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  • Generic Type constraint in .net

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • Problem with continue in While Loop within Try/Catch in C# (2.0)

    - by csharpnoob
    Hi, when i try to use in my ASPX Webpage in the Code Behind this try{ while() { ... db.Open(); readDataMoney = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE card = '" + customer.card + "';", db).ExecuteReader(); while (readDataMoney.Read()) { try { if (!readDataMoney.IsDBNull(readDataMoney.GetOrdinal("Credit"))) { customer.credit = Convert.ToDouble(readDataMoney[readDataMoney.GetOrdinal("Credit")]); } if (!readDataMoney.IsDBNull(readDataMoney.GetOrdinal("Bonus"))) { customer.bonus = Convert.ToDouble(readDataMoney[readDataMoney.GetOrdinal("Bonus")]); } } catch (Exception ex) { Connector.writeLog("Money: " + ex.StackTrace + "" + ex.Message + "" + ex.Source); customer.credit = 0.0; customer.credit = 0.0; continue; } finally { } } readDataMoney.Close(); vsiDB.Close(); ... } }catch { continue; } The whole page hangs if there is a problem when the read from db isn't working. I tried to check for !isNull, but same problem. I have a lots of differend MDB Files to process, which are readonly (can't repair/compact) and some or others not. Same Design/Layout of Tables. With good old ASP Classic 3.0 all of them are processing with the "On Resume Next". I know I know. But that's how it is. Can't change the source. So the basic question: So is there any way to tell .NET to continue the loop whatever happens within the try loop if there is any exception? After a lots of wating time i get this exceptions: at System.Data.Common.UnsafeNativeMethods.IDBInitializeInitialize.Invoke(IntPtr pThis) at System.Data.OleDb.DataSourceWrapper.InitializeAndCreateSession(OleDbConnectionString constr, SessionWrapper& sessionWrapper) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnectionInternal..ctor(OleDbConnectionString constr, OleDbConnection connection) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection.Open() at GetCustomer(String card)Thread was being aborted.System.Data and System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReadInt16(IntPtr ptr, Int32 ofs) System.Data.ProviderBase.DbBuffer.ReadInt16(Int32 offset) System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value_I2() System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value() System.Data.OleDb.OleDbDataReader.GetValue(Int32 ordinal) System.Data.OleDb.OleDbDataReader.get_Item(Int32 index) Thread was terminated.mscorlib Thanks for any help.

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  • Ruby: Parse, replace, and evaluate a string formula

    - by Swartz
    I'm creating a simple Ruby on Rails survey application for a friend's psychological survey project. So we have surveys, each survey has a bunch of questions, and each question has one of the options participants can choose from. Nothing exciting. One of the interesting aspects is that each answer option has a score value associated with it. And so for each survey a total score needs to be calculated based on these values. Now my idea is instead of hard-coding calculations is to allow user add a formula by which the total survey score will be calculated. Example formulas: "Q1 + Q2 + Q3" "(Q1 + Q2 + Q3) / 3" "(10 - Q1) + Q2 + (Q3 * 2)" So just basic math (with some extra parenthesis for clarity). The idea is to keep the formulas very simple such that anyone with basic math can enter them without resolving to some fancy syntax. My idea is to take any given formula and replace placeholders such as Q1, Q2, etc with the score values based on what the participant chooses. And then eval() the newly formed string. Something like this: f = "(Q1 + Q2 + Q3) / 2" # some crazy formula for this survey values = {:Q1 => 1, :Q2 => 2, :Q3 => 2} # values for substitution result = f.gsub(/(Q\d+)/) {|m| values[$1.to_sym] } # string to be eval()-ed eval(result) So my questions are: Is there a better way to do this? I'm open to any suggestions. How to handle formulas where not all placeholders were successfully replaced (e.g. one question wasn't answered)? Ex: {:Q3 = 2} wasn't in values hash? My idea is to rescue eval()... any thoughts? How to get proper result? Should be 2.5, but due to integer arithmetic, it will truncate to 2. I can't expect people who provide the correct formula (e.g. / 2.0 ) to understand this nuance. I do not expect this, but how to best protect eval() from abuse (e.g. bad formula, manipulated values coming in)? Thank you!

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  • Pointers to class fields

    - by newbie_cpp
    My task is as follows : Using pointers to class fields, create menu allowing selection of ice, that Person can buy in Ice shop. Buyer will be charged with waffel and ice costs. Selection of ice and charging buyers account must be shown in program. Here's my Person class : #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Iceshop { const double waffel_price = 1; public: } class Person { static int NUMBER; char* name; int age; const int number; double plus, minus; public: class Account { int number; double resources; public: Account(int number, double resources) : number(number), resources(resources) {} } Person(const char* n, int age) : name(strcpy(new char[strlen(n)+1],n)), number(++NUMBER), plus(0), minus(0), age(age) {} Person::~Person(){ cout << "Destroying resources" << endl; delete [] name; } friend void show(Person &p); int* take_age(){ return &age; } char* take_name(){ return name; } void init(char* n, int a) { name = n; age = a; } Person& remittance(double d) { plus += d; return *this; } Person& paycheck(double d) { minus += d; return *this; } Account* getAccount(); }; int Person:: Person::Account* Person::getAccount() { return new Account(number, plus - minus); } void Person::Account::remittance(double d){ resources = resources + d; } void Person::Account::paycheck(double d){ resources = resources - d; } void show(Person *p){ cout << "Name: " << p->take_name() << "," << "age: " << p->take_age() << endl; } int main(void) { Person *p = new Person; p->init("Mary", 25); show(p); p->remittance(100); system("PAUSE"); return 0; } How to start this task ? Where and in what form should I store menu options ?

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  • Modify audio pitch of recorded clip (m4v)

    - by devcube
    I'm writing an app in which I'm trying to change the pitch of the audio when I'm recording a movie (.m4v). Or by modifying the audio pitch of the movie afterwards. I want the end result to be a movie (.m4v) that has the original length (i.e. same visual as original) but with modified sound pitch, e.g. a "chipmunk voice". A realtime conversion is to prefer if possible. I've read alot about changing audio pitch in iOS but most examples focus on playback, i.e. playing the sound with a different pitch. In my app I'm recording a movie (.m4v / AVFileTypeQuickTimeMovie) and saving it using standard AVAssetWriter. When saving the movie I have access to the following elements where I've tried to manipulate the audio (e.g. modify the pitch): audio buffer (CMSampleBufferRef) audio input writer (AVAssetWriterAudioInput) audio input writer options (e.g. AVNumberOfChannelsKey, AVSampleRateKey, AVChannelLayoutKey) asset writer (AVAssetWriter) I've tried to hook into the above objects to modify the audio pitch, but without success. I've also tried with Dirac as described here: Real Time Pitch Change In iPhone Using Dirac And OpenAL with AL_PITCH as described here: Piping output from OpenAL into a buffer And the "BASS" library from un4seen: Change Pitch/Tempo In Realtime I haven't found success with any of the above libs, most likely because I don't really know how to use them, and where to hook them into the audio saving code. There seems to be alot of librarys that have similar effects but focuses on playback or custom recording code. I want to manipulate the audio stream I've already got (AVAssetWriterAudioInput) or modify the saved movie clip (.m4v). I want the video to be unmodifed visually, i.e. played at the same speed. But I want the audio to go faster (like a chipmunk) or slower (like a ... monster? :)). Do you have any suggestions how I can modify the pitch in either real time (when recording the movie) or afterwards by converting the entire movie (.m4v file)? Should I look further into Dirac, OpenAL, SoundTouch, BASS or some other library? I want to be able to share the movie to others with modified audio, that's the reason I can't rely on modifying the pitch for playback only. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

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  • PHP: Ajax ignores line foldings in the text

    - by ilnur777
    I don't understand why my AJAX script ignores all line foldings. I first type text to the textarea and then put onclick to send button. Here is my AJAX realization: // creating ajax object // ==================== function createRequestObject(){ try { return new XMLHttpRequest() } catch(e) { try { return new ActiveXObject('Msxml2.XMLHTTP') } catch(e) { try { return new ActiveXObject('Microsoft.XMLHTTP') } catch(e) { return null; } } } } // message options (save, cancel) // ============================== function form1(text){ var http = createRequestObject(); if(http){ http.open("GET", "my_script.php?text=" + text); http.onreadystatechange = function (){ if(http.readyState == 4){ alert("Ok!"); } } http.send(null); } else { document.location = "my_script.php?text=" + text; } } html form <p align="justify" style="margin-right:10; margin-left:10;"> <table style="margin-right:10; margin-left:10;" align="center" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="680"> <TBODY> <form name="fgform"> <tr> <td width="680" height="100" colspan="2"><p><textarea id="edit_text1" name="edit_text" rows="3" style="width: 680; height: 100;"></textarea></p></td> </tr> <tr> <td width="340"><p><input type="button" id="saveB" value="Save Text" style="color:rgb(0,204,0); background-color:white; border-width:1; border-color:rgb(225,218,202); border-style:solid; width:100;" onclick="form1(document.getElementById('edit_text1').value);"></p></td> <td width="340"><p align="right">&nbsp;</p></td> </tr> </form> </TBODY> </table>

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  • C++ SQLDriverConnect API

    - by harshalkreddy
    Hi, I am using visual studio 2008 and sql server 2008 for developing application(SQL server is in my system). I need to fetch some fields from the database. I am using the SQLDriverConnect API to connect to the database. If I use the "SQL_DRIVER_PROMPT" I will get pop window to select the data source. I don't want this window to appear. As per my understanding this window will appear if we provide insufficient information in the connection string. I think I have provided all the information. I am trying to connect with windows authentication. I tried different options but still no luck. Please help me in solving this problem. Below is the code that I am using: //******************************************************************************** // SQLDriverConnect_ref.cpp // compile with: odbc32.lib user32.lib #include <windows.h> #include <sqlext.h> int main() { SQLHENV henv; SQLHDBC hdbc; SQLHSTMT hstmt; SQLRETURN retcode; SQLWCHAR OutConnStr[255]; SQLSMALLINT OutConnStrLen; SQLCHAR ConnStrIn[255] = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=(local);DSN=MyDSN;DATABASE=MyDatabase;Trusted_Connection=yes;"; //SQLWCHAR *ConntStr =(SQLWCHAR *) "DRIVER={SQL Server};DSN=MyDSN;"; HWND desktopHandle = GetDesktopWindow(); // desktop's window handle // Allocate environment handle retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, SQL_NULL_HANDLE, &henv); // Set the ODBC version environment attribute if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLSetEnvAttr(henv, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_VERSION, (SQLPOINTER*)SQL_OV_ODBC3, 0); // Allocate connection handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, henv, &hdbc); // Set login timeout to 5 seconds if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLSetConnectAttr(hdbc, SQL_LOGIN_TIMEOUT, (SQLPOINTER)5, 0); retcode = SQLDriverConnect( // SQL_NULL_HDBC hdbc, desktopHandle, (SQLWCHAR *)ConnStrIn, SQL_NTS, OutConnStr, 255, &OutConnStrLen, SQL_DRIVER_NOPROMPT); // Allocate statement handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hdbc, &hstmt); // Process data if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hstmt); } SQLDisconnect(hdbc); } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, hdbc); } } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, henv); } } //******************************************************************************** Thanks in advance, Harsha

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  • gcc optimization? bug? and its practial implication to project

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, My questions are divided into three parts Question 1 Consider the below code, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { const int v = 50; int i = 0X7FFFFFFF; cout<<(i + v)<<endl; if ( i + v < i ) { cout<<"Number is negative"<<endl; } else { cout<<"Number is positive"<<endl; } return 0; } No specific compiler optimisation options are used or the O's flag is used. It is basic compilation command g++ -o test main.cpp is used to form the executable. The seemingly very simple code, has odd behaviour in SUSE 64 bit OS, gcc version 4.1.2. The expected output is "Number is negative", instead only in SUSE 64 bit OS, the output would be "Number is positive". After some amount of analysis and doing a 'disass' of the code, I find that the compiler optimises in the below format - Since i is same on both sides of comparison, it cannot be changed in the same expression, remove 'i' from the equation. Now, the comparison leads to if ( v < 0 ), where v is a constant positive, So during compilation itself, the else part cout function address is added to the register. No cmp/jmp instructions can be found. I see that the behaviour is only in gcc 4.1.2 SUSE 10. When tried in AIX 5.1/5.3 and HP IA64, the result is as expected. Is the above optimisation valid? Or, is using the overflow mechanism for int not a valid use case? Question 2 Now when I change the conditional statement from if (i + v < i) to if ( (i + v) < i ) even then, the behaviour is same, this atleast I would personally disagree, since additional braces are provided, I expect the compiler to create a temporary built-in type variable and them compare, thus nullify the optimisation. Question 3 Suppose I have a huge code base, an I migrate my compiler version, such bug/optimisation can cause havoc in my system behaviour. Ofcourse from business perspective, it is very ineffective to test all lines of code again just because of compiler upgradation. I think for all practical purpose, these kinds of error are very difficult to catch (during upgradation) and invariably will be leaked to production site. Can anyone suggest any possible way to ensure to ensure that these kind of bug/optimization does not have any impact on my existing system/code base? PS : When the const for v is removed from the code, then optimization is not done by the compiler. I believe, it is perfectly fine to use overflow mechanism to find if the variable is from MAX - 50 value (in my case).

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  • Image_tag .blank? - paperclip - Ruby on rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have just installed paperclip into my ruby on rails blog application. Everything is working great...too great. I am trying to figure out how to tell paperclip not to output anything if there is no record in the table so that I don't have broken image links everywhere. How, and where, do I do this? Here is my code: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "150x150"} validates_presence_of :body, :title has_many :comments, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :dependent => :destroy has_many :ugtags, :dependent => :destroy has_many :votes, :dependent => :destroy belongs_to :user after_create :self_vote def self_vote # I am assuming you have a user_id field in `posts` and `votes` table. self.votes.create(:user => self.user) end cattr_reader :per_page @@per_page = 10 end View <% div_for post do %> <div id="post-wrapper"> <div id="post-photo"> <%= image_tag post.photo.url(:small) %> </div> <h2><%= link_to_unless_current h(post.title), post %></h2> <div class="light-color"> <i>Posted <%= time_ago_in_words(post.created_at) %></i> ago </div> <%= simple_format truncate(post.body, :length => 600) %> <div id="post-options"> <%= link_to "Read More >>", post %> | <%= link_to "Comments (#{post.comments.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Strings (#{post.tags.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Contributions (#{post.ugtags.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Likes (#{post.votes.count})", post %> </div> </div> <% end %>

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  • objective C convert NSString to unsigned

    - by user1501354
    I have changed my question. I want to convert an NSString to an unsigned int. Why? Because I want to do parallel payment in PayPal. Below I have given my coding in which I want to convert the NSString to an unsigned int. My query is: //optional, set shippingEnabled to TRUE if you want to display shipping //options to the user, default: TRUE [PayPal getPayPalInst].shippingEnabled = TRUE; //optional, set dynamicAmountUpdateEnabled to TRUE if you want to compute //shipping and tax based on the user's address choice, default: FALSE [PayPal getPayPalInst].dynamicAmountUpdateEnabled = TRUE; //optional, choose who pays the fee, default: FEEPAYER_EACHRECEIVER [PayPal getPayPalInst].feePayer = FEEPAYER_EACHRECEIVER; //for a payment with multiple recipients, use a PayPalAdvancedPayment object PayPalAdvancedPayment *payment = [[PayPalAdvancedPayment alloc] init]; payment.paymentCurrency = @"USD"; // A payment note applied to all recipients. payment.memo = @"A Note applied to all recipients"; //receiverPaymentDetails is a list of PPReceiverPaymentDetails objects payment.receiverPaymentDetails = [NSMutableArray array]; NSArray *emailArray = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"[email protected]",@"[email protected]", nil]; for (int i = 1; i <= 2; i++) { PayPalReceiverPaymentDetails *details = [[PayPalReceiverPaymentDetails alloc] init]; // Customize the payment notes for one of the three recipient. if (i == 2) { details.description = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Component %d", i]; } details.recipient = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[emailArray objectAtIndex:i-1]]; unsigned order; if (i==1) { order = [[feeArray objectAtIndex:0] unsignedIntValue]; } if (i==2) { order = [[amountArray objectAtIndex:0] unsignedIntValue]; } //subtotal of all items for this recipient, without tax and shipping details.subTotal = [NSDecimalNumber decimalNumberWithMantissa:order exponent:-4 isNegative:FALSE]; //invoiceData is a PayPalInvoiceData object which contains tax, shipping, and a list of PayPalInvoiceItem objects details.invoiceData = [[PayPalInvoiceData alloc] init]; //invoiceItems is a list of PayPalInvoiceItem objects //NOTE: sum of totalPrice for all items must equal details.subTotal //NOTE: example only shows a single item, but you can have more than one details.invoiceData.invoiceItems = [NSMutableArray array]; PayPalInvoiceItem *item = [[PayPalInvoiceItem alloc] init]; item.totalPrice = details.subTotal; [details.invoiceData.invoiceItems addObject:item]; [payment.receiverPaymentDetails addObject:details]; } [[PayPal getPayPalInst] advancedCheckoutWithPayment:payment]; Can anybody tell me how to do this conversion? Thanks and regards in advance.

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  • Best way to version control a WCF application with Git?

    - by Sam
    Suppose I have the following projects. The format is [ProjectName] : [ProjectDependency1, ProjectDependency2, etc.] // Service CoolLibrary WcfApp.Core WcfApp.Contracts WcfApp.Services : CoolLibrary, WcfApp.Core, WcfApp.Contracts // Clients CustomerX.App : WcfApp.Contracts CustomerY.App : WcfApp.Contracts CustomerZ.App : WcfApp.Contracts (On a side note, WcfApp.Contracts should not depend on WcfApp.Core, right? Else CustomerX.App would also depend on and thus be exposed to the service domain model?) (CoolLibrary is shared with other applications, so I can't just put it inside of WcfApp.Services.) All of this code is in-house. I was thinking of having 6 repositories for this. The format is [repository folder name] : [Projects included in repository.] 1. CoolLibrary.git : CoolLibrary 2. WcfApp.Contracts.git : WcfApp.Contracts 3. WcfApp.git : WcfApp.Core, WcfApp.Services 4. CustomerX.App.git : CustomerX.App 5. CustomerY.App.git : CustomerY.App 6. CustomerZ.App.git : CustomerZ.App How should I manage my project dependencies? I see three options: I could use binaries which I have to manually copy to each dependent repository. This would be easiest at the start, but my repositories would be a little bloated, and it'd become more tedious as I add more client apps for customers. I could import dependent code as submodules. This is what I will probably end up doing, although I keep reading on the web that submodules are a hassle. I also read that I can use something called the subtree merge strategy, but I am not sure how it is different from just cloning the repo into a subdirectory and adding the subdirectory to .gitignore. Is the difference that the subtree is recorded in the master repository, so (for example) cloning it from a different location will also pull the subtree? I know I asked a lot of questions in this post, but the most important two questions I have are: 1. Am I using the right number and layout of repositories? Should I use less or more? 2. Which of the three dependency management strategies would you recommend? Is there another strategy I haven't considered?

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  • How do I query delegation properties of an active directory user account?

    - by Mark J Miller
    I am writing a utility to audit the configuration of a WCF service. In order to properly pass credentials from the client, thru the WCF service back to the SQL back end the domain account used to run the service must be configured in Active Directory with the setting "Trust this user for delegation" (Properties - "Delegation" tab). Using C#, how do I access the settings on this tab in Active Directory. I've spent the last 5 hours trying to track this down on the web and can't seem to find it. Here's what I've done so far: using (Domain domain = Domain.GetCurrentDomain()) { Console.WriteLine(domain.Name); // get domain "dev" from MSSQLSERVER service account DirectoryEntry ouDn = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://CN=Users,dc=dev,dc=mydomain,dc=lcl"); DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(ouDn); // get sAMAccountName "dev.services" from MSSQLSERVER service account search.Filter = "(sAMAccountName=dev.services)"; search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("displayName"); search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("userAccountControl"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); if (result != null) { Console.WriteLine(result.Properties["displayName"][0]); DirectoryEntry entry = result.GetDirectoryEntry(); int userAccountControlFlags = (int)entry.Properties["userAccountControl"].Value; if ((userAccountControlFlags & (int)UserAccountControl.TRUSTED_FOR_DELEGATION) == (int)UserAccountControl.TRUSTED_FOR_DELEGATION) Console.WriteLine("TRUSTED_FOR_DELEGATION"); else if ((userAccountControlFlags & (int)UserAccountControl.TRUSTED_TO_AUTH_FOR_DELEGATION) == (int)UserAccountControl.TRUSTED_TO_AUTH_FOR_DELEGATION) Console.WriteLine("TRUSTED_TO_AUTH_FOR_DELEGATION"); else if ((userAccountControlFlags & (int)UserAccountControl.NOT_DELEGATED) == (int)UserAccountControl.NOT_DELEGATED) Console.WriteLine("NOT_DELEGATED"); foreach (PropertyValueCollection pvc in entry.Properties) { Console.WriteLine(pvc.PropertyName); for (int i = 0; i < pvc.Count; i++) { Console.WriteLine("\t{0}", pvc[i]); } } } } The "userAccountControl" does not seem to be the correct property. I think it is tied to the "Account Options" section on the "Account" tab, which is not what we're looking for but this is the closest I've gotten so far. The justification for all this is: We do not have permission to setup the service in QA or in Production, so along with our written instructions (which are notoriously only followed in partial) I am creating a tool that will audit the setup (WCF and SQL) to determine if the setup is correct. This will allow the person deploying the service to run this utility and verify everything is setup correctly - saving us hours of headaches and reducing downtime during deployment.

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  • SQL Server architecture guidance

    - by Liam
    Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

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  • What IPC method should I use between Firefox extension and C# code running on the same machine?

    - by Rory
    I have a question about how to structure communication between a (new) Firefox extension and existing C# code. The firefox extension will use configuration data and will produce other data, so needs to get the config data from somewhere and save it's output somewhere. The data is produced/consumed by existing C# code, so I need to decide how the extension should interact with the C# code. Some pertinent factors: It's only running on windows, in a relatively controlled corporate environment. I have a windows service running on the machine, built in C#. Storing the data in a local datastore (like sqlite) would be useful for other reasons. The volume of data is low, e.g. 10kb of uncompressed xml every few minutes, and isn't very 'chatty'. The data exchange can be asynchronous for the most part if not completely. As with all projects, I have limited resources so want an option that's relatively easy. It doesn't have to be ultra-high performance, but shouldn't add significant overhead. I'm planning on building the extension in javascript (although could be convinced otherwise if really necessary) Some options I'm considering: use an XPCOM to .NET/COM bridge use a sqlite db: the extension would read from and save to it. The c# code would run in the service, populating the db and then processing data created by the service. use TCP sockets to communicate between the extension and the service. Let the service manage a local data store. My problem with (1) is I think this will be tricky and not so easy. But I could be completely wrong? The main problem I see with (2) is the locking of sqlite: only a single process can write data at a time so there'd be some blocking. However, it would be nice generally to have a local datastore so this is an attractive option if the performance impact isn't too great. I don't know whether (3) would be particularly easy or hard ... or what approach to take on the protocol: something custom or http. Any comments on these ideas or other suggestions? UPDATE: I was planning on building the extension in javascript rather than c++

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  • Tab Bar and Nav Controller: Where did I go wrong in my Interface Builder wiring?

    - by editor
    Even if you don't know how I've shot myself in the foot, a story which I've tried to lay out below, if you think I've done a good job showing the parameters of my problem I'd appreciate an upvote so that I might be able to grab some attention for my question. I've been working on an iPhone application in XCode and Interface Builder of the Tab Bar project type. After getting a table view of topics (business sectors) working fine I realized that I would need to add a Navigation Control to allow the user to drill into a subtopics (subsectors) table. As a green Objective-C developer, that was confusing, but I managed to get it working by reading various documentation trying out a few different IB options. My current setup is a Tab Bar Controller with Tab 1 as a Navigation Controller and Tab 2 a plain view with a Table View placed into it. The wiring works: I can log when table rows are selected and I'm ready to push a new View Controller onto the stack so that I can display the subtopics Table View. My problem: For some reason the first tab's Table View is a delegate and dataSource of the second ta. It doesn't make sense to me and I can't figure out why that's the only setup that works. Here is the wiring: Navigation Controller (Sectors) is a delegate of Tab Bar Navigation Bar is a delegate of Navigation Controller (Sectors) View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate of First View Controller (Companies) Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a dataSource outlet of First View Controller (Companies) First View Controller (Companies) First View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in First View Controller (Companies)) is not hooked up to a dataSource outlet and is not a delegate When I click the tab buttons and look at the Inspector I see that the first tab is correctly hooked up to my MainWindow.xib and the second tab has selected a nib called SecondView.xib. It's in the File's Owner of MainWindow.xib where I inherit UITableViewDataSource and UITableViewDelegate (and also UITabBarControllerDelegate) in the .h, and in the .m where I implement the delegate methods. Why does this setup only work when the Table View in my first tab (View Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate and dataSource of the second tab? I'm confused: why wouldn't it need to be hooked up to the Navigation Controller-enabled tab in which the Table View is seen (Navigation Controller (Sectors))? The Table View seen on the second tab has neither dataSource and is not a delegate. I'm having trouble getting a pushViewController to fire (self.navigationController is not nil but the new View Controller still doesn't load) and I suspect that I need to work out this IB wiring issue before I can troubleshoot why the Nav Controller won't push a new View Controller onto the stack. if(nil == self.navigationController) { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is nil."); } else { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is not nil."); SectorList *subsectorViewController = [[SectorList alloc] initWithNibName:@"SectorList" bundle:nil]; subsectorViewController.title = @"Subsectors"; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:subsectorViewController animated:YES]; [subsectorViewController release]; }

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  • ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

    - by philwilks
    I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • php zencart mod - having problems with attributes array

    - by user80151
    I inherited a zencart mod and can't figure out what's wrong. The customer selects a product and an attribute (model#). This is then sent to another form that they complete. When they submit the form, the product and the attribute should be included in the email sent. At this time, only the product is coming through. The attribute just says "array." The interesting part is, when I delete the line that prints the attribute, the products_options_names will print out. So I know that both the product and the products_options_names are working. The attribute is the only thing that is not working right. Here's what I believe to be the significant code. This is the page that has the form, so the attribute should already be passed to the form. //Begin Adding of New features //$productsimage = $product['productsImage']; $productsname = $product['productsName']; $attributes = $product['attributes']; $products_options_name = $value['products_options_name']; $arr_product_list[] = "<strong>Product Name:</strong> $productsname <br />"; $arr_product_list[] .= "<strong>Attributes:</strong> $attributes <br />"; $arr_product_list[] .= "<strong>Products Options Name:</strong> $products_options_name <br />"; $arr_product_list[] .= "---------------------------------------------------------------"; //End Adding of New features } // end foreach ($productArray as $product) ?> Above this, there is another section that has attributes: <?php echo $product['attributeHiddenField']; if (isset($product['attributes']) && is_array($product['attributes'])) { echo '<div class="cartAttribsList">'; echo '<ul>'; reset($product['attributes']); foreach ($product['attributes'] as $option => $value) { ?> Can anyone help me figure out what is wrong? I'm not sure if the problem is on this page or if the attribute isn't being passed to this page. TIA

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  • Akka framework support for finding duplicate messages

    - by scala_is_awesome
    I'm trying to build a high-performance distributed system with Akka and Scala. If a message requesting an expensive (and side-effect-free) computation arrives, and the exact same computation has already been requested before, I want to avoid computing the result again. If the computation requested previously has already completed and the result is available, I can cache it and re-use it. However, the time window in which duplicate computation can be requested may be arbitrarily small. e.g. I could get a thousand or a million messages requesting the same expensive computation at the same instant for all practical purposes. There is a commercial product called Gigaspaces that supposedly handles this situation. However there seems to be no framework support for dealing with duplicate work requests in Akka at the moment. Given that the Akka framework already has access to all the messages being routed through the framework, it seems that a framework solution could make a lot of sense here. Here is what I am proposing for the Akka framework to do: 1. Create a trait to indicate a type of messages (say, "ExpensiveComputation" or something similar) that are to be subject to the following caching approach. 2. Smartly (hashing etc.) identify identical messages received by (the same or different) actors within a user-configurable time window. Other options: select a maximum buffer size of memory to be used for this purpose, subject to (say LRU) replacement etc. Akka can also choose to cache only the results of messages that were expensive to process; the messages that took very little time to process can be re-processed again if needed; no need to waste precious buffer space caching them and their results. 3. When identical messages (received within that time window, possibly "at the same time instant") are identified, avoid unnecessary duplicate computations. The framework would do this automatically, and essentially, the duplicate messages would never get received by a new actor for processing; they would silently vanish and the result from processing it once (whether that computation was already done in the past, or ongoing right then) would get sent to all appropriate recipients (immediately if already available, and upon completion of the computation if not). Note that messages should be considered identical even if the "reply" fields are different, as long as the semantics/computations they represent are identical in every other respect. Also note that the computation should be purely functional, i.e. free from side-effects, for the caching optimization suggested to work and not change the program semantics at all. If what I am suggesting is not compatible with the Akka way of doing things, and/or if you see some strong reasons why this is a very bad idea, please let me know. Thanks, Is Awesome, Scala

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  • Robust way to save/load objects with dependencies?

    - by mrteacup
    I'm writing an Android game in Java and I need a robust way to save and load application state quickly. The question seems to apply to most OO languages. To understand what I need to save: I'm using a Strategy pattern to control my game entities. The idea is I have a very general Entity class which e.g. stores the location of a bullet/player/enemy and I then attach a Behaviour class that tells the entity how to act: class Entiy { float x; float y; Behavior b; } abstract class Behavior { void update(Entity e); {} // Move about at a constant speed class MoveBehavior extends Behavior { float speed; void update ... } // Chase after another entity class ChaseBehavior extends Behavior { Entity target; void update ... } // Perform two behaviours in sequence class CombineBehavior extends Behavior { Behaviour a, b; void update ... } Essentially, Entity objects are easy to save but Behaviour objects can have a semi-complex graph of dependencies between other Entity objects and other Behaviour objects. I also have cases where a Behaviour object is shared between entities. I'm willing to change my design to make saving/loading state easier, but the above design works really well for structuring the game. Anyway, the options I've considered are: Use Java serialization. This is meant to be really slow in Android (I'll profile it sometime). I'm worried about robustness when changes are made between versions however. Use something like JSON or XML. I'm not sure how I would cope with storing the dependencies between objects however. Would I have to give each object a unique ID and then use these IDs on loading to link the right objects together? I thought I could e.g. change the ChaseBehaviour to store a ID to an entity, instead of a reference, that would be used to look up the Entity before performing the behaviour. I'd rather avoid having to write lots of loading/saving code myself as I find it really easy to make mistakes (e.g. forgetting to save something, reading things out in the wrong order). Can anyone give me any tips on good formats to save to or class designs that make saving state easier?

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • [NHibernate and ASP.NET MVC] How can I implement a robust session-per-request pattern in my project,

    - by Guillaume Gervais
    I'm currently building an ASP.NET MVC project, with NHibernate as its persistance layer. For now, some functionnalities have been implemented, but only use local NHibernate sessions: each method that accessed the database (read or write) needs to instanciate its own NHibernate session, with the "using()" directive. The problem is that I want to leverage NHibernate's Lazy-Loading capabilities to improve the performance of my project. This implies an open NHibernate session per request until the view is rendered. Furthermore, simultaneous request must be supported (multiple Sessions at the same time). How can I achieve that as cleanly as possible? I searched the Web a little bit and learned about the session-per-request pattern. Most of the implementations I saw used some sort of Http* (HttpContext, etc.) object to store the session. Also, using the Application_BeginRequest/Application_EndRequest functions is complicated, since they get fired for each HTTP request (aspx files, css files, js files, etc.), when I only want to instanciate a session once per request. The concern that I have is that I don't want my views or controllers to have access to NHibernate sessions (or, more generally, NHibernate namespaces and code). That means that I do not want to handle sessions at the controller level nor the view one. I have a few options in mind. Which one seems the best ? Use interceptors (like in GRAILS) that get triggered before and after the controller action. These would open and close sessions/transactions. Is it possible in the ASP.NET MVC world? Use the CurrentSessionContext Singleton provided by NHibernate in a Web context. Using this page as an example, I think this is quite promising, but that still requires filters at the controller level. Use the HttpContext.Current.Items to store the request session. This, coupled with a few lines of code in Global.asax.cs, can easily provide me with a session on the request level. However, it means that dependencies will be injected between NHibernate and my views (HttpContext). Thank you very much!

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  • on click button disabled click ent is working? using jquery

    - by kumar
    <div> <input id="PbtnSelectAll" type="button" class="button" value="Select All" /> <input id="PbtnSubmit" type="submit" class="button" value="Save" /> <input id="PbtnCancel" type="button" class="button" value="Cancel" /> </div> </fieldset> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#PbtnSubmit').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#PbtnCancel').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#PbtnSelectAll').click(function() { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[type=checkbox]').attr('checked', 'checked'); $('#PbtnSubmit').attr('disabled', false); $('#PbtnCancel').attr('disabled', false); $('fieldset').find("input:not(:checkbox),select,textarea").attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#genericfieldset').find("input,select,textarea").removeAttr('disabled'); }); $('#PbtnCancel').click(function() { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').attr('checked', false); $('#PbtnSubmit').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#PbtnCancel').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#exc-flwup').val(''); $('#Inquiry').val(''); $('#comments').val(''); $('#ResolutionCode option:eq(0)').attr('selected', 'selected'); $('#ReasonCode option:eq(0)').attr('selected', 'selected'); $('#ActionCode option:eq(0)').attr('selected', 'selected'); $('fieldset').find("input,select,textarea").removeAttr('disabled'); }); $('#PbtnSubmit').click(function(event) { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').each(function() { if ($("#PricingEditExceptions input:checkbox:checked").length > 0) { var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[type=checkbox]:checked'); var PMstrIDs = checked.map(function() { return $(this).val(); }).get().join(','); $('#1_exceptiontypes').attr('value', exceptiontypes) $('#1_PMstrIDs').attr('value', PMstrIDs); } else { alert("Please select atleast one exception"); event.preventDefault(); } }); }); function validate_excpt(formData, jqForm, options) { var form = jqForm[0]; } // post-submit callback function showResponse(responseText, statusText, xhr, $form) { if (responseText[0].substring(0, 16) != "System.Exception") { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update successful.</strong>'); } else { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update failed.</strong> ' + responseText[0].substring(0, 48)); } $('#error-msg-ID').removeClass('hide'); } $('#exc-').ajaxForm({ target: '#error-msg-ID', beforeSubmit: validate_excpt, success: showResponse, dataType: 'json' }); $('.button').button(); }); </script> this on begin form submit if I click Disabled Save and Cancel buttong still working after disabling also? i can see button is disbled but its working on click? when I click cancel its and not enabling back? still the button shows disbaled/ thanks

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  • How to Transfer Large File from MS Word Add-In (VBA) to Web Server?

    - by Ian Robinson
    Overview I have a Microsoft Word Add-In, written in VBA (Visual Basic for Applications), that compresses a document and all of it's related contents (embedded media) into a zip archive. After creating the zip archive it then turns the file into a byte array and posts it to an ASMX web service. This mostly works. Issues The main issue I have is transferring large files to the web site. I can successfully upload a file that is around 40MB, but not one that is 140MB (timeout/general failure). A secondary issue is that building the byte array in the VBScript Word Add-In can fail by running out of memory on the client machine if the zip archive is too large. Potential Solutions I am considering the following options and am looking for feedback on either option or any other suggestions. Option One Opening a file stream on the client (MS Word VBA) and reading one "chunk" at a time and transmitting to ASMX web service which assembles the "chunks" into a file on the server. This has the benefit of not adding any additional dependencies or components to the application, I would only be modifying existing functionality. (Fewer dependencies is better as this solution should work in a variety of server environments and be relatively easy to set up.) Question: Are there examples of doing this or any recommended techniques (either on the client in VBA or in the web service in C#/VB.NET)? Option Two I understand WCF may provide a solution to the issue of transferring large files by "chunking" or streaming data. However, I am not very familiar with WCF, and am not sure what exactly it is capable of or if I can communicate with a WCF service from VBA. This has the downside of adding another dependency (.NET 3.0). But if using WCF is definitely a better solution I may not mind taking that dependency. Questions: Does WCF reliably support large file transfers of this nature? If so, what does this involve? Any resources or examples? Are you able to call a WCF service from VBA? Any examples?

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  • change maxlength depending of the option selected

    - by tuner3000
    I've seen similar questions posted and tried to change them to meet my needs but I don't know enough about javascript to do it. I need that when a user change the dropdown select, the "titre text field" maxlength is dynamically changed a, b c and d max maxlength should be 40 and e maxlength should be 2 my code is below, I don't know why but it is not working correctly: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>title page</title> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> function changeValue(dropdown) { var option = dropdown.options[dropdown.selectedIndex].value, field = document.getElementById('titre'); if (option == 'a' || option == 'b' || option == 'c' || option == 'd') { field.maxLength = 40; } else if (option == 'e') { field.value = field.value.substr(0, 2); // before reducing the maxlength, make sure it contains at most two characters; you could also reset the value altogether field.maxLength = 2; } }? </script> <form action="converter.php" method="post"> <h2>Feel all field below:</h2> <div> Title: <input type="texte" name="titre" id="titre" maxLength="40"/> Format: <select id="format" name="format" onchange="changeValue(this);"> <option value="a">A</option> <option value="b">B</option> <option value="c">C</option> <option value="d">D</option> <option value="e">E</option> </select> </div> <div> <textarea name="texte" style="width: 415px; height: 155px;"></textarea> </div> <div> <input type="submit" value="OK" /> </div> </form> </body> </html>

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