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  • Does unboxing just return a pointer to the value within the boxed object on the heap?

    - by Charles
    I this MSDN Magazine article, the author states (emphasis mine): Note that boxing always creates a new object and copies the unboxed value's bits to the object. On the other hand, unboxing simply returns a pointer to the data within a boxed object: no memory copy occurs. However, it is commonly the case that your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway. I'm confused by the sentence I've bolded and the sentence that follows it. From everything else I've read, including this MSDN page, I've never before heard that unboxing just returns a pointer to the value on the heap. I was under the impression that unboxing would result in you having a variable containing a copy of the value on the stack, just as you began with. After all, if my variable contains "a pointer to the value on the heap", then I haven't got a value type, I've got a pointer. Can someone explain what this means? Was the author on crack? (There is at least one other glaring error in the article). And if this is true, what are the cases where "your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway"? I just noticed that the article is nearly 10 years old, so maybe this is something that changed very early on in the life of .Net.

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  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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  • Entity framework generates values for NOT NULL columns which has default defined in db.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Hi I have a table Customer. One of the columns in table is DateCreated. This column is NOT NULL but default values is defined for this column in db. When I add new Customer using EF4 from my code. var customer = new Customer(); customer.CustomerName = "Hello"; customer.Email = "[email protected]"; // Watch out commented out. //customer.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; context.AddToCustomers(customer); context.SaveChanges(); Above code generates following query. exec sp_executesql N'insert [dbo].[Customers]([CustomerName], [Email], [Phone], [DateCreated], [DateUpdated]) values (@0, @1, null, @2, null) select [CustomerId] from [dbo].[Customers] where @@ROWCOUNT > 0 and [CustomerId] = scope_identity() ',N'@0 varchar(100),@1 varchar(100),@2 datetime2(7) ',@0='Hello',@1='[email protected]',@2='0001-01-01 00:00:00' And throws following error The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. The statement has been terminated. Can you please tell me how NOT NULL columns which has default values at db level should not have values generated by EF? DB: DateCreated DATETIME NOT NULL DateCreated Properties in EF: Nullable: False Getter/Setter: public Type: DateTime DefaultValue: None Thanks.

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  • Do variable references (alias) incure runtime costs in c++?

    - by cheshirekow
    Maybe this is a compiler specific thing. If so, how about for gcc (g++)? If you use a variable reference/alias like this: int x = 5; int& y = x; y += 10; Does it actually require more cycles than if we didn't use the reference. int x = 5; x += 10; In other words, does the machine code change, or does the "alias" happen only at the compiler level? This may seem like a dumb question, but I am curious. Especially in the case where maybe it would be convenient to temporarily rename some member variables just so that the math code is a little easier to read. Sure, we're not exactly talking about a bottleneck here... but it's something that I'm doing and so I'm just wondering if there is any 'actual' difference... or if it's only cosmetic.

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  • Understanding Hibernate saveOrUpdate and the Persistence Life Cycle

    - by Stephano
    The books that I've read regarding hibernate are, at best, reference tomes. They very seldom have good code examples, so I tend to use online resources for those needs. However, I've always had a problem understanding the basic idea of hibernate persistence. I've read the books and understand the concepts, but in practice, I often see results that I don't understand. Perhaps you all can help, as you have in the past. Let's look at a simple example of a dog and a cat that are friends. This isn't a rare occurrence. It also has the benefit of being much more interesting than my business case. We want a function called "saveFriends" that takes a dog name and a cat name. We'll save the Dog and then the Cat. For this example to work, the cat is going to have a reference back to the dog. I understand this isn't an ideal example, but it's cute and works for our purposes. FriendService.java public int saveFriends(String dogName, String catName) { Dog fido = new Dog(); Cat felix = new Cat(); fido.name = dogName; fido = animalDao.saveDog(fido); felix.name = catName; [ex.A]felix.friend = fido; [ex.B]felix.friend = animalDao.getDogByName(dogName); animalDao.saveCat(felix); } AnimalDao.java (extends HibernateDaoSupport) public Dog saveDog(Dog dog) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(dog); return dog } public Cat saveCat(Cat cat) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(cat); return cat; } public Dog getDogByName(String name) { return (Dog) getHibernateTemplate().find("from Dog where name=?", name).get(0); } Now, assume for a minute that I would like to use either example A or example B to save my friend. Is one better than the other to use? I'll understand if neither of those examples work, but please explain why.

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  • Get Instance ID of an Object in PHP

    - by Alix Axel
    I've learn a while ago on StackOverflow that we can get the "instance ID" of any resource, for instance: var_dump(intval(curl_init())); // int(2) var_dump(intval(finfo_open())); // int(3) var_dump(intval(curl_init())); // int(4) var_dump(intval(finfo_open())); // int(5) var_dump(intval(curl_init())); // int(6) I need something similar but applied to classes: var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) I'm using stdClass just has an example here, but as you can see, it's not the output I was hoping for. I just did some more testing and I found that var_dump() can see the instance ID of an object: var_dump($a = new stdClass()); // object(stdClass)#1 (0) { } var_dump($b = new stdClass()); // object(stdClass)#2 (0) { } var_dump($c = new stdClass()); // object(stdClass)#3 (0) { } The same happens with resources of course: var_dump(curl_init()); // resource(2) of type (curl) var_dump(curl_init()); // resource(3) of type (curl) var_dump(curl_init()); // resource(4) of type (curl) Is there any way to achieve the same effect in PHP?

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  • SQL Databases and table design/organization

    - by John McMullen
    (NOOB disclaimer) I'm working on a system (a type of map), that is accessed mostly via 3 fields: ID (auto incremented), X coordinate, and Y coordinate. As it is right now, i have all data on the map, stored in 1 table. Whenever the map display is loaded it simply queries the database for contents in x and y, and the DB gives the data (other fields in the same entry). If an item on the map is doing something, it has a flag saying its doing something, and then has an ID of the action in another table holding that type of 'actions'. Essentially, for all map data, its stored in 1 table. All actions of a certain type are stored in their own table. I'm a noob, and i'm wondering what the most effective/efficient structure for such a design? (a map that has items, and each item has stats/actions). I'm using PHP atm, using standard SQL queries to get my data. Should i split up the tables so that there are only x number of entries on a table? (coord range limits)? Should it just keep growing and growing? There's a lot of queries to the table... so just tryin to see what is best :/

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  • Chrome: Dynamically created <style> tag does not have content?

    - by Shizhidi
    Hello. I encountered a weird problem when trying to write a cross-browser script. Basically my header looks like this <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> Then in the body tag: <p id="hey">Hey</p> <input type="button" value="attachStyle" name="attachStyle" onclick="attachStyle();"></input> <script> function attachStyle() { var strVar=""; strVar += "<style type='text\/css'>#hey {border:5px solid red;}<\/script>"; $("head").append(strVar); } </script> The button works in Firefox, but not in Chrome. When I looked at the html DOM elements in the developer tool, the style tag was inserted but without content, like this: <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <style type='text/css'></script> </head> I'm curious as to what causes this? And how to create CSS style in a way that is cross-browser? Thanks!

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  • certain BitMapData types dont work in a beginBitmapFill() method.

    - by numerical25
    Say I loaded a bitMap into a bitmapData type called tileImage. tileImage = Bitmap(loader.content).bitmapData; say I decided to add that bitmap into a sprite like below this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tileImage ); this.graphics.drawRect(0, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); It would of course work. But say If I decided to add tileImage into a another bitMapData type like below var tImage:BitmapData = new BitmapData(30,30); tImage.copyPixels(tileImage,tRect,tPoint); and I then added tImage to my sprite this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tImage); this.graphics.drawRect(0, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); I then get the following error ArgumentError: Error #2015: Invalid BitmapData. tRect and tPoint are all predefined and set. tRect x and y are 0,0 and the width and height are 30x30. tPoint is 0,0 as well. Yes I understand that this is a very brief explanation but I wanted to elaborate that a bitMapdata type that has its data from the copypixel method does not work with beginBitmapFill. but a varible that gets its data straigt from the source, does. One works, and one doesnt, yet they are both the same data types. why is this ?

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  • radiobutton checked on condition in jquery

    - by RememberME
    I have the following fields: <label>Company Type:</label> <label for="primary"><input onclick="javascript: $('#sec').hide('slow');$('#primary_company').find('option:first').attr('selected','selected');" type="radio" runat="server" name="companyType" id="primary" />Primary</label> <label for="secondary"><input onclick="javascript: $('#sec').show('slow');" type="radio" runat="server" name="companyType" id="secondary" />Secondary</label> <div id="sec"> <fieldset> <label for="primary_company">Primary Company:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("primary_company", Model.SelectPrimaryCompanies, "** Select Primary Company **") %> </fieldset> If there is a primary_company, then the secondary radio button should be selected. If there is no primary_company, then the primary radio button should be selected. Here is my jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { if ($('#primary_company').val().length > 0) { $('#secondary').attr({ checked: true }); } else { $("#primary").attr('checked', true ); $('#sec').hide(); } The sec div hides and shows properly, but a radio button is never selected. I've tried .attr('checked', 'checked') and .attr({ checked: true }) and .attr('checked', true) but nothing is ever selected.

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  • Zend hostname route doesn't match when it has child routes

    - by talisker
    I am implementing an Admin module, which contains the following routes: 'router' => array( 'routes' => array( 'admin' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Hostname', 'options' => array( 'route' => ':subdomain.mydomain.local', 'constraints' => array( 'subdomain' => 'admin', ), 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), 'priority' => 9000, 'may_terminate' => true, 'child_routes' => array( 'users' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/users', 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Users', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), ) ), ), ), And this is the home route configuration: 'home' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/', 'defaults' => array( 'controller' => 'Application\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), When I try to access to http://admin.mydomain.com, the route match always with the homeroute, but if I remove all the child routes from the admin route, the behavior is correct and a http://admin.mydomain.com matches with the adminroute. Any idea?

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  • Hibernate collection multiple types

    - by CaptainAwesomePants
    I have a class Player that contains a list of Accessory objects. There are two kinds of Accessories. SocketedAccessories have a list of SocketJewels, and MagicAccessories have a list of MagicEnchantments. At the database level, there is a players table that represents the player, and an accessories table that contains a list of accessories. Accessories have a type field that indicates whether they are socketed or magical, and the columns that are only used by one type are just left blank by entries of the other type. There are socket_jewels and magic_enchantments tables, representing the socket jewels or the magic enchantments on each accessory. I am trying to figure out the correct way to map this with Hibernate. One way would be for the player to have two lists of accessories, one for SocketedAccessories and one for MagicAccessories. That seems undesirable, though. What I want is a way to specify that player should have a field List<Accessory> accessories that contains both types of thing. Is there a way to tell Hibernate, in either hbm.xml or annotations, to do this?

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  • Nhibernate - getting single column from other table

    - by Muhammad Akhtar
    I have following tables Employee: ID,CompanyID,Name //CompanyID is foriegn key of Company Table Company: CompanyID, Name I want to map this to the following class: public class Employee { public virtual Int ID { get; set; } public virtual Int CompanyID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string CompanyName { get; set; } protected Employee() { } } here is my xml class <class name="Employee" table="Employee" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="CompanyID" column="CompanyID" type="Int32" not-null="false"/> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> What I need to add in xml class to map CompanyName in my result? here is my code... public ArrayList getTest() { ISession session = NHibernateHelper.GetCurrentSession(); string query = "select Employee.*,(Company.Name)CompanyName from Employee inner join Employee on Employee.CompanyID = Company.CompanyID"; ArrayList document = (ArrayList)session.CreateSQLQuery(query, "Employee", typeof(Document)).List(); return document; } but in the returned result, I am getting CompanyName is null is result set and other columns are fine. Note:In DB, tables don't physical relation Please suggest my solution ------ Thanks

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  • Adding an Array inside an array in a PHP function

    - by bateman_ap
    I have created a function in PHP that calls a webservice and parses through the result, assinging values to variables and returning them all as an Array. This all works perfectly, however I have come across a need to have an "array within my array" I am assigning values as below: $productName = $product->Name; $productID = $product->ID; $productArray = array( 'productName' => "$productName", 'productID' => "$productID" ); return $productArray; However I now have a piece of data that comes back with multiple results so I need to have a additional array to store these, I am getting the values from the returned XML using a foreach loop, however I want to be able to add them to the array with a name so I can reference them in the returned data, this is where I have a problem... $bestForLists = $product->BestFors; foreach( $bestForLists as $bestForList ) { $productBestFors = $bestForList->BestFor; foreach( $productBestFors as $productBestFor ) { $productBestForName = $productBestFor->Name; $productBestForID = $productBestFor->ID; } } I tried creating an array for these using the below code: $bestForArray[] = (array( "productBestForID" => "$productBestForID", "productBestForName" => "$productBestForName" )); And then at the end merging these together: $productArray= array_merge($productArray,$bestForArray); If I print out the returned value I get: Array ( [productName] => Test Product [productID] => 14128 [0] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56647 [productBestForName] => Lighting ) [1] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56648 [productBestForName] => Sound ) ) I would like to give the internal Array a name so I can reference it in my code, or is there a better way of doing this, at the moment I am using the following in my PHP page to get values: $productName = $functionReturnedValues['productName']; I would like to use the following to access the array I could then loop through: $bestForArray = $functionReturnedValues['bestForArray']; Hope someone can help

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  • Problem with OnSubmit in Validation plugin in jQuery

    - by novellino
    Hello, I an quite new to jQuery and I have a problem while trying to create a form. I am using the Validation plugin for validate the email (one the form's field). When I click the Submit button I want to call my own function because I want to save the data in an XML file. This is my button: (as I understood the plugin uses "submit" for understand the button) <input type="submit" name="submit" class="submit" id="submit_btn" value="Send"/> and here is the script for the validation: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //this is my form $("#contactForm").validate(); /*save the valid data in the xml*/ $(".submit").click(function() { var email = $("input#email").val(); var subject = $("input#subject").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); if (email == "" || !$("#contactForm").valid()) { return false; } var dataString = 'email='+ email + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message; //alert("DATA: " +dataString); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "SaveData.jsp", data: dataString, success: function(data){} }); return false; }); }); </script> In general it works ok but I have two basic problems. When I click the button in the beginning having all the form empty, I get no message for the field required. Also when the data are valid and I am doing the submit, the form does not become clear after the submit. If I deleted this script code, these actions are working properly but I can not save the data! Does anyone know what is wrong? Thanks a lot!

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  • dynamical binding or switch/case?

    - by kingkai
    A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

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  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

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  • where did the _syscallN macros go in <linux/unistd.h>?

    - by Evan Teran
    It used to be the case that if you needed to make a system call directly in linux without the use of an existing library, you could just include <linux/unistd.h> and it would define a macro similar to this: #define _syscall3(type,name,type1,arg1,type2,arg2,type3,arg3) \ type name(type1 arg1,type2 arg2,type3 arg3) \ { \ long __res; \ __asm__ volatile ("int $0x80" \ : "=a" (__res) \ : "0" (__NR_##name),"b" ((long)(arg1)),"c" ((long)(arg2)), \ "d" ((long)(arg3))); \ if (__res>=0) \ return (type) __res; \ errno=-__res; \ return -1; \ } Then you could just put somewhere in your code: _syscall3(ssize_t, write, int, fd, const void *, buf, size_t, count); which would define a write function for you that properly performed the system call. It seems that this system has been superseded by something (i am guessing that "[vsyscall]" page that every process gets) more robust. So what is the proper way (please be specific) for a program to perform a system call directly on newer linux kernels? I realize that I should be using libc and let it do the work for me. But let's assume that I have a decent reason for wanting to know how to do this :-).

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  • Extracting function declarations from a PHP file

    - by byronh
    I'm looking to create an on-site API reference for my framework and application. Basically, say I have a class file model.class.php: class Model extends Object { ... code here ... // Separates results into pages. // Returns Paginator object. final public function paginate($perpage = 10) { ... more code here ... } } and I want to be able to generate a reference that my developers can refer to quickly in order to know which functions are available to be called. They only need to see the comments directly above each function and the declaration line. Something like this (similar to a C++ header file): // Separates results into pages. // Returns Paginator object. final public function paginate($perpage = 10); I've done some research and this answer looked pretty good (using Reflection classes), however, I'm not sure how I can keep the comments in. Any ideas? EDIT: Sorry, but I want to keep the current comment formatting. Myself and the people who are working on the code hate the verbosity associated with PHPDocumentor. Not to mention a comment-rewrite of the entire project would take years, so I want to preserve just the // comments in plaintext.

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  • Developing Job References

    - by Joe Smith
    How do you develop references for jobs? I have 6 years of programming experience spanning two jobs, but sadly I don't have a lot of people I can draw on as references. It's been several years since I left my last job, which was at a small company, and I've lost touch with the few people I knew there. I now work at another small company. I think I've gone as far as I can in my current position, and would like to look for greener pastures, but I can't exactly use my current boss as a reference, even though I have a very good repore with him. I'm sure he'd make a great reference down the road, but I'm afraid I'd insult him or jeopardize my current job by mentioning that I'm thinking of leaving and would like him to help me. I've applied to some jobs, and I have gotten several replies like, "Oh, you're exactly what we're looking for. Send us a couple references and we'll schedule an interview. Oh, no references? You must be a psychopath, nevermind." I've tried doing some small freelance work on the side, just so I can have a contact who can vouch for my work, but the competition for even small projects is pretty fierce and I can rarely devote adequate time to freelancing while holding a full time job. In addition, I often encounter a Catch-22 where a lot of freelancing jobs also require references. So how do programmers maintain existing references and develop new ones, especially while holding a full time job?

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  • Jquery to hightlight elements in a list

    - by John
    Hi I have a ol list: <ol> <li class="group1">item 1</li> <li class="group1">item 2</li> <li class="group2"> item 3</li> <li class="group3">item 4</li> <li class="group1">item 5</li> <li class="group3"> item 6</li> <ol> and a set of checkboxes which correspond to the class names <input type="checkbox" value="group1" />group 1 <input type="checkbox" value="group2" />group 2 <input type="checkbox" value="group3" />group 3 What I want to happen is that when a user clicks on a checkbox to 'tick' it, any li rows which are not checked are fadedOut (change opacity) and then any rows which have the class which matches the value of the checkbox are highlighter (background colour changed to yellow). So for example if group 3 was clicked, item 4 and item 6 would be highlighted. Then if group 2 was clicked item 3 would be highlighted (item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted). If group 2 was un-ticked, item 3 would become faded out although item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted. The code I have at the moment is: $('input').click(function(){ input = $(this); classVal = "." + input.val(); elements = $(classVal ); if (input.is(':checked')) { elements.css("background-color", "#FFFF00"); } else { elements.css("background-color", ""); } }); This handles the highlighting but does not do the fading of the unchecked elements. I know I can change the opacity using css("opacity", 0.33) or fadeTo("slow", 0.33) but not sure how to handle this in the code and where to put it. If any of my other code can be tidied up also please let me know Thanks

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  • unable to use html form post in php

    - by kossibox
    Hello i have an html form and i'm posting data but i'm unable to get the posted data on a php page (same page) can you please help me. thanks in advance <div class="left"> <form name="form_signin" method="post" onsubmit="return signinValid();" > <table> <tr> <td> Email : </td> <td> <input type="text" id="email" length ="40"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Mot de Passe : </td> <td> <input type="password" id ="pass" length ="40"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> &nbsp; </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Connexion" length ="40"> </td> </tr> </table> </form> <?php include 'includes.php'; include DB_CONNECT_FILE; //session_start(); print_r($_POST); // prints an empty array even if fields are filled $smart->assign('tpl_file',TEMPLATES_DIR.'signin.html'); $smart->display(TEMPLATES_DIR."with_right.html"); include DB_DISCONNECT_FILE; ?>

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  • jQuery ajax post of jpg image to .net webservice. Image results corrupted

    - by sosergio
    I have a phonegap jquery app that opens the camera and take a picture. I then POST this picture to a .net webservice, wich I've coded. I can't use phonegap FileTransfer because such isn't supported by Bada os, wich is a requirement. I believe I've successfully loaded the image from phonegap FileSystem API, I've attached it into an .ajax type:post, I've even received it from .net side, but when .net save the image into the server, the image results corrupted. It seems to me that two sides of the communication have different data type. Has anyone experience in this? Any help will be appreciated. This is my code: //PHONEGAP CAMERA ACCESS (summed up) navigator.camera.getPicture(onGetPictureSuccess, onGetPictureFail, { quality: 50, destinationType:Camera.DestinationType.FILE_URI }); window.resolveLocalFileSystemURI(imageURI, onResolveFileSystemURISuccess, onResolveFileSystemURIError); fileEntry.file(gotFileSuccess, gotFileError); new FileReader().readAsDataURL(file); //UPLOAD FILE function onDataReadSuccess(evt) { var image_data = evt.target.result; var filename = unique_id(); var filext = "jpg"; $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : SERVICE_BASE_URL+"/fotos/"+filename+"?ext="+filext, cache: false, timeout: 100000, processData: false, data: image_data, contentType: 'image/jpeg', success : function(data) { console.log("Data Uploaded with success. Message: "+ data); $.mobile.hidePageLoadingMsg(); $.mobile.changePage("ok.html"); } }); } On my .net Web Service this is the method that gets invoked: public string FotoSave(string filename, string extension, Stream fileContent) { string filePath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/foto_data/") + "\\" + filename; FileStream writeStream = new FileStream(filePath, FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Write); int Length = 256; Byte[] buffer = new Byte[Length]; int bytesRead = readStream.Read(buffer, 0, Length); // write the required bytes while (bytesRead > 0) { writeStream.Write(buffer, 0, bytesRead); bytesRead = readStream.Read(buffer, 0, Length); } readStream.Close(); writeStream.Close(); }

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  • Problem with UITextView

    - by user367039
    I have a strange problem with trying to pass a string from one viewcontroller to another view controller if the string originates from a UITextview instead of UITextfield. Both UITextview.text and UITextfield.text are of type NSString. The following code takes either Textfield.text or Textview.text depending on the fieldType and puts it into a string called aString. NSString *aString = [[NSString alloc] init]; if (fieldType == 3) { aString = textView.text; } else { aString = textField.text; } When I examine aString on either cases, I can see that it has successfully assigned the text into aString. I then pass the string to the other view controller using this code. [delegate updateSite:aString :editedFieldKey :fieldType]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; This works fine if aString originated from textfield.text but nothing happens except the view controller is popped if aString was from textview.text This is the code that takes aString and does stuff with it, however it doesn't even execute the first line of code "NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey);" if aString was from textview.text Any help will be appreciated. -(void)updateSite:(NSString *)aString :(NSString *)editedFieldKey :(int)fieldType { NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey); switch (fieldType) { case 0: //string [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey] ; NSLog(@"String set %@",[aDiveSite valueForKey:editedFieldKey] ); break; case 1: //int [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aString.intValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Integer set"); break; case 2: //float NSLog(@"Saving floating value"); [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:aString.floatValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Float set"); break; case 3: //Text view [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Textview text saved"); default: break; } [self.tableView reloadData]; }

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  • Use date operations on a computed field filter in a view

    - by stephenhay
    I'd like to expose a filter in Views based on a Computed Field. This field should utilize the date operation "less than". Apparently, a date type is not available to computed field (varchar is). However, using varchar results in views treating the field as a string rather than as a date, without the operation I'm looking for. So I tried using a timestamp instead of a date, which allowed me to use an integer data type. The exposed view gives me a "less than" operation, but as it's still not a date, the user must type in a timestamp. Not handy. So I'm thinking the best way to do this is to create a new (hidden) CCK field which is a date field, and set the value of this field to the value of the Computed Field. I can then use the new CCK field for my exposed filter. But I'm not getting anywhere with this, as I'm unsure how to set another CCK field with a Computed Field. To return the value to the computed field itself, I'm using the standard: $node_field[0]['value'] = $newestdate; I would like to set the value of the new CCK field to $newestdate as well. Can anyone help?

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