Search Results

Search found 49860 results on 1995 pages for 'reference type'.

Page 517/1995 | < Previous Page | 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524  | Next Page >

  • What should I do if i have a factory method which requires different parameters for different implem

    - by Sam Holder
    I have an interface, IMessage and a class which have several methods for creating different types of message like so: class MessageService { IMessage TypeAMessage(param 1, param 2) IMessage TypeBMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3, param 4) IMessage TypeCMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3) IMessage TypeDMessage(param 1) } I don't want this class to do all the work for creating these messages so it simply delegates to a MessageCreatorFactory which produces an IMessageCreator depending on the type given (an enumeration based on the type of the message TypeA, TypeB, TypeC etc) interface IMessageCreator { IMessage Create(MessageParams params); } So I have 4 implementations of IMessageCreator: TypeAMessageCreator, TypeBMessageCreator, TypeCMessageCreator, TypeDMessageCreator I ok with this except for the fact that because each type requires different parameters I have had to create a MessageParams object which contains 4 properties for the 4 different params, but only some of them are used in each IMessageCreator. Is there an alternative to this? One other thought I had was to have a param array as the parameter in the Create emthod, but this seems even worse as you don't have any idea what the params are. Or to create several overloads of Create in the interface and have some of them throw an exception if they are not suitable for that particular implementation (ie you called a method which needs more params, so you should have called one of the other overloads.) Does this seem ok? Is there a better solution?

    Read the article

  • Displaying data from a linked table and displaying it as a list with HTML/PHP/MySQL

    - by user1672694
    I have three tables. students studentID | FirstName | LastName | Email | Form course CCode | Title courseenrolement courseenrolementid | studentID | ccode | complete | scode With the website, I have a page where I can view all the current enrolements and I wish to be able to view the list displaying the first name, surname and course title. I know I could do it with the following SQL (for the names): SELECT FirstName, LastName FROM student, courseenrolement WHERE courseenrolement.studentID = student.studentID But I am unsure how to get this to work using HTML/PHP. At present I only know how to display the studentID and CCode from the courseenrolement table using the following code: <ul> <?php foreach ($courseenrolements as $ce): ?> <li> <form action="" method="post"> <div> <?php htmlout($ce['studentID']); ?> <?php htmlout($ce['CCode']); ?> <input type="hidden" name="courseenrolementid" value="<?php echo $ce['courseenrolementid']; ?>"> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Edit"> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Delete"> </div> </form> </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> which displays this: But I would like the names and course title. I managed to get it to show the names etc in the dropdown on the 'Add new' form, so I would assume it will be similar, but just unsure on how exactly. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Is there a Firebug console -vsdoc.js?

    - by David Murdoch
    If not, does anyone care to write one? I would do it myself...but I don't have time right now...maybe next week (unless someone beats me to it). If you are bored and want to compile the vsdoc: Here is the Firebug API. Here is a blog post about the format for VS doc comments for intellisense. Here is an example vsdoc (jquery-1.4.1-vsdoc.js). I created the following because I kept typing cosnole instead of console. You can use it as a starting point (ish). console = { /// <summary> /// 1: The javascript console /// </summary> /// <returns type="Object" /> }; console.log = function (object) { /// <summary> /// Write to the console's log /// </summary> /// <returns type="null" /> /// <param name="object" type="Object"> /// Write the object to the console's log /// </param> };

    Read the article

  • Image insert problem php sqlserver

    - by Termedi
    Hi I can not save image inside a sql server 2000 database. datatype is image here is the code: // Image Upload <?php include('config.php'); if(is_uploaded_file($_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name'])) { $fileName = $_FILES['userfile']['name']; $tmpName = $_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name']; $fileSize = $_FILES['userfile']['size']; $fileType = $_FILES['userfile']['type']; $size = filesize($tmpName); set_magic_quotes_runtime(0);//to desactive the default escape spacials caracters made by PHP in the externes files $img_binaire = base64_encode(fread(fopen(str_replace("'","''",$tmpName), "r"), $size)); $query = "INSERT INTO test_image (image_name, image_content, image_size) ". "VALUES ('{$fileName}','{$img_binaire}', '{$size}')"; odbc_exec($conn, $query) or die('Error, query failed'); echo "<br>File $fileName uploaded<br>"; echo "<br>File Size: $fileSize <br>"; } ?> // Image Show <?php include('config.php'); $sql = "select * from test_image where id =2"; $rsl = odbc_exec($conn, $sql); $image_info = odbc_fetch_array($rsl); //$count = sizeof($image_info['image_content']); //header('Accept-Ranges: bytes'); //header('Content-Length: '.$image_info['image_size']); //header("Content-length: 17397"); header('Content-Type: image/jpeg'); echo base64_decode($image_info['image_content']); //echo bindec($image_info['image_content']); ?> Error: Warning: odbc_exec() [function.odbc-exec]: SQL error: [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Operand type clash: text is incompatible with image, SQL state 22005 in SQLExecDirect in C:\xampp\htdocs\test\upload.php on line 25 Error, query failed

    Read the article

  • search form in php via ajax

    - by fusion
    i've a search form wherein the database query has been coded in php and the html file calls this php file via ajax to display the results in the search form. the problem is, i would like the result to be displayed in the same form as search.html; yet while the ajax works, it goes to search.php to display the results. search.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script src="scripts/search_ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="submitForm" method="post"> <div class="wrapper"> <div class="field"> <input name="search" id="search" /> </div><br /> <input id="button1" type="submit" value="Submit" class="submit" onclick="run_query();" /><br /> </div> <div id="searchContainer"> </div> </form> </body> </html> if i add action="search.php" to the form tag, it displays the result but on search.php. i'd like it to display on the same form [i.e search.html, and not search.php] if i just add the javascript function [as done above], it displays nothing on search.html

    Read the article

  • Bytecode and Objects

    - by HH
    Hey everyone, I am working on a bytecode instrumentation project. Currently when handling objects, the verifier throws an error most of the time. So I would like to get things clear concerning rules with objects (I read the JVMS but couldn't find the answer I was looking for): I am instrumenting the NEW instruction: original bytecode NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> after instrumentation NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESTATIC <Profiler.handleNEW> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> Note that I added a call to Profiler.handleNEW() which takes as argument an object reference (the newly created object). The piece of code above throws a VerificationError. While if I don't add the INVOKESTATIC (leaving only the DUP), it doesn't. So what is the rule that I'm violating? I can duplicate an uninitialized reference but I can't pass it as parameter? I would appreciate any help. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Help me with the simplest program for "Trusted" application

    - by idazuwaika
    Hi, I hope anyone from the large community here can help me write the simplest "Trusted" program that I can expand from. I'm using Ubuntu Linux 9.04, with TPM emulator 0.60 from Mario Strasser (http://tpm-emulator.berlios.de/). I have installed the emulator and Trousers, and can successfully run programs from tpm-tools after running tpmd and tcsd daemons. I hope to start developing my application, but I have problems compiling the code below. #include <trousers/tss.h> #include <trousers/trousers.h> #include <stdio.h> TSS_HCONTEXT hContext; int main() { Tspi_Context_Create(&hContext); Tspi_Context_Close(hContext); return 0; } After trying to compile with g++ tpm.cpp -o tpmexe I receive errors undefined reference to 'Tspi_Context_Create' undefined reference to 'Tspi_Context_Close' What do I have to #include to successfully compile this? Is there anything that I miss? I'm familiar with C, but not exactly so with Linux/Unix programming environment. ps: I am a part time student in Master in Information Security programme. My involvement with programming has been largely for academic purposes.

    Read the article

  • How do I make my program run with different privileges at Windows 7 startup?

    - by iira
    Hi, I am trying to add my program run in Windows 7 startup, but it doesn't work. My program has an embedded UAC manifest. My current way is by adding a string value at HKCU..\Run. I found a manual solution for Vista from http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en/w7itprosecurity/thread/81c3c1f2-0169-493a-8f87-d300ea708ecf Click Start, right click on Computer and choose “Manage”. Click “Task Scheduler” on the left panel. Click “Create Task” on the right panel. Type a name for the task. Check “Run with highest privileges”. Click Actions tab. Click “New…”. Browse to the program in the “Program/script” box. Click OK. On desktop, right click, choose New and click “Shortcut”. In the box type: schtasks.exe /run /tn TaskName where TaskName is the name of task you put in on the basics tab and click next. Type a name for the shortcut and click Finish. Additionally, you need to run the saved scheduled task shortcut to run the program instead of running the application shortcut to ignore the IAC prompt. When startup the system will run the program via the original shortcut. Therefore you need to change the location to run the saved task. Please: Open Regedit. Find the entry of the startup item in Registry. It will be stored in one of the following branches. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_USERS.DEFAULT\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Double-click on the correct key, change the path to the saved scheduled task you created. Is there any free code to add item with privileges option in scheduled task? I haven't found the free one in torry.net. Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • UnauthorizedAccessException in ComRegisterFunction when accessing registry on Win 7 64.

    - by sanbornc
    I have a [ComRegisterFunction] that I am using to register a BHO Internet explorer extension. During registration on 64-bit windows 7 machines, a UnauthorizedAccessException is thrown on the call to subKey.SetValue("NoExplorer", 1). The registry appears to have BHO's located @ \HKLM\SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\explorer\Browser Helper Objects, however, I get them same exception when trying to register there. Any Help would be appreciated. [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterBho(Type type) { string BhoKeyName= "Software\\Microsoft\\Windows\\CurrentVersion\\Explorer\\Browser Helper Objects"; RegistryKey registryKey = Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey(BhoKeyName, true) ?? Registry.LocalMachine.CreateSubKey(BhoKeyName); if(registryKey == null) throw new ApplicationException("Unable to register Bho"); registryKey.Flush(); string guid = type.GUID.ToString("B"); RegistryKey subKey = registryKey.OpenSubKey(guid) ?? registryKey.CreateSubKey(guid); if (subKey == null) throw new ApplicationException("Unable to register Bho"); subKey.SetValue("NoExplorer", 1); registryKey.Close(); subKey.Close(); }

    Read the article

  • Go - Using a map for its set properties with user defined types

    - by Seth Hoenig
    I'm trying to use the built-in map type as a set for a type of my own (Point, in this case). The problem is, when I assign a Point to the map, and then later create a new, but equal point and use it as a key, the map behaves as though that key is not in the map. Is this not possible to do? // maptest.go package main import "fmt" func main() { set := make(map[*Point]bool) printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 0)] = true printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 2)] = true printSet(set) _, ok := set[NewPoint(3, 3)] // not in map if !ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for non existent element\n") } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for non existent element\n") } c, ok := set[NewPoint(0, 2)] // another one just like it already in map if ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for existent element\n") // should get this } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for existent element\n") // get this } fmt.Printf("c: %t\n", c) } func printSet(stuff map[*Point]bool) { fmt.Print("Set:\n") for k, v := range stuff { fmt.Printf("%s: %t\n", k, v) } } type Point struct { row int col int } func NewPoint(r, c int) *Point { return &Point{r, c} } func (p *Point) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("{%d, %d}", p.row, p.col) } func (p *Point) Eq(o *Point) bool { return p.row == o.row && p.col == o.col }

    Read the article

  • asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation with web content

    - by Eyla
    I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • Rexml - Parsing Data

    - by Paddy
    I have a XML File in the following format: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <entry xmlns='http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom' xmlns:gwo='http://schemas.google.com/analytics/websiteoptimizer/2009' xmlns:app='http://www.w3.org/2007/app' xmlns:gd='http://schemas.google.com/g/2005' gd:etag='W/&quot;DUYGRX85fCp7I2A9WxFWEkQ.&quot;'><id>https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/websiteoptimizer/experiments/1025910</id><updated>2010-05-31T02:12:04.124-07:00</updated><app:edited>2010-05-31T02:12:04.124-07:00</app:edited><title>Flow Experiment</title><link rel='gwo:goalUrl' type='text/html' href='http://cart.personallifemedia.com/dlg/download.php'/><link rel='alternate' type='text/html' href='https://www.google.com/websiteoptimizer'/><link rel='self' type='application/atom+xml' href='https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/websiteoptimizer/experiments/1025910'/><gwo:analyticsAccountId>16334726</gwo:analyticsAccountId><gwo:autoPruneMode>None</gwo:autoPruneMode><gwo:controlScript>..... I have to parse and get the data for gd:etag and how do I do it? I was able to get the value using SimpleXML, but i wanted to achieve it in ReXML. Please do advice.

    Read the article

  • Implementing IXmlSerializable on a generated class that has XmlTypeAttribute

    - by Josh
    Basically, the initial problem is I need to make a boolean value serialize as 0 or 1. The solution I found was to implement IXmlSerializable, which I did. Unfortunately the class I'm trying to serialize is generated code off a schema and has an XmlTypeAttribute on it. When I try to (de)serialize the object with the XmlSerializer created in the usual manner ( new XmlSerializer(type)) it throws this exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Only XmlRoot attribute may be specified for the type ______ Please use XmlSchemaProviderAttribute to specify schema type. Two options come to mind immediatly: 1) remove the attribute in the generated code. This change would have to be made every time the code was re-generated. 2) Use an XmlAttributeOverrides object when creating the serializer to remove the attribute. This would require the rest of the code base to "know" that it needs to override that attribute. Also, the exception thrown gives absolutly no clue as to what needs to be done to fix it. Both options kinda stink. Is there a third option?

    Read the article

  • PHP/MySQL allowing current user to edit there account information

    - by user1837896
    i have created 2 pages update.php edit.php we start on edit.php so here is edit.php's script <?php session_start(); $id = $_SESSION["id"]; $username = $_POST["username"]; $fname = $_POST["fname"]; $password = $_POST["password"]; $email = $_POST["email"]; mysql_connect('mysql13.000webhost.com', 'a2670376_Users', 'Password') or die(mysql_error()); echo "MySQL Connection Established! <br>"; mysql_select_db("a2670376_Pass") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Database Found! <br>"; $query = "UPDATE members SET username = '$username', fname = '$fname', password = '$password' WHERE id = '$id'"; $res = mysql_query($query); if ($res) echo "<p>Record Updated<p>"; else echo "Problem updating record. MySQL Error: " . mysql_error(); ?> <form action="update.php" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="id" value="<?=$id;?>"> ScreenName:<br> <input type='text' name='username' id='username' maxlength='25' style='width:247px' name="username" value="<?=$username;?>"/><br> FullName:<br> <input type='text' name='fname' id='fname' maxlength='20' style='width:248px' name="ud_img" value="<?=$fname;?>"/><br> Email:<br> <input type='text' name='email' id='email' maxlength='50' style='width:250px' name="ud_img" value="<?=$email;?>"/><br> Password:<br> <input type='text' name='password' id='password' maxlength='25' style='width:251px' value="<?=$password;?>"/><br> <input type="Submit"> </form> now here is the update.php page where i am having the MAJOR problem <?php session_start(); mysql_connect('mysql13.000webhost.com', 'a2670376_Users', 'Password') or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("a2670376_Pass") or die(mysql_error()); $id = (int)$_SESSION["id"]; $username = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["username"]); $fname = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["fname"]); $email = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["email"]); $password = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["password"]); $query="UPDATE members SET username = '$username', fname = '$fname', email = '$email', password = '$password' WHERE id='$id'"; mysql_query($query)or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_affected_rows()>=1){ echo "<p>($id) Record Updated<p>"; }else{ echo "<p>($id) Not Updated<p>"; } ?> now on edit.php i fill out the form to edit the account "test" while i am logged into it now once the form if filled out i click on |Submit!| button and it takes me to update.php and it returns this (0) Not Updated (0) <= id of user logged in Not Updated <= MySql Error from mysql_query($query)or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_affected_rows()>=1){ i want it to update the user logged in and if i am not mistaken in this script it says $id = (int)$_SESSION["id"]; witch updates the user with the id of the person who is logged in but it isnt updating its saying that no tables were effected if it helps heres my MySql Database picture just click here http://i50.tinypic.com/21juqfq.png if this could possibly be any help to find the solution i have 2 more files delete.php and delete_ac.php they have can remove users from my sql database and they show the user id and it works there are no bugs in this script at all PLEASE DO NOT MAKE SUGGESTIONS FOR THE SCRIPTS BELOW delete.php first <?php $host="mysql13.000webhost.com"; // Host name $username="a2670376_Users"; // Mysql username $password="PASSWORD"; // Mysql password $db_name="a2670376_Pass"; // Database name $tbl_name="members"; // Table name // Connect to server and select database. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); mysql_select_db("$db_name")or die("cannot select DB"); // select record from mysql $sql="SELECT * FROM $tbl_name"; $result=mysql_query($sql); ?> <table border="0" cellpadding="3" cellspacing="1" bgcolor="#CCCCCC"> <tr> <td colspan="8" style="bgcolor: #FFFFFF"><strong><img src="http://i47.tinypic.com/u6ihk.png" height="30" widht="30">Delete data in mysql</strong> </td> </tr> <tr> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Id</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>UserName</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>FullName</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Password</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Email</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Date</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Ip</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF">&nbsp;</td> </tr> <?php while($rows=mysql_fetch_array($result)){ ?> <tr> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['id']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['username']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['fname']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['password']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['email']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['date']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['ip']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><a href="delete_ac.php?id=<? echo $rows['id']; ?>">delete</a></td> </tr> <?php // close while loop } ?> </table> <?php // close connection; sql_close(); ?> and now delete_ac.php <table width="500" border="0" cellpadding="3" cellspacing="1" bgcolor="#CCCCCC"> <tr> <td colspan="8" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong><img src="http://t2.gstatic.com/images? q=tbn:ANd9GcS_kwpNSSt3UuBHxq5zhkJQAlPnaXyePaw07R652f4StmvIQAAf6g" height="30" widht="30">Removal Of Account</strong> </td> </tr> <tr> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"> <?php $host="mysql13.000webhost.com"; // Host name $username="a2670376_Users"; // Mysql username $password="javascript00"; // Mysql password $db_name="a2670376_Pass"; // Database name $tbl_name="members"; // Table name // Connect to server and select databse. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); mysql_select_db("$db_name")or die("cannot select DB"); // get value of id that sent from address bar $id=$_GET['id']; // Delete data in mysql from row that has this id $sql="DELETE FROM $tbl_name WHERE id='$id'"; $result=mysql_query($sql); // if successfully deleted if($result){ echo "Deleted Successfully"; echo "<BR>"; echo "<a href='delete.php'>Back to main page</a>"; } else { echo "ERROR"; } ?> <?php // close connection mysql_close(); ?> </td> </tr> </table>

    Read the article

  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

    - by John
    Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

    Read the article

  • Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

    - by routeNpingme
    Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

    Read the article

  • Client-side validation breaks in IE because of PropertyProxyValidator and ScriptManager cooperation.

    - by Eugene
    The specific of the project is in using Enterpise Library for Server side validation and jQuery for client-side validation. So I have the next simple form for example: <asp:Content ID="_mainContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { "<%= _txtProjectName.UniqueID %>": { required: true } } }); }); </script> <asp:TextBox ID="_txtProjectName" runat="server" CssClass="textBoxWithValidator_long" /> <entlib:PropertyProxyValidator id="_validatorProjectName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="_txtProjectName" PropertyName="ProjectName" SourceTypeName="LabManagement.Project.Project" /> <asp:Button CssClass="cell_InlineElement" ID="_btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" onclick="_btnSave_Click" Width="50px" /> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true"> </asp:ScriptManager> </asp:Content> The problem is in the next: client-side validation worked correctly before I needed to implement some AJAX.NET feature. So I have to add to the page ScriptManager (the last two lines in the code). But after that the next situation appeared: In InternetExplorer((7) - only in IE !!! - in Firefox everything works correctly) after clicking save button, if left the textbox ProjectName empty the client-side jquery validation appears but (!) the page submits to the server anyway. Some notes: If delete PropertyProxyValidator from the page - the client-side validation works correctly in IE but I need it for specific of the project. It seems that the problem is in the function WebForm_OnSubmit() that is inserted to the form after PropertyProxyValidator adding. ( ... <form name="aspnetForm" method="post" action="Project.aspx?TransType=NewProject" onsubmit="javascript:return WebForm_OnSubmit();" ...>) Could anyone help, please.

    Read the article

  • Instanced drawing with OpenGL ES 2.0

    - by Mårten Wikström
    In short: Is it possible to use the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in OpenGL ES 2.0? And, if so, how? Some more info: I want to draw multiple instances of an object using glDrawArraysInstanced and gl_InstanceID, and I want my application to run on multiple platforms, including iOS. The specification clearly says that these features require ES 3.0. According to the iOS Device Compatibility Reference ES 3.0 is only available on a few devices (those based on the A7 GPU; so iPhone 5s, but not on iPhone 5 or earlier). So my first assumption was that I needed to avoid using instanced drawing on older iOS devices. However, further down in the compatibility reference document it says that the EXT_draw_instanced extension is supported for all SGX Series 5 processors (that includes iPhone 5 and 4s). This makes me think that I could indeed use instanced drawing on older iOS devices too, by looking up and using the appropriate extension function (EXT or ARB) for glDrawArraysInstanced. I'm currently just running some test code using SDL and GLEW on Windows so I haven't tested anything on iOS yet. However, in my current setup I'm having trouble using the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in a vertex shader. I'm getting the following error message: 'gl_InstanceID' : variable is not available in current GLSL version Enabling the "draw_instanced" extension in GLSL has no effect: #extension GL_ARB_draw_instanced : enable #extension GL_EXT_draw_instanced : enable The error goes away when I specifically declare that I need ES 3.0 (GLSL 300 ES): #version 300 es Although that seem to work fine on my Windows desktop machine in an ES 2.0 context I doubt that this would work on an iPhone 5. So, shall I abandon the idea of being able to use instanced drawing on older iOS devices?

    Read the article

  • How to Store and Retrieve Images Using MsSQL (Server Management Studio)

    - by Joe Majewski
    I am having difficulties when trying to insert files into an MsSQL database. I'll try to break this down as best as I can: What data type should I be using to store image files (jpeg/png/gif/etc)? Right now my table is using the image data type, but I am curious if varbinary would be a better option. How would I go about inserting the image into the database? Does Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio have any built in functions that allow insertions of files into tables? If so, how is that done? Also, how could this be done through the use of an HTML form with PHP handling the input data and placing it into the table? How would I fetch the image from the table and display it on the page? I understand how to SELECT the cell's contents, but how would I go about translating that into a picture. Would I have to have a header(Content type: image/jpeg)? I have no problem doing any of these things with MySQL, but the MsSQL environment is still new to me, and I am working on a project for my job that requires the use of stored procedures to grab various data. Any and all help is appreciated. Thank you very much for your responses!

    Read the article

  • Recommended Meta Elements?

    - by joyce
    Hi everyone! Setting up a "basic framework" for my website projects, I'm wondering which meta elements are really necessary/recommended? In particular, I'd like to know how to deal with the language attribute(s)!? In the following example, I think sth. is repeated unnecessarily... <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en" dir="ltr"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <meta http-equiv="content-style-type" content="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="content-script-type" content="text/javascript" /> <meta http-equiv="content-language" content="en" /> <meta http-equiv="language" content="en" /> <title> Title </title> <base href="http://www.mydomain.com" /> <meta name="charset" content="utf-8" /> <meta name="content-language" content="en" /> <meta name="language" content="en" /> <meta name="description" content="description" /> <meta name="keywords" content="keywords" /> </head>

    Read the article

  • What OOP pattern to use when only adding new methods, not data?

    - by Jonathon Reinhart
    Hello eveyone... In my app, I have deal with several different "parameters", which derive from IParameter interface, and also ParamBase abstract base class. I currently have two different parameter types, call them FooParameter and BarParameter, which both derive from ParamBase. Obviously, I can treat them both as IParameters when I need to deal with them generically, or detect their specific type when I need to handle their specific functionality. My question lies in specific FooParameters. I currently have a few specific ones with their own classes which derive from FooParameter, we'll call them FP12, FP13, FP14, etc. These all have certain characteristics, which make me treat them differently in the UI. (Most have names associated with the individual bits, or ranges of bits). Note that these specific, derived FP's have no additional data associated with them, only properties (which refer to the same data in different ways) or methods. Now, I'd like to keep all of these parameters in a Dictionary<String, IParameter> for easy generic access. The problem is, if I want to refer to a specific one with the special GUI functions, I can't write: FP12 fp12 = (FP12)paramList["FP12"] because you can't downcast to a derived type (rightfully so). But in my case, I didn't add any data, so the cast would theoretically work. What type of programming model should I be using instead? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • XmlDeserializer to handle inline lists

    - by d1k_is
    Im looking at implementing a fix in an XmlDeserializer to allow for element lists without a specific containing element. The XmlDeserializer im basing off checks for a list object type but then it gets the container element im trying to figure out how to get around this and make it work both ways. enter code here var t = type.GetGenericArguments()[0]; var list = (IList)Activator.CreateInstance(type); var container = GetElementByName(root, prop.Name.AsNamespaced(Namespace)); var first = container.Elements().FirstOrDefault(); var elements = container.Elements().Where(d => d.Name == first.Name); PopulateListFromElements(t, elements, list); prop.SetValue(x, list, null); The XML im working with is from the google weather API (forecast_conditions elements) <weather module_id="0" tab_id="0" mobile_row="0" mobile_zipped="1" row="0" section="0"> <forecast_information>...</forecast_information> <current_conditions>...</current_conditions> <forecast_conditions>...</forecast_conditions> <forecast_conditions>...</forecast_conditions> <forecast_conditions>...</forecast_conditions> </weather> EDIT: Im looking at this as an update to the RESTsharp open source .net library

    Read the article

  • C# Fun with Generics - Mutual Dependencies

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    As an experiment I'm trying to write a generic MVP framework. I started with: public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView<IPresenter<... { TView View { get; set;} } public interface IView<TPresenter> where TPresenter:IPresenter<IView<... { TPresenter Presenter { get; set; } } Obviously this can't work because the types of TView and TPresenter can't be resolved. You'd be writing Type<Type<... forever. So my next attempt looked like this: public interface IView<T> where T:IPresenter { ... } public interface IView:IView<IPresenter> { } public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView { ... } public interface IPresenter: IPresenter<IView> { ... } This actually compiles and you can even inherit from these interfaces like so: public class MyView : IView, IView<MyPresenter> { ... } public class MyPresenter : IPresenter, IPresenter<MyView> { ... } The problem is in the class definition you have to define any members declared in the generic type twice. Not ideal but it still compiles. The problem's start creeping up when you actually try to access the members of a Presenter from a View or vice versa. You get an Ambiguous reference when you try to compile. Is there any way to avoid this double implementation of a member when you inherit from both interfaces? Is it even possible to resolve two mutually dependent generic types at compile time?

    Read the article

  • certain BitMapData types dont work in a beginBitmapFill() method.

    - by numerical25
    Say I loaded a bitMap into a bitmapData type called tileImage. tileImage = Bitmap(loader.content).bitmapData; say I decided to add that bitmap into a sprite like below this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tileImage ); this.graphics.drawRect(0, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); It would of course work. But say If I decided to add tileImage into a another bitMapData type like below var tImage:BitmapData = new BitmapData(30,30); tImage.copyPixels(tileImage,tRect,tPoint); and I then added tImage to my sprite this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tImage); this.graphics.drawRect(0, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); I then get the following error ArgumentError: Error #2015: Invalid BitmapData. tRect and tPoint are all predefined and set. tRect x and y are 0,0 and the width and height are 30x30. tPoint is 0,0 as well. Yes I understand that this is a very brief explanation but I wanted to elaborate that a bitMapdata type that has its data from the copypixel method does not work with beginBitmapFill. but a varible that gets its data straigt from the source, does. One works, and one doesnt, yet they are both the same data types. why is this ?

    Read the article

  • How to insert an element between the two elements dynamically?

    - by Harish
    I am using a table, in which there are buttons, on button click i want the new TR element to be inserted between the two TR or at the end of the TR... my code goes here <table> <tbody> <tr> <td> <input type="submit" value="Add" onclick="addFunction()" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="submit" value="Add" onclick="addFunction()" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="submit" value="Add" onclick="addFunction()" /> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> i want to insert new TR element next to the element which has triggered the event... NOTE: i am not using any javascript library, just plain javascript

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524  | Next Page >