upstream traffic. This is supposed to work transparently, with the ATA and router sharing the same public IP address (the one obtained from the modem). They call this feaure Transparent IP Address Sharing, or TAS. Their promotional brochure describes it like this: The Mediatrix 4102 also uses its innovative TAS (Transparent IP Address Sharing) technology and an embedded PPPoE client to allow the PC (or router) connected to the second Ethernet port to have the same public IP address, eliminating the need for private IP addresses or address translations. I am interested by this feature because my router, an Apple Time Capsule, doesn't support QoS and cannot give priority to the voice packets if the ATA is behind the router. However, after hours of searching the web, reading the documentation, and good ol' trial and error, I haven't been able to configure the Mediatrix to run in this mode. Then I found a version of the manual that looks like it was for a previous version of the firmware (SIP), where there is an entire section dedicated to configuring TAS (starting at page 209). But my Mediatrix comes with the DGW 2.0 firmware, whose documentation does not mention TAS at all. So I tried to follow the TAS setup instructions from the SIP documentation and apply them to my DGW firmware, using the Variable Mapping Between SIP v5.0 and DGW v2.0 document as a reference, but no success. Some required SIP variables don't have an equivalent in DGW. So it looks like the DGW firmware does not support TAS at all, or if it does they are not doing anything to help us set it up. So right now, the Mediatrix is behind the router and VoIP works perfectly except when my upstream bandwidth is saturated. My questions are: Is downgrading to SIP firmware the only way to have my Mediatrix 4102 run in TAS mode? If not, anybody knows how to setup TAS on the DGW firmware? Is TAS mode the only way to give priority to the voice packets if I want to keep my current router (Apple Time Capsule)? Thanks!

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  • Avoid read-write access to bad sectors on HDD to continue working on the HDD

    - by goldenmean
    I have a HP Pavilion dv6446 notebook. It had Windows Vista Home premium. After 4.5+ years of usage, just recently it started malfunctioning. While working fine, its screen goes white or sometimes some thin black lines horizontally. Laptop freezes. Hard reboot works. Again it works for some 2 hrs or so, same error. To diagnose I did run the Memory and Hard disk check which is present in the Bios Setup. Memory test passed. Hard disk test returned an error saying something like - "Replace the hard disk". Bad.. Some sectors or platters have gone bad on the disk. (I confirmed this later by further tests mentioned below) Then I tried installing a Ubuntu 11.10. It listed 3 partitions /dev/sda1, sda2, sda2. It again gave error and could not install grub loader on /dev/sda1. Bad sectors. Then redid the Ubuntu installation, this time asked to to install the Ubuntu on /dev/sda3. and kept /dev/sda1 for /home. Installed fine, and works fine as well. Due to unavailability of WiFi/ Ethernet driver for that adapters under Ubuntu( at least I could not configure them and get the networking working at all), I decided to go back to reinstall windows Vista. It did install fine. I did not have to format one data partition which has my data. I just formatted one partition which installed Windows So in effect HDD has not undergone a full format here. Worked ok for 1 day. But same white screen and freeze happened. Looks like while it is in use, it accesses the bad sectors for storing some data and that's when it bombs. I am inclined to think HDD has not failed fully or crashed but has developed bad sectors. Else if it was a HDD crash, it would have refused to boot at all let alone install on it. Questions: Is there any HDD test check under windows or any such tools windows/linux based ewhere which can identify the bad sectors of the HDD and 'lock/isolate' them from further read-write access of any kind. If not what are my options, if any to salvage this laptop HDD without replacing it. EDIT: Would the Disk Error checking tool under windows help in any way?

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  • nginx probably deliering wrong filetype for .css file with php tags

    - by Katai
    And again - NGINX is giving me many Questions today :) Like always, I already tried around for a while, but cant seem to fix this issue: I just configured NGINX to handle my .css files equal to my .php files (to parse PHP tags inside the CSS file). This works perfectly, and the file is found and delivered. I could debug it with FIrebug, and everything is OK (it displays the contents of the .css inside the opened <link> tag). So, everything working, right? Wrong. It has the CSS, but it does not interpret it! What I mean by this: apparently, the file-type of the CSS (or aplication-type, whatever) is wrong. The Page can access the CSS, but doesnt bother at all to actually use it. What I checked / tried: There are no PHP errors inside of the .css, so that one is out The .css is accessible. I can call the URI manually, or check if the included URL finds it: both works The .css has no syntax errors (i switched to a css that just has body {background-color: #000; } It works whitout NGINX I deleted the browser cache / restarted NGINX after config rewrites Here the configuration: server { listen 80; server_name localhost; access_log /var/log/nginx/board.access_log; error_log /var/log/nginx/board.error_log warn; root /var/www/board/public; index index.php; fastcgi_index index.php; location / { try_files $uri $uri /index.php; } location ~ (\.php|\.css)$ { try_files $uri =404; include /etc/nginx/fastcgi_params; #keepalive_timeout 0; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME $document_root$fastcgi_script_name; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:7777; } } Firebug 'Network' Response Header: Connection keep-alive Content-Encoding gzip Content-Type text/html Date Sat, 16 Jun 2012 10:08:40 GMT Server nginx/1.0.5 Transfer-Encoding chunked X-Powered-By PHP/5.3.6-13ubuntu3.7 I think I just answered my own question. Is the Content-Type text/html the problem? How can I remove that? My personal guess is that I have to use this in some way include /etc/nginx/mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; But I'm not sure... anyone an idea how to solve this? TLDR; CSS file is delivered correctly, but it doesnt seem to be 'used' as CSS from the browser. (Tested, works on apache)

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  • PHPMyAdmin works with https Only (not http)

    - by 01010011
    Hi I've been having a problem getting phpmyadmin to work consistently on my XP desktop and laptop computers for months now. When I type into Chrome's browser on both machines, localhost/phpmyadmin, I kept getting Error #1045 Access Denied for user at root@localhost (using password yes). Eventually, I realized that I had two (2) versions of mysql installed (XAMPP and MySQL Server 5.1) on both machines. So I uninstalled the MySQL Server 5.1I from the desktop and phpmyadmin worked. But when I uninstalled MySQL Server 5.1 from my laptop, it did not work. But I realized I could still get into MySQL Commandline Client using my password and that my databases were still intact. So I uninstalled and reinstalled XAMPP on the laptop and phpmyadmin worked after that. Now I have a new problem. On phpMyAdmin's home page has a message at the bottom: Your configuration file contains settings (root with no password) that correspond to the default MySQL privileged account. Your MySQL server is running with this default, is open to intrusion, and you really should fix this security hole by setting a password for user 'root'. So I located the following lines in config.inc.php file: /* Authentication type and info */ $cfg['Servers'][$i]['auth_type'] = 'config'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['user'] = 'root'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['password'] = ''; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['AllowNoPassword'] = true; and I just changed the last 2 lines as follows: $cfg['Servers'][$i]['password'] = 'mypassword'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['AllowNoPassword'] = false; As soon as I did that and I tried to access phpmyadmin again, I got the Error #1045 message again, but when I tried https://localhost/phpmyadmin/ I got a red page saying this sites certificate is not trusted would you like to proceed anyway. And now it only works using https. I would really like to settle all my phpmyadmin problems once and for all so here are my questions: 1. Why does my laptop only access phpmyadmin via https? 2. How do I change my password in my configuration file? Also, if you have any other tips regarding phpMyAdmin, they are very welcome. Thanks in advance

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  • IIS/ASP.NET performance incident - Perfmon Current Annonymous Users going through roof but Requests/sec low

    - by Laurence
    Setup: ASP.NET 4.0 website on IIS 6.0 on Win 2003 64 bit, 8xCPUs, 16GB memory, separate SQL 2005 DB server. Had a serious slowdown today with any otherwise fairly well performing ASP.NET site. For a period of a couple of hours all page requests were taking a very long time to be served - e.g. 30-60s compared to usual 2s. The w3wp.exe's CPU and memory usage on the webserver was not much higher than normal. The application pool was not in the middle of recycling (and it hadn't recycled for several hours). Bottlenecks in the database were ruled out - no blocks occurring and query results were being returned quickly. I couldn't make any sense of it and set up the following Perfmon counters: Current Anonymous Users (for site in question) Get requests/sec (ditto) Requests/sec for the ASP.NET application running the site Get requests/sec was averaging 100-150. Requests/sec for ASP.NET was averaging 5-10. However Current Anonymous Users was around 200. And then as I was watching, the Current Anonymous Users began to climb steeply going up to about 500 within a few minutes. All this time Get requests/sec & Requests/sec for ASP.NET was if anything going down. I did a whole load of things (in a panic!) to try to get the site working, like shutting it down, recycling the app pool, and adding another worker process to the pool. I also extended the expiration time for content (in IIS under HTTP Headers) in an attempt to lower the number of requests for static files (there are a lot of images on the site). The site is now back to normal, and the counters are fairly steady and reading (added Current Connections counter): Current Anonymous Users : average 30 Get requests/sec : average 100 Requests/sec for ASP.NET : 5 Current Connections : average 300 I have also observed an inverse relationship between Get requests/sec & Current Anonymous Users. Usually both are fairly steady but there will be short periods when Get requests/sec will go down dramatically and Current Anonymous Users will go up in a perfect mirror image. Then they will flip back to their usual levels. So, my questions are: Thinking of the original performance issue - if w3wp.exe CPU, memory usage were normal and there was no DB bottleneck, what could explain page requests taking 20 times longer to be served than usual? What other counters should I be looking at if this happens again? What explains the inverse relationship between Get requests/sec & Current Anonymous Users? What could explain Current Anonymous Users going from 200 to 500 within a few minutes? Many thanks for any insight into this.

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  • Hibernating and booting into another OS: will my filesystems be corrupted?

    - by Ryan Thompson
    Suppose I have Windows and Linux installed on the same computer. If I hibernate Windows, can I boot into Linux without corrupting the Windows filesystem when I resume Windows? What about the other way around? What if I hibernate one, boot into the other, and mount the hibernated filesystem read/write? Read-only? If this is unsafe, is there any way to detect the hibernated state of the other OS and prevent mounting its filesystem? Basically, how far can I push this before it breaks, and how dangerous is it near the edge? I think I know the answers to some of the above questions, but for other ones, I have no idea, and for obvious reasons I have not tested this on my own computer. If someone has tested these, please enlighten the rest of us. I'm not necessarily looking for a specific answer to every question; I'll accept any response that answers a reasonable portion. EDIT: Let me clarify that when I say "hibernate," I mean the process of writing the contents of RAM to the hard disk and completely powering down the computer. In this state, powering the computer back on brings you through the BIOS and bootloader again, and you could theoretically select another operating system on a multi-boot system. Anyway, on with the original question: RESULTS Ok, after everyone's assurances that this would work, I tested it for myself. I set up Ubuntu to remount all ntfs filesystems and external drives read-only before hibernating. There was no need for a similar Windows setup because Windows does not read Linux filesystems. Then, I tried alternately hibernating one operating system and resuming the other, back and forth a few times. I even tried mounting the Windows filesystem from Ubuntu read-write, and creating a few files. Windows didn't complain when I resumed. So, in conclusion, you can more or less freely hibernate in a dual-boot Windows/Linux scenario. Note that I did not test a dual Linux/Linux co-hibernation situation. If you have two or more Linux installs and you hibernate one of them, you might be able to corrupt the filesystem by mounting it from another.

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  • How to move Mailboxes over from old Exchange 2007 to new EBS 2008 network?

    - by Qwerty
    Hi all, This q is similar to: http://serverfault.com/questions/39070/how-to-move-exchange-2003-mailbox-or-store-from-2003-to-2007-on-separate-networks Basically I am trying to move our exchange mailboxes over to a test domain that is hosting EBS2008 with Exchange 2007. We plan to move as soon as we can when we have our exchange data over. I have tried moving a db with mailboxes over but cannot get it to mount in the new Exchange in any way possible, including mounting it onto a recovery store. From my understanding the ONLY prerequisite for moving Exchange DBs across is that it must have the same Organizational name (unlike previous versions of Exchange). If anyone has any insight as to why I cannot mount and simply reattach the mailboxes, please give me an idea as to what could be wrong. It should be as simple as this. Note that the DBs I have are in a clean state. I cannot use ExMerge because I am not running any mailboxes on 2003. I have also tried using a 32bit Vista machine with the Export-Mailbox cmdlet to extract mailboxes but anything I do to it results in Permission errors. I have tried to troubleshoot these with no success. I am running in full admin with proper exchange roles and yet it still gives me access denied errors: Export-Mailbox : MapiExceptionNetworkError: Unable to make admin interface conn ection to server. (hr=0x80040115, ec=-2147221227) Also some errors show in the management console: get-MailboxDatabase Completed Warning: ERROR: Could not connect to the Microsoft Exchange Information Store service on server TATOOINE.baytech.local. One of the following problems may be occurring: 1- The Microsoft Exchange Information Store service is not running. 2- There is no network connectivity to server TATOOINE.baytech.local. 3- You do not have sufficient permissions to perform this command. The following permissions are required to perform this command: Exchange View-Only Administrator and local administrators group for the target server. 4- Credentials have been cached for an unpriviledged user. Try removing the entry for this server from Stored User Names and Passwords. Why I have to use a 32bit machine to export a simple .pst file is beyond me... So yeah I am now out of ideas and any help would be great! Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I troubleshoot Virtualbox port forwarding from Windows guest to OSX host not working?

    - by joe larson
    There are a plethora of questions about virtual box port forwarding problems but none with my specific details. I have a Windows install living in Virtual Box, hosted within OSX. I've got several webservers running on localhost on different ports within the Windows install. I cannot for the life of me get port forwarding to work so I can access those webservers from OSX. My settings look like this (yes I have a NAT adapter): And in my vbox configuration file the relavent portion looks like this: <NAT> <DNS pass-domain="true" use-proxy="false" use-host-resolver="false"/> <Alias logging="false" proxy-only="false" use-same-ports="false"/> <Forwarding name="RLPWeb" proto="1" hostport="7084" guestip="127.0.0.1" guestport="7084"/> <Forwarding name="UtilWeb" proto="1" hostport="4040" guestip="127.0.0.1" guestport="4040"/> <Forwarding name="WCARLP" proto="1" hostport="8084" guestip="127.0.0.1" guestport="8084"/> <Forwarding name="WCAUtil" proto="1" hostport="4848" guestip="127.0.0.1" guestport="4848"/> </NAT> I've turned off the Windows firewall to ensure it is not interfering, and I am not running a firewall on OSX. Anyway, when I attempt to go to for example http://127.0.0.1:4040/ on any of my OSX browsers, it will eventually time out. The log file for this VM shows that it is correctly reading the settings and implying it's doing the right thing here: 00:00:08.286 NAT: set redirect TCP host port 4848 => guest port 4848 @ 127.0.0.1 00:00:08.286 NAT: set redirect TCP host port 8084 => guest port 8084 @ 127.0.0.1 00:00:08.286 NAT: set redirect TCP host port 4040 => guest port 4040 @ 127.0.0.1 00:00:08.286 NAT: set redirect TCP host port 7084 => guest port 7084 @ 127.0.0.1 00:00:08.290 Changing the VM state from 'LOADING' to 'SUSPENDED'. 00:00:08.290 Changing the VM state from 'SUSPENDED' to 'RESUMING'. 00:00:08.290 Changing the VM state from 'RESUMING' to 'RUNNING'. 00:00:08.337 Display::handleDisplayResize(): uScreenId = 0, pvVRAM=000000012017d000 w=1834 h=929 bpp=32 cbLine=0x1CA8, flags=0x1 00:00:09.139 AIOMgr: Host limits number of active IO requests to 16. Expect a performance impact. 00:00:13.454 NAT: DHCP offered IP address 10.0.2.15 I've tried setting the Host IP to 127.0.0.1, and I've tried setting Guest IP blank and also 10.0.2.15. None of these seem to help. What else can I look at to troubleshoot this issue? Details of setup: OSX 10.6.8 Windows 7 Professional 64bit VirtualBox 4.1.2

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  • Wiimote accelerometer input on Windows? (in 2013 - Glovepie alternative?)

    - by user568458
    There were a few options for getting accelerometer input into Windows using a Nintendo Wiimote. As of mid 2013, these projects seem to be dead, corrupted with malware, or both. Are there any tools out there that can do this that are still available (and not full of malware)? Quick roundup of the options that used to exist, or that still exist but aren't suitable: Glovepie, which used to be the most recommended option, appears to be dead: it's own website hacked, its creator's googlepages page full of strange stuff that sounds like hacker-humour about the end of the world... (I'd rather not link to them, very dubious stuff...), and lots of forum threads asking if it's a dead project with comments along the lines of "I heard that the author intends to return to it" dated 2011... Wiiuse seems to be dead: its sourceforge page simply says "Error.", its own website has turned into a squatter page. There apparently was an extension for Autohotkey that allowed Wiimote input, but I've seen warnings that this too is now full of malware (see final commentin above link) Everything else I can find about using Wiimotes as input on Windows - for example, Johnny Lee Cheng's work - seems to be exclusively about using infrared or sensor bar, or tied to a specific purpose (e.g. FPS gaming). My main interest is in the accelerometer, and buttons if possible (although something that supports the IR stuff too would be ideal). Is there anything that works for getting Wiimote accelerometer input into Windows that is reliable and not a malware-fest? If anyone's interested in "Why?", it's to use the Wiimote as an audio / midi controller: to use movement, pitch, roll etc to modulate lots of different sound variables at once with one hand. Wiimotes are great for this, and Glovepie used to be the standard way to make this work (e.g. see for example this tutorial, and this one, ignore the unrelated video; I've also seen musicians using wiimote/glovepie setups at gigs, creating some really unique sounds). As of 2013, however, Glovepie seems to be a dead and thoroughly hacked project, sadly. Is there anything else? With or without MotionPlus is fine (with would be better). If anyone knows of any worthy alternatives to Wiimotes in terms of price and quality that can be made to work with a PC, that would also be great: but in my research I coulnd't find any (here's a link to someone reaching the same conclusion). found some potentially relevant stuff here, not had time to test any of it yet though - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2984450/using-accelerometer-in-wiimote-for-physics-practicals

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  • Expectations for NTFS file recovery

    - by Fred Hamilton
    Yesterday I booted my XP system, and as I looked up a minute later I saw the light blue screen and tail-end of that pre-boot diskcheck Windows sometimes does if it finds an error (or was previously told to run a diskcheck drung the next boot). I didn't worry about it at the moment... But then I looked at my "scratch" disk, which was a 70% full, 750GB hard disk...and it now looks like it has been freshly formatted. It doesn't have a single file on it, just the hidden "System Volume Information" file and 750GB of freedom from data. I looked at some of the recovery tools from the Free NTFS partition recovery question and decided to try PC INSPECTOR™ File Recovery 4.x initially. It ran overnight and afterwards returned a list of thousands of files it could recover. The odd thing was that the filenames were lost, but the file extensions were not (WTF?). And all of the files were exactly 1,472kB in size. I recovered a dozen PDFs as a test, and 80% of them displayed OK despite being padded out to 1.5MB (though I assume any files 1472kB are hosed). My primary question is: Is this the best I can expect from any file recovery software when trying to recover NTFS files? Or is there perhaps something better out there? I assume this is as good as it gets, but wanted to check in with the experts first. Bonus questions: What might have happened to my drive? I didn't intentionally format it. I've never seen a disk error cause the drive to suddenly become a clean, reformatted drive. Could some malicious/confused software have told my PC to format my disk on reboot? Is that even a function Windows XP has? Why can the file extensions be recovered but not the filename? Does NTFS really treat them as separate entities? I thought I had 8.3 naming turned off, but maybe that had something to do with it. Or maybe it looks at the data in the file and guesses the extension?

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  • lacp, cicso 3550, 3560, help with configuration

    - by Flamewires
    Hey all this is a repost from a question I asked on the cisco forums but never got a useful reply. Hey I'm trying to convert the FreeBSD servers at work to dual-gig lagg links from regular gigabit links. Our production servers are on a 3560. I have a small test environment on a 3550. I have achieved fail-over, but am having troubles achieving the speed increase. All servers are running gig intel (em) cards. The configs for the servers are: BSDServer: #!/bin/sh #bring up both interfaces ifconfig em0 up media 1000baseTX mediaopt full-duplex ifconfig em1 up media 1000baseTX mediaopt full-duplex #create the lagg interface ifconfig lagg0 create #set lagg0's protocol to lacp, add both cards to the interface, #and assign it em1's ip/netmask ifconfig lagg0 laggproto lacp laggport em0 laggport em1 ***.***.***.*** netmask 255.255.255.0 The switches are configured as follows: #clear out old junk no int Po1 default int range GigabitEthernet 0/15 - 16 # config ports interface range GigabitEthernet 0/15 - 16 description lagg-test switchport duplex full speed 1000 switchport access vlan 192 spanning-tree portfast channel-group 1 mode active channel-protocol lacp **** switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q **** no shutdown exit interface Port-channel 1 description lagginterface switchport access vlan 192 exit port-channel load-balance src-mac end obviously change 1000's to 100's and GigabitEthernet to FastEthernet for the 3550's config, as that switch has 100Mbit speed ports. With this config on the 3550, I get failover and 92Mbits/sec speed on both links, simultaneously, connecting to 2 hosts.(tested with iperf) Success. However this is only with the "switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q" line. First, I do not understand why I need this, I thought it was only for connecting switches. Is there some other setting which this turns on that is actually responsible for the speed increase? Second, This config does not work on the 3560. I get failover, but not the speed increase. Speeds drop from gig/sec to 500Mbit/sec when I make 2 simultaneous connections to the server with or without the encapsulation line. I should mention that both switches are using source-mac load balancing. In my test I am using Iperf. I have the server(lagg box) setup as the server(iperf -s), and the client computers are client(iperf -c server-ip-address), so the source mac(and IP) are different for both connections. Any ideas/corrections/questions would be helpful, as the gig switches are what I actually need the lagg links on. Ask if you need more information.

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  • How to configure Transparent IP Address Sharing (TAS) on a Mediatrix 4102 with DGW 2.0 firmware?

    - by Pascal Bourque
    I am making the switch to VoIP. I chose voip.ms as my service provider and Mediatrix 4102 as my ATA. One reason why I chose the Mediatrix over other popular consumer ATAs is that it's supposed to be easy to place it in front of the router, so it can give priority to its own upstream traffic over the home network's upstream traffic. This is supposed to work transparently, with the ATA and router sharing the same public IP address (the one obtained from the modem). They call this feaure Transparent IP Address Sharing, or TAS. Their promotional brochure describes it like this: The Mediatrix 4102 also uses its innovative TAS (Transparent IP Address Sharing) technology and an embedded PPPoE client to allow the PC (or router) connected to the second Ethernet port to have the same public IP address, eliminating the need for private IP addresses or address translations. I am interested by this feature because my router, an Apple Time Capsule, doesn't support QoS and cannot give priority to the voice packets if the ATA is behind the router. However, after hours of searching the web, reading the documentation, and good ol' trial and error, I haven't been able to configure the Mediatrix to run in this mode. Then I found a version of the manual that looks like it was for a previous version of the firmware (SIP), where there is an entire section dedicated to configuring TAS (starting at page 209). But my Mediatrix comes with the DGW 2.0 firmware, whose documentation does not mention TAS at all. So I tried to follow the TAS setup instructions from the SIP documentation and apply them to my DGW firmware, using the Variable Mapping Between SIP v5.0 and DGW v2.0 document as a reference, but no success. Some required SIP variables don't have an equivalent in DGW. So it looks like the DGW firmware does not support TAS at all, or if it does they are not doing anything to help us set it up. So right now, the Mediatrix is behind the router and VoIP works perfectly except when my upstream bandwidth is saturated. My questions are: Is downgrading to SIP firmware the only way to have my Mediatrix 4102 run in TAS mode? If not, anybody knows how to setup TAS on the DGW firmware? Is TAS mode the only way to give priority to the voice packets if I want to keep my current router (Apple Time Capsule)? Thanks!

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  • HAproxy roundrobin balancing does not appear to be distributing evently

    - by andrew
    Hello, I know that with loaded servers, roundrobin in HAproxy (1.4.4) does not evenly distribute, but my servers are currently getting NO traffic (test setup), and roundrobin balancing does www1,www1,www1,www1,www1,...www2,www2,www2,...,www1... I'm verifying this by having the script being run on each server cat /etc/HOSTNAME (slackware). I need to have it switch back and forth each time to test some session stuff (stored in shared memcached) but am having trouble getting it to switch between my two web servers on each request. global log 127.0.0.1 local0 warning maxconn 4096 chroot /usr/share/haproxy pidfile /var/run/haproxy.pid uid 99 gid 99 daemon defaults balance roundrobin fullconn 100 maxconn 4096 mode http option dontlognull option http-server-close option forwardfor option redispatch retries 3 timeout connect 5000 timeout client 20000 timeout server 60000 timeout queue 60000 stats enable stats uri /haproxy stats auth ***:*** frontend www *:80 log global acl is_upload hdr_dom(host) -i uploads.site.com acl is_api hdr_dom(host) -i api.site.com acl is_dev hdr_dom(host) -i dev.site.com acl is_apidev hdr_dom(host) -i apidev.site.com use_backend uploads.site.com if is_upload use_backend api.site.com if is_api use_backend dev.site.com if is_dev !is_apidev default_backend site.com backend site.com option httpchk HEAD /alive.php HTTP/1.1\r\nHost:site.com server www1 1.1.1.1:8080 weight 10 minconn 5 maxconn 25 check inter 2000 rise 2 fall 2 server www2 1.1.1.2:8080 weight 10 minconn 5 maxconn 25 check inter 2000 rise 2 fall 2 backend api.site.com option httpchk HEAD /alive.php HTTP/1.1\r\nHost:api.site.com server www1 1.1.1.1:8080 weight 10 minconn 5 maxconn 25 check inter 2000 rise 2 fall 2 server www2 1.1.1.2:8080 weight 10 minconn 5 maxconn 25 check inter 2000 rise 2 fall 2 backend dev.site.com option httpchk HEAD /alive.php HTTP/1.1\r\nHost:dev.site.com server www1 1.1.1.1:8080 weight 10 minconn 5 maxconn 25 check inter 2000 rise 2 fall 2 server www2 1.1.1.2:8080 weight 10 minconn 5 maxconn 25 check inter 2000 rise 2 fall 2 backend uploads.site.com option httpchk HEAD /alive.php HTTP/1.1\r\nHost:uploads.site.com server www1 1.1.1.1:8080 weight 10 minconn 5 maxconn 25 check inter 2000 rise 2 fall 2 server www2 1.1.1.2:8080 backup weight 10 minconn 5 maxconn 25 check inter 2000 rise 2 fall 2 So basically, I have some different back-ends (I've verified the ACLs are working), with the default option "roundrobin" selected. I've tried removing weights, removing the minconn/maxconn/fullconn attributes for all servers (not just the backend I'm testing), tried removing the ACLs, etc. I've been testing on dev.site.com BTW. Anyone see a reason why I can't get something like www1,www2,www1,www2,...? Also, this is one of my first questions on here, so please let me know if I left anything needed out of my post. Thanks!

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  • No login prompt displayed after updating Ubuntu 10.04, broken gdm

    - by cliff
    So here's what happens: I updated my system the other day, was prompted for a reboot for the update to complete but was in the middle of working so I delayed it until after I was done. I reboot and it's broken :(. It appears to boot normally, with the following exceptions: The purple Ubuntu load screen no longer displays (though it did for the first couple of times I tried to get in). I hear the login prompt sound, but no login prompt appears. Nor is it simply "invisible" - pressing enter, typing my password, and pressing enter again do nothing. Normally my Bluetooth mouse is functional at this point, but it is not. GRUB displays recovery options for my current kernel, and for an older one (2.6.32-24). Trying to boot into .32-24 gives me an error saying "udevadm can't do something while udev is not configured". So I try solutions listed here: http://superuser.com/questions/195786/ubuntu-update-went-wrong-pc-doesnt-boot-how-can-i-repair-it Nothing I tried seemed to work, and after further Googling my hunch is that it's a problem with gdm. Please correct me if I'm wrong, I don't know all that much about how Linux/Ubuntu systems work just yet. Things I'm able to do: Boot to a live CD Ctrl-Alt-F2 after that login sound plays brings me to a console login, which I can successfully do (it's how I tried the solutions above). This works only under the current kernel. A hack I'd be willing to explore is removing the login prompt from the console, but I'd prefer to "simply" fix what's wrong. Like that guy, I need to repair the system rather than reinstall. System: Dell Inspiron 1525 Core 2 Duo Proprietary Driver for Broadcom 43xx wireless Dual-boot with Windows 7 (which is how I'm posting this, unfortunately I only have this machine and any experimenting requires constant reboots into Windows/brokenbuntu) Last package installed was Moonlight, but it appeared to install properly. Kernel: 2.6.32-25 Edit: After working with Karl's suggestions, it seems that the problem is with gdm. Error exit status 245 when attempting to sudo apt-get install --reinstall gdm, also an error processing gdm when running sudo apt-get -f install. How do I reinstall or repair gdm so that I can get back into my machine?

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  • PCI-DSS compliance for business with only swipe terminals [migrated]

    - by rowatt
    I support the IT infrastructure for a small retail business which is now required to undergo a PCI-DSS assessment. The payment service and terminal provider (Streamline) has asked that we use Trustwave to do the PCI-DSS certification. The problem I face is that if I answer all questions and follow Trustwave's requirements to the letter, we will have to invest significantly in networking equipment to segment LANs and /or do internal vulnerability scanning, while at the same time Streamline assures me that the terminals we have (Verifone VX670-B and MagIC3 X-8) are secure, don't store any credit card information and are PCI-DSS compliant so by implication we don't need to take any action to ensure their network security. I'm looking for any suggestions as to how we can most easily meet the networking requirements for PCI-DSS. Some background on our current network setup: single wired LAN, also with WiFi turned on (though if this creates any PCI-DSS complexities we can turn it off). single Netgear ADSL router. This is the only firewall we have in place, and the firewall is out the box configuration (i.e. no DMZ, SNMP etc). Passwords have been changed though :-) a few windows PCs and 2 windows based tills, none of which ever see any credit card information at all. two swipe terminals. Until a few months ago (before we were told we had to be PCI-DSS certified) these terminals did auth/capture over the phone. Streamline suggested we moved to their IP Broadband service, which instead uses an SSL encrypted channel over the internet to do auth/capture, so we now use that service. We don't do any ecommerce or receive payments over the internet. All transactions are either cardholder present, or MOTO with details given over phone and typed direct into terminal. We're based in the UK. As I currently understand it we have three options in order to get PCI-DSS certification. segment our network so the POS terminals are isolated from all PCs, and set up internal vulnerability scanning on that network. don't segment the network, and have to do more internal scanning and have more onerous management of PCs than I think we need (for example, though the tills are Windows based, they are fully managed so I have no control over software update policies, anti virus etc). All PCs have anti virus (MSE) and windows updates automatically applied, but we don't have any centralised go back to auth/capture over phone lines. I can't imagine we are the first merchant to be in this situation. I'm looking for any recommendations a simple, cost effective way to be PCI-DSS compliant - either by doing 1 or 2 above with (hopefully) simple and inexpensive equipment/software, or any other ways if there's a better way to do this. Or... should we just go back to the digital stone age and do auth/capture over the phone, which means we don't need to do anything on our network to be PCI-DSS certified?

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  • Windows 2003 GPO Software Restrictions

    - by joeqwerty
    We're running a Terminal Server farm in a Windows 2003 Domain, and I found a problem with the Software Restrictions GPO settings that are being applied to our TS servers. Here are the details of our configuration and the problem: All of our servers (Domain Controllers and Terminal Servers) are running Windows Server 2003 SP2 and both the domain and forest are at Windows 2003 level. Our TS servers are in an OU where we have specific GPO's linked and have inheritance blocked, so only the TS specific GPO's are applied to these TS servers. Our users are all remote and do not have workstations joined to our domain, so we don't use loopback policy processing. We take a "whitelist" approach to allowing users to run applications, so only applications that we approve and add as path or hash rules are able to run. We have the Security Level in Software Restrictions set to Disallowed and Enforcement is set to "All software files except libraries". What I've found is that if I give a user a shortcut to an application, they're able to launch the application even if it's not in the Additional Rules list of "whitelisted" applications. If I give a user a copy of the main executable for the application and they attempt to launch it, they get the expected "this program has been restricted..." message. It appears that the Software Restrictions are indeed working, except for when the user launches an application using a shortcut as opposed to launching the application from the main executable itself, which seems to contradict the purpose of using Software Restrictions. My questions are: Has anyone else seen this behavior? Can anyone else reproduce this behavior? Am I missing something in my understanding of Software Restrictions? Is it likely that I have something misconfigured in Software Restrictions? EDIT To clarify the problem a little bit: No higher level GPO's are being enforced. Running gpresults shows that in fact, only the TS level GPO's are being applied and I can indeed see my Software Restictions being applied. No path wildcards are in use. I'm testing with an application that is at "C:\Program Files\Application\executable.exe" and the application executable is not in any path or hash rule. If the user launches the main application executable directly from the application's folder, the Software Restrictions are enforced. If I give the user a shortcut that points to the application executable at "C:\Program Files\Application\executable.exe" then they are able to launch the program. EDIT Also, LNK files are listed in the Designated File Types, so they should be treated as executable, which should mean that they are bound by the same Software Restrictions settings and rules.

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  • eAccelerator settings for PHP/Centos/Apache

    - by bobbyh
    I have eAccelerator installed on a server running Wordpress using PHP/Apache on CentOS. I am occassionally getting persistent "white pages", which presumably are PHP Fatal Errors (although these errors don't appear in my error_log). These "white pages" are sprinkled here and there throughout the site. They persist until I go to my eAccelerator control.php page and clear/clean/purge my caches, which suggests to me that I've configured eAccelerator improperly. Here are my current /etc/php.ini settings: memory_limit = 128M; eaccelerator.shm_size="64", where shm.size is "the amount of shared memory eAccelerator should allocate to cache PHP scripts" (see http://eaccelerator.net/wiki/Settings) eaccelerator.shm_max="0", where shm_max is "the maximum size a user can put in shared memory with functions like eaccelerator_put ... The default value is "0" which disables the limit" eaccelerator.shm_ttl="0" - "When eAccelerator doesn't have enough free shared memory to cache a new script it will remove all scripts from shared memory cache that haven't been accessed in at least shm_ttl seconds. By default this value is set to "0" which means that eAccelerator won't try to remove any old scripts from shared memory." eaccelerator.shm_prune_period="0" - "When eAccelerator doesn't have enough free shared memory to cache a script it tries to remove old scripts if the previous try was made more then "shm_prune_period" seconds ago. Default value is "0" which means that eAccelerator won't try to remove any old script from shared memory." eaccelerator.keys = "shm_only" - "These settings control the places eAccelerator may cache user content. ... 'shm_only' cache[s] data in shared memory" On my phpinfo page, it says: memory_limit 128M Version 0.9.5.3 and Caching Enabled true On my eAccelerator control.php page, it says 64 MB of total RAM available Memory usage 77.70% (49.73MB/ 64.00MB) 27.6 MB is used by cached scripts in the PHP opcode cache (I added up the file sizes myself) 22.1 MB is used by the cache keys, which is populated by the Wordpress object cache. My questions are: Is it true that there is only 36.4 MB of room in the eAccelerator cache for total "cache keys" (64 MB of total RAM minus whatever is taken by cached scripts, which is 27.6 MB at the moment)? What happens if my app tries to write more than 22.1 MB of cache keys to the eAccelerator memory cache? Does this cause eAccelerator to go crazy, like I've seen? If I change eaccelerator.shm_max to be equal to (say) 32 MB, would that avoid this problem? Do I also need to change shm_ttl and shm_prune_period to make eAccelerator respect the MB limit set by shm_max? Thanks! :-)

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  • Changing Physical Path gives blank homepage

    - by Julie
    I have two websites ASP Classic - www.company.com and www.companytesting.com. At this time of year, company.com is pointed to a folder called website2012 and companytesting.com is pointing to a folder called website2013. The contents of those two folders are almost identical, just minor changes for our season change (which I was supposed to do today - lol). Up until a couple of weeks ago, I was running Windows Server 2003. To update the "live" website, I'd make a copy of the test site folder, and rename it website2013R1, and point the test site there, then point the live site at website2012. We now have Windows Server 2008 R2 64. (I had someone migrate the websites to the new server for me.) The companytesting.com site, when I pointed it to website2013R1, worked fine. The company.com site, when I pointed it to website2013 (which worked just before, for the companytesting.com site) gives an empty page. (i.e. view source = nothing there.) There is nothing in the failed request log when this happens. I can use the Explore button/link (upper right) in IIS7.5 and see all of the files there. If I use the browse button (either in general or on the index.asp page) I get the blank page again. One weirdness about how these are set up is that companytesting.com uses a login (which I think is windows authentication - it's simply a single username and password for staff, and to keep the GoogleBots out of it). Obviously, company.com does not. But redirecting the to website2013r1 kept the login in place. (So I'm not absolutely clear whether that's attached to the folder or to the site. Hitting the company.com site after changing the path did not yield a password request.) The permissions on the folders all seem to be the same, but obviously, I'm missing something. Why isn't changing the physical path working? As is probably obvious, I'm not knowledgeable about servers. I did OK in 2003, but since it's not my main task and I'm buried right now, I have barely looked at 2008. So I may have really stupid questions when you ask me to check something.

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  • DLINK WBR-1310B Wireless Router seems to hang...

    - by Ira Baxter
    I have a brand new DLINK-1310B Wireless Router (box never before opened, although I bought it at the neighborhood computer junk store). I am using it at home (and in fact am using it at this instant from a wireless laptop). When operative, I can ping it at 192.168.0.1, and I can log into it from the PC attached to it by LAN and from the wireless PC at //192.168.0.1. In the course of the day since I've installed, it seems to have locked up 3 times. Each time the symptoms are my web browser (or other IP service, e.g., POP3) stops with a "No internet connection" error. Attempts to contact the router via 192.168.0.1 get no reaction, from either the wireless laptop or from the hardwired PC sitting next to it. It doesn't respond to pings to that address either. Power cycling the router fixes it. I've seen discussion in other questions about aging cheap electronics. Its too new to be aged. Anybody else seen this behavior with a DLINK-1310? Or do I just need to exchange it for another and try again? (I hate rolling dice, I bought the DLINK because a previous Linksys died of apparant heating problems, how many do I have to cycle through before I get something that works and is long-term stable?). Remarkably, nobody talks about how much software is in a router. Is the stuff just buggy? EDIT: Happened again, while I was working on the wireless Vista laptop. (Seems like once an hour?) I was a little more careful this time. The wireless laptop can ping it. It can't get the login screen. I visited the LAN-connected PC (takes me a minute to walk from the laptop to the PC at the other end of the house), and attempted to visit a random web page. Surprise, that worked! And, now, after a minute walking back to the laptop, I can reconnect the wireless laptop, and get to the login page from it. Strange the time/date has been reset back to 2002. (I'll swear I set it and saved the system configuration after updating the firmware; it made me redo every other bit of reconfiguration again). Is there something funny about wireless leases expiring? The router says the leases it is handing out are good for 180 minutes, and the delay-to-inaccessible was only about an hour. The DSL connection seems to have a 10 minute lease.

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  • programatically check if a domain is availible?

    - by acidzombie24
    Using this solution http://serverfault.com/questions/98940/bot-check-if-a-domain-name-is-availible/98956#98956 I wrote a quick script (pasted below) in C# to check if the domain MIGHT be available. A LOT of results come up with taken domains. It looks like all 2 and 3 letter .com domains are taken and it looks like all 3 letter are taken (not including numbers which many are available). Is there a command or website to take my list of domains and check if they are registered or available? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; using System.Diagnostics; using System.IO; namespace domainCheck { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var sw = (TextWriter)File.CreateText(@"c:\path\aviliableUrlsCA.txt"); int countIndex = 0; int letterAmount=3; char [] sz = new char[letterAmount]; for(int z=0; z<letterAmount; z++) { sz[z] = '0'; } //*/ List<string> urls = new List<string>(); //var sz = "df3".ToCharArray(); int i=0; while (i <letterAmount) { if (sz[i] == '9') sz[i] = 'a'; else if (sz[i] == 'z') { if (i != 0 && i != letterAmount - 1) sz[i] = '-'; else { sz[i] = 'a'; i++; continue; } } else if (sz[i] == '-') { sz[i] = 'a'; i++; continue; } else sz[i]++; string uu = new string(sz); string url = uu + ".ca"; Console.WriteLine(url); Process p = new Process(); p.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; p.StartInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; p.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; p.StartInfo.FileName = "nslookup "; p.StartInfo.Arguments = url; p.Start(); var res = ((TextReader) new StreamReader( p.StandardError.BaseStream)).ReadToEnd(); if (res.IndexOf("Non-existent domain") != -1) { sw.WriteLine(uu); if (++countIndex >= 100) { sw.Flush(); countIndex = 0; } urls.Add(uu); Console.WriteLine("Found domain {0}", url); } i = 0; } Console.WriteLine("Writing out list of urls"); foreach (var u in urls) Console.WriteLine(u); sw.Close(); } } }

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  • UAE and the mysteries of unreachable websites

    - by 0plus1
    I write here because I'm really lost, please stay with me because it's not easy to explain. A company asked me to set-up a private server, now I'm a programmer so I got a solution with technical support and cpanel which helped me to setup everything and it's working smoothless. I'm by no means a professional sysadmin, but I have a fair knowledge of server configurations, but this problem is way over my knowledge, and apparently way over the knowledge of most sysadmins, I really hope that here I'll find someone with enough experience to help me or at least give me more insight. Now this company for which I'm consulting operates in the UAE (United Arab Emirates) and from there the server is almost unreachable. It started with ns not registering in the UAE, after a week that sorted itself out and now the site is indeed reachable, but it takes almost 2 minutes to load a webpage with one line of text. Emails go in timeout. The domain currently parked there has been bought appositely for tests, the main one that was supposed to go there, after a catastrophic week has been transferred to a shared hosting solution in the UK, and from there it works like a charme. Now after doing some research I discovered that I'm not alone in this, there are several reports of webmasters discovering that their website is not reachable inside the UAE, and mind this has nothing to do with the state-wide block of questionable sites, because in that case an error message appears, this seems to be related to the infrastructure of the UAE, which apparently reroutes everything through their own "fake" internet. Apparently new servers with their own IP are not recognized (yet?) by the UAE infrastructure, while shared hosting solutions seeing that they operates tons of other websites are more likely to be part of the UAE network. Now my questions are: 1) Has someone a real explanation for this? The only thing I can think of is that the server is on a new IP that is not yet recognized by the UAE, but that doesn't explain why it loads (even if after 2 minutes). I don't have any help from within the UAE as the only people that are "experts" are questionable companies that simply try to sell their own services. 2) If there is really some kind of block of new servers, is it possible to know before if a server is reachable from within the UAE, currently this is not a ns problem as even accessing the server with its IP result in a 2 minute wait. 3) Can it be that the problem lies somewhere else? There are some tests that I can perform? I'm not physically in the UAE, but I can ask the people there, or use teamviewer. Could it be some misconfiguration on the server (mind that the site works EVERYWHERE else in the world). Thank you for ANY kind of help

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  • Backing up data stored on Amazon S3

    - by Fiver
    I have an EC2 instance running a web server that stores users' uploaded files to S3. The files are written once and never change, but are retrieved occasionally by the users. We will likely accumulate somewhere around 200-500GB of data per year. We would like to ensure this data is safe, particularly from accidental deletions and would like to be able to restore files that were deleted regardless of the reason. I have read about the versioning feature for S3 buckets, but I cannot seem to find if recovery is possible for files with no modification history. See the AWS docs here on versioning: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/ObjectVersioning.html In those examples, they don't show the scenario where data is uploaded, but never modified, and then deleted. Are files deleted in this scenario recoverable? Then, we thought we may just backup the S3 files to Glacier using object lifecycle management: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/object-lifecycle-mgmt.html But, it seems this will not work for us, as the file object is not copied to Glacier but moved to Glacier (more accurately it seems it is an object attribute that is changed, but anyway...). So it seems there is no direct way to backup S3 data, and transferring the data from S3 to local servers may be time-consuming and may incur significant transfer costs over time. Finally, we thought we would create a new bucket every month to serve as a monthly full backup, and copy the original bucket's data to the new one on Day 1. Then using something like duplicity (http://duplicity.nongnu.org/) we would synchronize the backup bucket every night. At the end of the month we would put the backup bucket's contents in Glacier storage, and create a new backup bucket using a new, current copy of the original bucket...and repeat this process. This seems like it would work and minimize the storage / transfer costs, but I'm not sure if duplicity allows bucket-to-bucket transfers directly without bringing data down to the controlling client first. So, I guess there are a couple questions here. First, does S3 versioning allow recovery of files that were never modified? Is there some way to "copy" files from S3 to Glacier that I have missed? Can duplicity or any other tool transfer files between S3 buckets directly to avoid transfer costs? Finally, am I way off the mark in my approach to backing up S3 data? Thanks in advance for any insight you could provide!

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  • Simple mdadm RAID 1 not activating spare

    - by Nick Liu
    I had created two 2TB HDD partitions (/dev/sdb1 and /dev/sdc1) in a RAID 1 array called /dev/md0 using mdadm on Ubuntu 12.04 LTS Precise Pangolin. The command sudo mdadm --detail /dev/md0 used to indicate both drives as active sync. Then, for testing, I failed /dev/sdb1, removed it, then added it again with the command sudo mdadm /dev/md0 --add /dev/sdb1 watch cat /proc/mdstat showed a progress bar of the array rebuilding, but I wouldn't spend hours watching it, so I assumed that the software knew what it was doing. After the progress bar was no longer showing, cat /proc/mdstat displays: md0 : active raid1 sdb1[2](S) sdc1[1] 1953511288 blocks super 1.2 [2/1] [U_] And sudo mdadm --detail /dev/md0 shows: /dev/md0: Version : 1.2 Creation Time : Sun May 27 11:26:05 2012 Raid Level : raid1 Array Size : 1953511288 (1863.01 GiB 2000.40 GB) Used Dev Size : 1953511288 (1863.01 GiB 2000.40 GB) Raid Devices : 2 Total Devices : 2 Persistence : Superblock is persistent Update Time : Mon May 28 11:16:49 2012 State : clean, degraded Active Devices : 1 Working Devices : 2 Failed Devices : 0 Spare Devices : 1 Name : Deltique:0 (local to host Deltique) UUID : 49733c26:dd5f67b5:13741fb7:c568bd04 Events : 32365 Number Major Minor RaidDevice State 1 8 33 0 active sync /dev/sdc1 1 0 0 1 removed 2 8 17 - spare /dev/sdb1 I've been told that mdadm automatically replaces removed drives with spares, but /dev/sdb1 isn't being moved into the expected position, RaidDevice 1. UPDATE (30 May 2012): A badblocks destructive read-write test of the entire /dev/sdb yielded no errors as expected; both HDDs are new. As of the latest edit, I assembled the array with this command: sudo mdadm --assemble --force --no-degraded /dev/md0 /dev/sdb1 /dev/sdc1 The output was: mdadm: /dev/md0 has been started with 1 drive (out of 2) and 1 rebuilding. Rebuilding looks like it's progressing normally: md0 : active raid1 sdc1[1] sdb1[2] 1953511288 blocks super 1.2 [2/1] [U_] [>....................] recovery = 0.6% (13261504/1953511288) finish=2299.7min speed=14060K/sec unused devices: <none> I'm now waiting on this rebuild, but I'm expecting /dev/sdb1 to become a spare just like the five or six times that I've tried rebuilding before. UPDATE (31 May 2012): Yeah, it's still a spare. Ugh! UPDATE (01 June 2012): I'm trying Adrian Kelly's suggested command: sudo mdadm --assemble --update=resync /dev/md0 /dev/sdb1 /dev/sdc1 Waiting on the rebuild now... My questions are: Why isn't the spare drive becoming active sync? How can I make the spare drive become active?

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  • =?UTF-8?B??= in Emails sent via php mail problem

    - by Camran
    I have a website, and in the "Contact" section I have a form which users may fill in to contact me. The form is a simple form which action is a php page. The php code: $to = "[email protected]"; $name=$_POST['name']; // sender name $email=$_POST['email']; // sender email $tel= $_POST['tel']; // sender tel $subject=$_POST['subject']; // subject CHOSEN FROM DROPLIST, ALL TESTED $text=$_POST['text']; // Message from sender $text.="\n\nTel:".$tel; // Added to message to show me the telephone nr to the sender at bottom of message $headers="MIME-Version: 1.0"."\n"; $headers.="Content-type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8"."\n"; $headers.="From: $name <$email>"."\n"; mail($to, '=?UTF-8?B?'.base64_encode($subject).'?=', $text, $headers, '[email protected]'); Could somebody please tell me why this works most of the time, but sometimes I receive email whith no text and the subject line showing =?UTF-8?B??= I use outlook express, and I have read this http://stackoverflow.com/questions/454833/system-net-mail-and-utf-8bxxxxx-headers but it didn't help. The problem is not in Outlook, because when I log in to the actual mailprogram where I fetch the POP3 emails from, the email looks the same. When I right click in Outlook and chose "message source" then there is no "From" information. Ex, a good message should look like this: Subject: =?UTF-8?B?w5Z2cmlndA==?= MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 From: John Doe However, the ones with problem looks like this: Subject: =?UTF-8?B??= MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 From: As if the information has been lost somewhere. You should know also that I have a VPS, which I manage myself. I use postfix as an emailserver, if thats got anything to do with it. But then again, why does it work sometimes? Also another thing that I have noticed is that sometimes special characters are not shown correctly (by both Outlook and the webmail). For instance, the name "Björkman" in swedish is shown like Björkman, but again, only sometimes. I hope anybody knows something about this problem, because it is very hard to track down for me atleast. If you need more input let me know.

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