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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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  • Multiple Facebook scripts?

    - by J Set
    This may be kind of a dumb question, but the script for the facebook button on the like button page is different from the script on the javascript sdk page, but similar. Did facebook just forget to update the documentation or do I need both scripts? The like button page gives: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> (function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) return; js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk'));</script> But on the javascript sdk page: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : 'YOUR_APP_ID', // App ID channelUrl : '//WWW.YOUR_DOMAIN.COM/channel.html', // Channel File status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); // Additional initialization code here }; // Load the SDK Asynchronously (function(d){ var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk', ref = d.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; ref.parentNode.insertBefore(js, ref); }(document)); </script>

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  • How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

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  • FormsAuthentication authCookie is null only for some users

    - by mbalkema
    I am experiencing a strange problem with asp.net forms authentication. This problem only occurs for 3 users out of 30+ users that have successfully logged in. I am using very basic auth code that I have used many times and have never seen this problem. After the users successfully authenticates and the auth cookie is created, cookie added, and response.redirect to FormsAuthentication.GetRedirect(userid, false) is called. The Application_AuthenticateRequest method in Global.asax is hit. // Extract the forms authentication cookie string cookieName = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName; HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[cookieName]; if (null == authCookie) { // There is no authentication cookie. return; } So immediately after a "good" cookie is saved and the redirect occurs the cookie is null. I have run the code through the debugger and the cookie is only null on these 3 users. But the cookie looks the same as the cookie for the many users that login successfully. Any ideas? This is standard code that should just work.

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  • Website. VoteUp or VoteDown Videos. How to restrict users voting multiple times?

    - by DJDonaL3000
    Im working on a website (html,css,javascript, ajax, php,mysql), and I want to restrict the number of times a particular user votes for a particular video. Its similar to the YouTube system where you can voteUp or voteDown a particular video. Each vote involves adding a row to the video.votes table, which logs the time, vote direction(up or down), the client IPaddress( using PHP: $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; ), and of course the ID of the video in question. Adding votes is as simple as; (pseudocode): Javascript:onClick( vote( a,b,c,d ) ), which passes variables to PHP insertion script via ajax, and finally we replace the voteing buttons with a "Thank You For Voting" message. THE PROBLEM: If you reload/refresh the page after voting, you can vote again, and again, and again, you get the point. MY QUESTION: How do you limit the amount of times a particular user votes for a particular video?? MY THOUGHTS: Do you use cookies, and add a new cookie with the id of the video. And check for a cookie before you insert a new vote.? OR Before you insert the vote, do you use the IPaddress and the videoID to see if this same user(IP) has voted for this same video(vidID) in the past 24hrs(mktime), and either allow or dissallow the voteInsertion based on this query? OR Do you just not care? Take the assumption that most users are sane, and have better things to do than refresh pages and vote repeatedly.?? Any suggestions or ideas welcome.

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  • cURL cookie negative cookie expire

    - by Joe Doe
    I have problems with cookies with cURL. After problems I turned on verbose function and figured out cURL sets them negative expire date even if server sends positive date. Example: * Added cookie _c_sess=""test"" for domain test.com, path /, expire -1630024962 < Set-Cookie: _c_sess="test"; Domain=test.com; HttpOnly; expires=Mon, 26-Mar-2012 14:52:47 GMT; Max-Age=1332773567; Path=/ As you can see both expires and max-age are positive, but cURL sets expire to negative value. Somebody has idea? EDIT: Here is php code I use. $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://site.com/"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; rv:11.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/11.0'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookiepath); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookiepath); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER ,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE ,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_STDERR ,$f); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER ,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION ,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); $data = curl_exec($ch); Data from cookie jar: #HttpOnly_.test.com TRUE / FALSE -1630016318 _test_sess "test"

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  • client-side data storage and retrieval with html and javascript

    - by pedalpete
    I'm building what I am hoping to be a fairly simple, quick and dirty demo app. So far, I've managed to build a bunch of components using only html and javascript. I know that eventually I'll hook-up a db, but at this point I'm just trying to show off some functionality. In the page, a user can select a bunch of other users (like friends). Then they go to a separate html page and there is some sorting info based on the selected users. So my first attempt was to put the selected users object into a cookie, and retrieve the cookie on the second page. Unfortunately, if the user changed their selection, the cookie wasn't getting updated, and my searches on StackOverflow seemed to say that deleting and updating cookies is unreliable. I tried function updateCookie(updatedUserList){ jQuery.cookie('userList',null); jQuery.cookie('userList',updatedUserList); } but though it set the cookie to null, it wouldn't update it on the second value. So I decided to put the selected users object into a form. Unfortunately, it looks like I can't retrieve the contents from the form on the client-side, only on the server-side. Is there another way to do this? I've worked in PHP and Rails, but I'm trying to do this quickly and simply before building it out into something larger and am trying to avoid any server-side processing for now, which I have managed to do up to this point.

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  • I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur

    - by Alex
    I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL Profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second Linq-to-SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

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  • Cross-platform HTML application options

    - by Charles
    I'd like to develop a stand-alone desktop application targeting Windows (XP through 7) and Mac (Tiger through Snow Leopard), and if possible iPhone and Android. In order to make it all work with as much common code as possible (and because it's the only thing I'm good at), I'd like to handle the main logic with HTML and JS. Using Adobe AIR is a possibility. And I think I can do this with various application wrappers, using .NET for Windows XP, Objective C for iPhone, Java for Android and native "widget" platform support for Mac and Windows Vista & 7 (though I'd like to keep the widget in the foreground, so the Mac dashboard isn't ideal). Does anyone have any suggestions on where to start? The two sticking points are: I'll certainly need some form of persistent storage (cookies perhaps) to keep state between sessions I'll also probably need access to remote data files, so if I use AJAX and the hosting HTML file resides on the device, it will need to be able to do cross-domain requests. I've done this on the iPhone without any problems, but I'd be surprised if this were possible on other platforms. For me, Android and iPhone will be the easiest to handle, and it looks like I can use Adobe AIR to handle the rest. But I wanted to know if there are any other alternatives. Does anyone have any suggesions?

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  • Simple jQuery syntax help, don't know where I've gone wrong

    - by Jascination
    I'm having trouble with a jQuery code at the moment, I know WHERE the problem lies, but I don't know what the problem is exactly. Probably very basic, but I'm new to this. You can see a (non)working fiddle here: http://www.jsfiddle.net/CvZeQ/ Basically I want to set different .click function based on whatever is selected (I have 5 image maps, each with a different #mapname, and want each to pertain to a different variable (answer1, answer2, answer3...) so as to store the selected 'answer' for each map.) Here is the code I'm using for one of the maps: $(window).load(function(){ //Get cookies when page loaded var useranswers=$.cookie('survery'); useranswers= JSON.parse (useranswers); // do something with previous answers //#shape functions $('#shape area').hover( function(e){ $('#'+ this.alt).addClass('hover'); }, function(e){ $('#'+ this.alt).removeClass('hover'); } ).click( function(e){ $('img.selected-region').removeClass('selected-region'); }, function(e){ $('#'+ this.alt).addClass('selected-region'); }, function(e){ var answer1 = $(this).attr("class"); }); }); I know the problem lies somewhere with the .click function, but I'm not entirely sure what I've done wrong. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

    - by NBrowne
    Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

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  • Mysterious HttpSession and session-config dependency

    - by OneMoreVladimir
    Good day. I'm developing a Java web app with Servlets\JSP using Tomcat 7.0. During request from client I put and object into the session and use forward. After the forward processing the same request the object can be retreived if the secure parameter is false otherwise it is not stored in session. <session-config> <session-timeout>15</session-timeout> <cookie-config> <http-only>true</http-only> <secure>true</secure> </cookie-config> <tracking-mode>COOKIE</tracking-mode> </session-config> I've figured out that "...cookies can be created with the 'secure' flag, which ensures that the browser will never transmit the specified cookie over non-SSL...". I've configured Tomcat to use SSL, but that haven't helped. Changing the tracking mode to SSL haven't helped as well. How do session-config and HttpSession object correlate in this case? What could be the problem?

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  • get_browser not working

    - by tazphoenix
    it's not working.i mean i have many scripts to get ip and os but anyway get_browser is internal function and should work but its not.when i try to get a print_r on the function i get. Array ( [browser_name_regex] => §^.*$§ [browser_name_pattern] => * [browser] => Default Browser [version] => 0 [majorver] => 0 [minorver] => 0 [platform] => unknown [alpha] => [beta] => [win16] => [win32] => [win64] => [frames] => 1 [iframes] => [tables] => 1 [cookies] => [backgroundsounds] => [cdf] => [vbscript] => [javaapplets] => [javascript] => [activexcontrols] => [isbanned] => [ismobiledevice] => [issyndicationreader] => [crawler] => [cssversion] => 0 [supportscss] => [aol] => [aolversion] => 0 ) I'm using win7 and firefox.

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  • How can I serialize functions using JSON or some other serialization library?

    - by Oragamster
    I am trying to create a program that uses javascript to write a simple textadventure that I can then post on my blog and run on my iphone. I have run into a problem though. I was trying to make it so that my program would save it's state into cookies using JSON to convert it into strings and then post it into a cookie but then I realised that I couldn't serialize the functions that are on my item object. I was trying to make it so that my item would have an associative array that would contain the name of the use as the key and the function as the value. This worked well untill I tried to serialize it. I learned that I could create a JSON like serialization for functions by storing the body into a string and using escape charectors for the double quotes but for some reason I was unable to make my cookie with the function as the string stored. When I posted the cookie and then tried to get it back the string wasn't there. My code and the over all project are on my site if you want to look at that, though my full code including the item actions are not posted yet.

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  • Authentication and Security in my website - need advice please.

    - by Ichirichi
    Hi, I am using database with a list of username/passwords, and a simple web form that allows for users to enter their username/password. When they submit the page, I simply do a stored procedure check to authenticate. If they are authorised, then their user details (e.g. username, dob, address, company address, other important info) are stored in a custom User object and then in a session. This custom User object that I created is used throughout the web application, and also in a sub-site (session sharing). My question/problems are: Is my method of authentication the correct way to do things? I find users complaining that their session have expired although they "were not idle", possibly due the app pool recycling? They type large amounts of text and find that their session had expired and thus lose all the text typed in. I am uncertain whether the session does really reset sporadically but will Forms Authentication using cookies/cookiless resolve the issue? Alternatively should I build and store the User Object in a session, cookie or something else instead in order to be more "correct" and avoid cases like in point #2. If I go down the Forms Authentication route, I believe I cannot store my custom User object in a Forms Authentication cookie so does it mean I would store the UserID and then recreate the user object on every page? Would this not be a huge increase on the server load? Advice and answers much appreciated. L

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  • Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

    - by Pazinio
    I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

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  • Facebook-ios-sdk with embedded UIWebView

    - by Benchtop Creative
    I'm working with the new facebook-ios-sdk and have successfully integrated the api into my native app. I am able to authenticate a user and properly setup permissions using a popup dialog with the ios-sdk classes. For a portion of my app I need to use the facebook connection within a UIWebView, using javascript and html to process data within the webview. Given that the user is already logged in and authenticated via the above routine, I would have assumed that the UIWebView would share those credentials, or that there would at least be some way to pass or assign the credentials to the webview. Unfortunately, I found this earlier post which seems to suggest that this scheme doesn't quite work (iOS - being logged-in in a webView after logging in with the SDK). Has anyone else encountered this and/or found a work around? This seems like it would be a fairly straightforward use case given that I'm not trying to launch mobile safari or something like that - it's all within the same native app. It just seems like there must be some sort of easy trick or setting that I'm missing. Maybe somehow setting cookies in the new UIWebView? or something like this?

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  • Get Username from a Cookie

    - by craphunter
    Hi, I use the backend solution from django. I just want to get a username from the cookie or the session_key to get to know the user. How I can do it? from django.contrib.auth.models import User from django.contrib.sessions.models import Session def start(request, template_name="registration/my_account.html"): user_id = request.session.get('session_key') if user_id: name = request.user.username return render_to_response(template_name, locals()) else: return render_to_response('account/noauth.html') Only else is coming up. What am I doing wrong? Am I right then that authenticated means he is logged in? -- Okay this I got! Firstly, if you have some clarification to a question, update the question, don't post an answer or (even worse) another question, as you have done. Secondly, if the user is logged out, by definition he doesn't have a username. I mean the advantage of Cookies is to identify a user again. I just want to place his name on the webpage. Even if he is logged out. Or isnt't it possible?

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  • Choosing between Facebook iframe scrollbar or page cut off halfway

    - by pg.
    I have an iframe tab in facebook. I used "overflow:hidden" in the body tag and this code at the bottom of my page: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : 'MY_APP_ID', status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); FB.Canvas.setAutoResize(100); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script> This removes the scrollbars and resizes the iframe. The problem is that my page is cut off after about 800px (that leaves about 400px). I've set the height in facebook to "fluid". It works absolutely fine in every other browser but not in IE8. As a side question, why does IE still exist? It's the absolute worst thing. Anyways, I added this to the head: <!--[if IE]> <style> body{overflow-y:scroll;} </style> <![endif]--> But that just gets me back to having the scrollbars again.

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  • How best to present a security vulnerability to a web development team in your own company?

    - by BigCoEmployee
    Imagine the following scenario: You work at Big Co. and your coworkers down the hall are on the web development team for Big Co's public blog system, which a lot of Big Co employees and some public people use. The blog system allows any HTML and JavaScript, and you've been told that it was a choice (not by accident) but you aren't sure if they realize the implications of this. So you want to convince them that this is a bad idea. You write some demonstration code and plant a XSS script in your own blog, and then write some blog posts. Soon after, the head blog admin (down the hall) visits your blog post and the XSS sends his cookies to you. You copy them into your browser and you are now logged in as him. Okay, now you're logged in as him... And you start realizing that it maybe wasn't such a good idea to go ahead and 'hack' the blog system. But you are a good guy! You don't touch his account after logging into it, and you definitely don't plan on publicizing this weakness; you just maybe want to show them that the public is able to do this, so that they can fix it before someone malicious realizes the same thing! What is the best course of action from here?

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  • I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur (MS SQL/ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Alex
    I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second LINQ TO SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

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  • What's wrong with this inner query (MySQL)...

    - by stuboo
    ...besides the fact that I am a total amateur? My table is set up like this: CREATE TABLE `messages` ( `id` int(6) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `patient_id` int(6) unsigned NOT NULL, `message` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `savedate` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `senddate` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `SmsSid` varchar(40) NOT NULL COMMENT 'where we store the cookies from twilio', `sendorder` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL COMMENT 'the order we want the msg sent in', `sent` tinyint(1) NOT NULL COMMENT '0=queued, 1=sent, 2=sent-unqueued,4=rec-unread,5=recd-read', PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=143 ; I need a query that will SELECT * FROM `messages` WHERE `senddate` < $now AND `sent` = 0 (AND LIMIT TO ONLY ONE RECORD PER `patient_id`) I've tried the following: SELECT * FROM `messages` WHERE `senddate` IN (SELECT `patient_id`, max(`senddate`) GROUP by `patient_id`) AND `senddate` < $now AND `sent` = 0 ; But I get this error: MySQL client version: 5.1.37 `#1064 - You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'GROUP by patient_id) AND senddate < 1270093898 AND sent = 0 LIMIT 0, 30' at line 5

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  • Trying to login to site with PHP & cURL?

    - by motionman95
    I've never done something like this before...I'm trying to log into swagbucks.com and get retrieve some information, but it's not working. Can someone tell me what's wrong with my script? <?php $pages = array('home' => 'http://swagbucks.com/?cmd=home', 'login' => 'http://swagbucks.com/?cmd=sb-login&from=/?cmd=home', 'schedule' => 'http://swagbucks.com/?cmd=sb-acct-account&display=2'); $ch = curl_init(); //Set options for curl session $options = array(CURLOPT_USERAGENT => 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; `rv:1.9.2) Gecko/20100115 Firefox/3.6',` CURLOPT_HEADER => TRUE, //CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER => TRUE, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE => 'cookie.txt', CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR => 'cookies.txt'); //Hit home page for session cookie $options[CURLOPT_URL] = $pages['home']; curl_setopt_array($ch, $options); curl_exec($ch); //Login $options[CURLOPT_URL] = $pages['login']; $options[CURLOPT_POST] = TRUE; $options[CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS] = '[email protected]&pswd=jblake&persist=on'; $options[CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION] = FALSE; curl_setopt_array($ch, $options); curl_exec($ch); //Hit schedule page $options[CURLOPT_URL] = $pages['schedule']; curl_setopt_array($ch, $options); $schedule = curl_exec($ch); //Output schedule echo $schedule; //Close curl session curl_close($ch); ?> But it still doesn't log me in. What's wrong?

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  • how to pass instance variables between handlers (routes) in sinatra (without flash, sessions, class variable or db)?

    - by jj_
    Say you have: get '/' do haml :index end get '/form' do haml :form end post '/form' do @message = params[:message] redirect to ('/') --- how to pass @message here? end I'd like the @message instance variable to be available (passed to) in "/" action as well, so I can show it in haml view. How can I do that without using session, flash, a @@class_variable, or db persistence ? I'd simply like to pass values as if I was working with passing values between methods. I don't want to use session cookies because user could have them turned off, I don't like it being a class variable which is exposed to all code, and I don't need to overhead of a db. Thanks edit: This is another question explaining a very easy way to deal with this in rails Passing parameters in rails redirect_to This is some more info i gathered around from forums. The following works for rails, i've tried it in Sinatra but no luck, but please try it, maybe I did something wrong, I don't know, and if this code help someone come up with a new idea, please share it If you are redirecting to action2 at the end of action1, just append the value to the end of the redirect: my_var = <some logic> redirect_to :action => 'action2', :my_var => my_var on the same thread another user proposes the folowing: def action1 redirect_to :action => 'action2', :value => params[:current_varaible] end def action2 puts params[:value].inspect end source: http://www.ruby-forum.com/topic/134953 Can something like this work in Sinatra? Thanks

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  • enabling gzip with htaccess...why is it hit or miss?

    - by adam-asdf
    I have shared hosting through Justhost. I use the HTML5 Boilerplate .htaccess (have tried other methods from here and there without luck) the compression part is as follows: <IfModule mod_deflate.c> # Force deflate for mangled headers developer.yahoo.com/blogs/ydn/posts/2010/12/pushing-beyond-gzipping/ <IfModule mod_setenvif.c> <IfModule mod_headers.c> SetEnvIfNoCase ^(Accept-EncodXng|X-cept-Encoding|X{15}|~{15}|-{15})$ ^((gzip|deflate)\s*,?\s*)+|[X~-]{4,13}$ HAVE_Accept-Encoding RequestHeader append Accept-Encoding "gzip,deflate" env=HAVE_Accept-Encoding </IfModule> </IfModule> # Compress all output labeled with one of the following MIME-types <IfModule mod_filter.c> AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE application/atom+xml \ application/javascript \ application/json \ application/rss+xml \ application/vnd.ms-fontobject \ application/x-font-ttf \ application/xhtml+xml \ application/xml \ font/opentype \ image/svg+xml \ image/x-icon \ text/css \ text/html \ text/plain \ text/x-component \ text/xml </IfModule> </IfModule> However, it isn't working—at least I don't think—My home page (html) isn't compressing, the CSS and some of the JS aren't gzipped. It is failing on HTML, CSS and JS. However, some things are (or were, who knows what it will look like when you check) gzipped. My domain is http://adaminfinitum.com/ What is weird is that the (Google) PageSpeed browser extension for Firefox (whatever the current version is [Nov. 2012]) gives me a 95% speed rating (and no warnings about compression), yet YSlow and Chrome developer tools both flag me about gzip, as does a tool I found on here while researching this. To reduce cookies I set up a subdomain on my site and I thought maybe that was it so I added an .htaccess there also, but no luck. To reduce http requests I embedded some of webfonts and images in CSS (HTML5 BP stipulates not to compress images, and apparently '.woff' files are already compressed) so I thought maybe that was it and I spent all day separating and asynchronously loading those portions (via Modernizr.load) but that hasn't helped either...if anything it made it worse due to increasing http requests (I realize speed scores of async resources may be misleading). Researching this, it seems to be a fairly common issue but I haven't found an explanation/solution. I don't think it is a MIME-type issue, I have quadruple checked (and thrice edited) my .htaccess files. My hosting company said they run Apache 2.2.22 and I have looked at everything I can find. What gives?

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