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  • Is there a way to load an existing connection string for Linq to SQL from an app.config file?

    - by Brian Surowiec
    I'm running into a really annoying problem with my Linq to SQL project. When I add everything in under the web project everything goes as expected and I can tell it to use my existing connection string stored in the web.config file and the Linq code pulls directly from the ConfigurationManager. This all turns ugly once I move the code into its own project. I’ve created an app.config file, put the connection string in there as it was in the web.config but when I try to add another table in the IDE keeps forcing me to either hardcode the connection string or creates a Settings file and puts it in there, which then adds a new entry into the app.config file with a new name. Is there a way keep my Linq code in its own project yet still refer back to my config file without the IDE continuously hardcoding the connection string or creating the Settings file? I’m converting part of my DAL over to use Linq to SQL so I’d like to use the existing connection string that our old code is using as well as keep the value in a common location, and one spot, instead of in a number of spots. Manually changing the mode to WebSettings instead of AppSettings works untill I try to add a new table, then it goes back to hardcoding the value or recreating the Settings file. I also tried to switch the project type to be a web project and then rename my app.config to web.config and then everything works as I’d like it to. I’m just not sure if there are any downfalls to keeping this as a web project since it really isn't one. The project only contains the Linq to SQL code and an implementation of my repository classes. My project layout looks like this Website -connectionString.config -web.config (refers to connectionString.config) Middle Tier -Business Logic -Repository Interfaces -etc. DAL -Linq to SQL code -Existing SPROC code -connectionString.config (linked from the web poject) -app.config (refers to connectionString.config)

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  • Mapping one column in a table to multiple tables

    - by user1721814
    I am working on a new product development creating a WMS system. I have done it in past using ASP, VB, and other techniques where we did not hard code the mapping. But now i am working on it using MVC and entity frame work and i am stumped. How can i map one column in transaction table to a column in multiple tables. I have transaction table trans Transid orderref TType productid qty ....(More Columns) now the orderref will hold either Receiptkey, orderkey , movementkey, adjustmentkey and the TType column will tell me which type of transaction i am dealing with and based on that i would know which table to link further. Now how can i achieve this in Entity Frame work. This is the most important step. I have done this many times in my other languages but now using EF i am stuck. Please help. I have checked a lot online but i have not found it. I am new to MVC and entity frame work architecture. Any guidance would be highly appreciated. Ranjit

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  • Saving a single entity instead of the entire context - revisited

    - by nite
    I’m looking for a way to have fine grained control over what is saved using Entity Framework, rather than the whole ObjectContext.SaveChanges(). My scenario is pretty straight forward, and I’m quite amazed not catered for in EF – pretty basic in NHibernate and all other data access paradigms I’ve seen. I’m generating a bunch of data (in a WPF UI) and allowing the user to fine tune what is proposed and choose what is actually committed to the database. For the proposed entities I’m: getting a bunch of reference entities (eg languages) via my objectcontext, creating the proposed entities and assigning these reference entities to them (as navigation properties), so by virtue of their relationship to the reference entities they’re implicitly added to the objectconext Trying to create & save individual entites based on the proposed entities. I figure this should be really simple & trivial but everything I’ve tried I’ve hit a brick wall, either I set up another objectcontext & add just the entity I need (it then tries to add the whole graph and fails as it’s on another objectcontext). I’ve tried MergeOptions = NoTracking on my reference entities to try to get the Attach/AddObject not to navigate through these to create a graph, no avail. I've removed the navigation properties from the reference entities. I've tried AcceptAllChanges, that works but pretty useless in practice as I do still want to track & save other entities. In a simple test, I can create 2 of my proposed entities, AddObject the one I want to save and then Detach the one I dont then call SaveChanges, this works but again not great in practice. Following are a few links to some of the nifty ideas which in the end don’t help in the end but illustrate the complexity of EF for something so simple. I’m really looking for a SaveSingle/SaveAtomic method, and think it’s a pretty reasonable & basic ask for any DAL, letalone a cutting edge ORM. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1301460/saving-a-single-entity-instead-of-the-entire-context www.codeproject.com/KB/architecture/attachobjectgraph.aspx?fid=1534536&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=3071122&fr=1 bernhardelbl.spaces.live.com/blog/cns!DB54AE2C5D84DB78!238.entry

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  • #1146 - Table 'phpmyadmin.pma_recent' doesn't exist

    - by Mumin Ali
    Solution Guys... FYI i am using xampp to use phpmyadmin. and this error happens during the process of creating a database on localhost. Below is the code for config.inc file under phpmyadmin directory: <?php /* * This is needed for cookie based authentication to encrypt password in * cookie */ $cfg['blowfish_secret'] = 'xampp'; /* YOU SHOULD CHANGE THIS FOR A MORE SECURE COOKIE AUTH! */ /* * Servers configuration */ $i = 0; /* * First server */ $i++; /* Authentication type and info */ $cfg['Servers'][$i]['auth_type'] = 'HTTP'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['user'] = 'root'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['password'] = 'password'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['extension'] = 'mysql'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['AllowNoPassword'] = true; $cfg['Lang'] = ''; /* Bind to the localhost ipv4 address and tcp */ $cfg['Servers'][$i]['host'] = 'localhost'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['connect_type'] = 'tcp'; /* User for advanced features */ $cfg['Servers'][$i]['controluser'] = 'pma'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['controlpass'] = ''; /* Advanced phpMyAdmin features */ $cfg['Servers'][$i]['pmadb'] = 'phpmyadmin'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['bookmarktable'] = 'pma_bookmark'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['relation'] = 'pma_relation'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['table_info'] = 'pma_table_info'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['table_coords'] = 'pma_table_coords'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['pdf_pages'] = 'pma_pdf_pages'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['column_info'] = 'pma_column_info'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['history'] = 'pma_history'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['designer_coords'] = 'pma_designer_coords'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['tracking'] = 'pma_tracking'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['userconfig'] = 'pma_userconfig'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['recent'] = 'pma_recent'; $cfg['Servers'][$i]['table_uiprefs'] = 'pma_table_uiprefs'; /* * End of servers configuration */ ?>

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  • C#: Need one of my classes to trigger an event in another class to update a text box

    - by Matt
    Total n00b to C# and events although I have been programming for a while. I have a class containing a text box. This class creates an instance of a communication manager class that is receiving frames from the Serial Port. I have this all working fine. Every time a frame is received and its data extracted, I want a method to run in my class with the text box in order to append this frame data to the text box. So, without posting all of my code I have my form class... public partial class Form1 : Form { CommManager comm; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); comm = new CommManager(); } private void updateTextBox() { //get new values and update textbox } . . . and I have my CommManager class class CommManager { //here we manage the comms, recieve the data and parse the frame } SO... essentially, when I parse that frame, I need the updateTextBox method from the form class to run. I'm guessing this is possible with events but I can't seem to get it to work. I tried adding an event handler in the form class after creating the instance of CommManager as below... comm = new CommManager(); comm.framePopulated += new EventHandler(updateTextBox); ...but I must be doing this wrong as the compiler doesn't like it... Any ideas?!

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  • Can somebody explain this remark in the MSDN CreateMutex() documentation about the bInitialOwner fla

    - by Tom Williams
    The MSDN CreatMutex() documentation (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms682411%28VS.85%29.aspx) contains the following remark near the end: Two or more processes can call CreateMutex to create the same named mutex. The first process actually creates the mutex, and subsequent processes with sufficient access rights simply open a handle to the existing mutex. This enables multiple processes to get handles of the same mutex, while relieving the user of the responsibility of ensuring that the creating process is started first. When using this technique, you should set the bInitialOwner flag to FALSE; otherwise, it can be difficult to be certain which process has initial ownership. Can somebody explain the problem with using bInitialOwner = TRUE? Earlier in the same documentation it suggests a call to GetLastError() will allow you to determine whether a call to CreateMutext() created the mutex or just returned a new handle to an existing mutex: Return Value If the function succeeds, the return value is a handle to the newly created mutex object. If the function fails, the return value is NULL. To get extended error information, call GetLastError. If the mutex is a named mutex and the object existed before this function call, the return value is a handle to the existing object, GetLastError returns ERROR_ALREADY_EXISTS, bInitialOwner is ignored, and the calling thread is not granted ownership. However, if the caller has limited access rights, the function will fail with ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED and the caller should use the OpenMutex function.

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  • Why doesn't the spring @Autowire work with java generics

    - by testing123
    Inspired by spring data awesomeness I wanted to create a abstract RESTController that I could extend for a lot of my controllers. I created the following class: @Controller public abstract class RESTController<E, PK extends Serializable, R extends PagingAndSortingRepository<E, PK>> { @Autowired private R repository; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, params={"id"}) @ResponseBody public E getEntity(@RequestParam PK id) { return repository.findOne(id); } ... } I was hoping that the generics would allow me to @Autowire in the repository but I get the following error: SEVERE: Allocate exception for servlet appServlet org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No unique bean of type [org.springframework.data.repository.PagingAndSortingRepository] is defined: expected single matching bean but found 3: [groupRepository, externalCourseRepository, managedCourseRepository] at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.doResolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:800) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.resolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:707) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor$AutowiredFieldElement.inject(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:478) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.InjectionMetadata.inject(InjectionMetadata.java:87) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.postProcessPropertyValues(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:284) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1106) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:294) I understand what the error is telling me, there is more than one match for the @Autowire. I am confused because I thought by creating the following controller it would work: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/managedCourse") public class ManagedCourseController extends RESTController<ManagedCourse, Long, ManagedCourseRepository> { ... } This is easy enough to work around by doing having a method like this in the RESTController: protected abstract R getRepository(); and then doing this in your implementing class: @Autowired private ManagedCourseRepository repository; @Override protected ManagedCourseRepository getRepository() { return repository; } I was just wondering if someone had any thoughts of how I could get this to work.

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  • FragmentActivity doesn't see activity in onActivityCreate(), after screen orientation changed

    - by hai bison
    I'm using Android support library v13. There is a strange thing I couldn't understand. When creating new activity, I load fragment as: Main activity layout: ... <FrameLayout android:id="@+id/fragment_1" ... /> In onCreate() of main activity: mFragment = (FragmentActivity) getSupportFragmentManager().findFragmentById(R.id.fragment_1); // if screen orientation changed, no need to create new instance of fragment if (mFragment == null) { mFragment = ...; // create new instance of fragment FragmentTransaction ft = getSupportFragmentManager().beginTransaction(); ft.replace(R.id.fragment_1, mFragment); // because this is called ONCE, we can use this method ft.commitAllowingStateLoss(); } Now, everything works perfectly in emulators 1.5, 1.6 and 2.2. I have a phone 2.2.2. But there is an exception: if the app is running, and screen orientation changed. Inside onActivityCreated(), getActivity() sometimes returns null. This only happens in emulators 1.5/ 1.6/ 2.2. My phone 2.2.2 works very well, I test hundreds of times but never catch that bug. Even other emulators 3.x, 4.x work well too. Unfortunately I don't have phone 1.5/ 1.6/ 2.2. So did you have experience with this? Is that a bug of the support library, or emulators? Could you please help me? Thank you in advance.

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  • Have something loaded only when JList item is visibile

    - by elvencode
    Hello, i'm implementing a Jlist populated with a lot of elements. Each element corresponds to a image so i'd like to show a resized preview of them inside each row of the list. I've implemented a custom ImageCellRenderer extending the Jlabel and on getListCellRendererComponent i create the thumbnail if there'snt any for that element. Each row corresponds to a Page class where i store the path of the image and the icon applied to the JLabel. Each Page object is put inside a DefaultListModel to populate the JList. The render code is something like this: public Component getListCellRendererComponent( JList list, Object value, int index, boolean isSelected, boolean cellHasFocus) { Page page = (Page) value; if (page.getImgIcon() == null) { System.out.println(String.format("Creating thumbnail of %s", page.getImgFilename())); ImageIcon icon = new ImageIcon(page.getImgFilename()); int thumb_width = icon.getIconWidth() > icon.getIconHeight() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconWidth() * 128) / icon.getIconHeight()); int thumb_height = icon.getIconHeight() > icon.getIconWidth() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconHeight() * 128) / icon.getIconWidth()); icon.setImage(getScaledImage(icon.getImage(), thumb_width, thumb_height)); page.setImgIcon(icon); } setIcon(page.getImgIcon()); } I was thinking that only a certain item is visibile in the List the cell renderer is called but i'm seeing that all the thumnails are created when i add the Page object to the list model. I've tried to load the items and after set the model in the JList or set the model first and after starting appending the items but the results are the same. Is there any way to load the data only when necessary or do i need to create a custom control like a JScrollPanel with stacked items inside where i check myself the visibility of each elements? Thanks

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  • Efficient database access when dealing with multiple abstracted repositories

    - by Nathan Ridley
    I want to know how most people are dealing with the repository pattern when it involves hitting the same database multiple times (sometimes transactionally) and trying to do so efficiently while maintaining database agnosticism and using multiple repositories together. Let's say we have repositories for three different entities; Widget, Thing and Whatsit. Each repository is abstracted via a base interface as per normal decoupling design processes. The base interfaces would then be IWidgetRepository, IThingRepository and IWhatsitRepository. Now we have our business layer or equivalent (whatever you want to call it). In this layer we have classes that access the various repositories. Often the methods in these classes need to do batch/combined operations where multiple repositories are involved. Sometimes one method may make use of another method internally, while that method can still be called independently. What about, in this scenario, when the operation needs to be transactional? Example: class Bob { private IWidgetRepository _widgetRepo; private IThingRepository _thingRepo; private IWhatsitRepository _whatsitRepo; public Bob(IWidgetRepository widgetRepo, IThingRepository thingRepo, IWhatsitRepository whatsitRepo) { _widgetRepo = widgetRepo; _thingRepo= thingRepo; _whatsitRepo= whatsitRepo; } public void DoStuff() { _widgetRepo.StoreSomeStuff(); _thingRepo.ReadSomeStuff(); _whatsitRepo.SaveSomething(); } public void DoOtherThing() { _widgetRepo.UpdateSomething(); DoStuff(); } } How do I keep my access to that database efficient and not have a constant stream of open-close-open-close on connections and inadvertent invocation of MSDTS and whatnot? If my database is something like SQLite, standard mechanisms like creating nested transactions are going to inherently fail, yet the business layer should not have to be concerning itself with such things. How do you handle such issues? Does ADO.Net provide simple mechanisms to handle this or do most people end up wrapping their own custom bits of code around ADO.Net to solve these types of problems?

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  • Gradual memory leak and slowdown in loop

    - by Benji XVI
    I have a simple foundation tool that exports every frame of a movie as a .tiff file. Here is the relevant code: NSString* movieLoc = [NSString stringWithCString:argv[1]]; QTMovie *sourceMovie = [QTMovie movieWithFile:movieLoc error:nil]; int i=0; while (QTTimeCompare([sourceMovie currentTime], [sourceMovie duration]) != NSOrderedSame) { // save image of movie to disk NSAutoreleasePool *arp = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSString *filePath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"/somelocation_%d.tiff", i++]; NSData *currentImageData = [[sourceMovie currentFrameImage] TIFFRepresentation]; [currentImageData writeToFile:filePath atomically:NO]; NSLog(@"%@", filePath); [sourceMovie stepForward]; [arp release]; } [pool drain]; return 0; As you can see, in order to prevent very large memory buildups with the various transparently-autoreleased variables in the loop, we create, and flush, an autoreleasepool with every run through the loop. However, over the course of stepping through a movie, the amount of memory used by the program still gradually increases, and the speed at which frames are processed drops precipitously. (From ~0.5 seconds per frame at the start, to ~2 seconds per frame by the 250th frame.) The only thing I can think can be causing the gradual memory leak is a buildup of the NSAutoreleasePool objects themselves. Am I right in thinking they will only be deallocated when the outer pool is released? If so, is there a better memory management solution here? Creating a pool every run through the loop seems a little hacky. And if not, what is causing the slow memory leak? (It is not NSStrings, and much too slow to be NSImages or NSDatas.) And what could be causing the slowdown?

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  • Where can I find my iPhone app's Core Data persistent store?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPhone development, so I apologize in advance if this is a ridiculous question, but in a new iPad app project using the Core Data framework, here's the generated code for creating the persistentStoreCoordinator... - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"ApplicationName.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. Typical reasons for an error here include: * The persistent store is not accessible * The schema for the persistent store is incompatible with current managed object model Check the error message to determine what the actual problem was. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } My questions are... The first time I run the app, is the ApplicationName.sqllite database created automatically if it doesn't exist? If not, when is it created? When data is added to it programmatically? Once the DB does exist, where can I locate the file? I'd like to open it with a different program so I can manually manipulate the data. Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • XML File as Excel file.

    - by FrustratedWithFormsDesigner
    I have a number of reports that I run against my database that need to eventually go to the end-users as Excel spreadsheets. Initially, I was creating text reports, but the steps to convert the text to a spreadsheet were a bit cumbersome. There were too many steps to import text to the spreadsheet, and multi-line text rows were imported as individual rows in Excel (which was incorrect). Currently, I am generating simple XML saving the file with an ".xls" extension. This works better, but there is still the problem of Excel prompting the user with an XML import dialogue every time they open the file, and then having to save a new file if they add notes or change the layout to the file (which they almost certainly will be doing). Sample "xls" file: <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <report_rows> <row> <NAME>Test Data</NAME> <COUNT>345</COUNT> </row> <!-- many more row elements... --> </report_rows> Is there any way to add markup to the file to hint to Excel how it should import and handle the file? Ideally, the end user should be able to open and save the file like any othe spreadsheet they create directly from Excel. Is this even possible? UPDATE: We are running Office 2003 here. UPDATE: The XML is generated from a sqlplus script, no option to use C#/.NET here.

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  • Hibernate Transient Extends problem

    - by mrvreddy
    @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseAbstract implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; protected String test = //some random value; public String getTest() { return test; } public void setTest(String test){ this.test = test; } } @Entity public class Artist extends BaseAbstract { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private Integer id; @override @Transient public String getTest() { return test; } ..... } My question is... when i am trying to do any operation on the artist, along with id and name, test is also getting saved which should not be the case... if i add the same transient on the baseabstract class getTest() method, i see test column NOT getting created(ideally what it should happen) but if i try to override the method with adding annotaion in the sub class it creates the test column... I dont know why this is happening since when hibernate is creating the artist object and checks for annotations, it should see the transient annotation present on the getTest() of artist method...and should not create a column in the database... Let me know if you need any clarification.... Any response on this is greatly appreciated.... Thank you

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  • i read that for RESTful websites. it is not good to use $_SESSION. Why is it not good? how then do i

    - by keisimone
    I read that it is not good to use $_SESSION. http://www.recessframework.org/page/towards-restful-php-5-basic-tips I am creating a WEBSITE, not web service in PHP. and i am trying to make it more RESTful. at least in spirit. right now i am rewriting all the action to use Form tags POST and add in a hidden value called _method which would be "delete" for deleting action and "put" for updating action. however, i am not sure why it is recommended NOT to use $_SESSION. i would like to know why and what can i do to improve. To allow easy authorization checking, what i did was to after logging in the user, the username is stored in the $_SESSION. Everytime the user navigates to a page, the page would check if the username is stored inside $_SESSION and then based on the $_SESSION retrieves all the info including privileges from the database and then evaluates the authorization to access the page based on the info retrieved. Is the way I am implementing bad? not RESTful? how do i improve performance and security? Thank you.

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  • Identical files from different servers. Why might IE 8 display them differently?

    - by jasongetsdown
    I'm working on a site that will go on my company's intranet. I developed it locally on my computer, checking it in different browsers and on colleague's computers, and when it was done I handed it off to IT. They put identical copies on a staging server, and on the production server. This is a site built only with html, javascript, and css. No server side scripting. It also uses a DWF viewer plugin from Autodesk. It is a single standalone page (not part of a CMS) that allows users to load drawings into the viewer and then click to see info from a database of space info saved in a series of js arrays (the space DB software spits out a js file with all the info listed in array literals, creating a crap ton of global variables - ugh, but I digress). When I followed their links (using IE 8) the version on the staging server looked as expected, but the layout is hosed on the version from the production server. Specifically, it seems like a div that is supposed to flow to the right of a div that is float: left is displaying below the floated div at full width, as though it was clear: left (which it is not). It also has the wrong height. I downloaded the files from each and they are identical to my local version. Frustrated, I cleared my browser's cache, restarted my computer, checked it on a colleague's computer who also has IE 8. All the same issue. Staging server good. Production server bad. Finally I uninstalled IE 8 and looked at it in IE 6. Both versions looked fine. So, to recap. Two different servers. No server side scripting. Identical files. One browser agrees they are identical, the other does not. What could cause this?

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  • Stop NSXMLParser Instance from Causing _NSAutoreleaseNoPool

    - by PF1
    Hi Everyone: In my iPhone application, I have an instance of NSXMLParser that is set to a custom delegate to read the XML. This is then moved into its own thread so it can update the data in the background. However, ever since I have done this, it has been giving me a lot of _NSAutoreleaseNoPool warnings in the console. I have tried to add a NSAutoreleasePool to each of my delegate classes, however, this hasn't seemed to solve the problem. I have included my method of creating the NSXMLParser in case that is at fault. NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:@"http://www.mywebsite.com/xmlsource.xml"]; NSXMLParser *xmlParser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; CustomXMLParser *parser = [[CustomXMLParser alloc] init]; parser.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; parser = [parser initXMLParser]; [xmlParser setDelegate:parser]; [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(parse) toTarget:xmlParser withObject:nil]; If anyone has any ideas to get rid of this problem, I would really appreciate it. Thanks.

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  • Need help with threads in a client/server

    - by nunos
    For college, I am developing a local relay chat. I have to program a chat server and client that will only work on sending messages on different terminal windows on the same computer with threads and fifos. The fifos part I am having no trouble, the threads part is the one that is giving me some headaches. The server has one thread for receiving commands from a fifo (used by all clients) and another thread for each client that is connected. For each client that is connected I need to know a certain information. Firstly, I was using global variables, which worked as longs as there was only one client connected, which is much of a chat, to chat alone. So, ideally I would have some data like: -nickname -name -email -etc... per client that is connected. However, I don't know how to do that. I could create a client_data[MAX_NUMBER_OF_THREADS] where client_data was a struct with everything I needed to have access to, but this would require to, in every communication between server and client to ask for the id of the client in the array client_data and that does not seem very pratical I could also instantiate a client_data immediately after creating the thread but it would only be available in that block, and that is not very pratical either. As you can see I am in need of a little guidance here. Any comment, piece of code or link to any relevant information is greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How do I bind to a custom view in Cocoa using Xcode 4?

    - by Newt
    I'm a beginner when it comes to writing Mac apps and working with Cocoa, so please forgive my ignorance. I'm looking to create a custom view, that exposes some properties, which I can then bind to an NSObjectController. Since it's a custom view, the Bindings Inspector obviously doesn't list any of the properties I've added to the view that I can then bind to using Interface Builder. After turning to the Stackoverflow/Google for help, I've stumbled across a couple of possible solutions, but neither seem to be quite right for my situation. The first suggested creating an IBPlugin, which would then mean my bindings would be available in the Bindings Inspector. I could then bind the view to the controller using IB. Apparently IBPlugins aren't supported in Xcode 4, so that one's out the window. I'm also assuming (maybe wrongly) that IBPlugins are no longer supported because there's a better way of doing such things these days? The second option was to bind the controller to the view programmatically. I'm a bit confused as to exactly how I would achieve this. Would it require subclassing NSObjectController so I can add the calls to bind to the view? Would I need to add anything to the view to support this? Some examples I've seen say you'd need to override the bind method, and others say you don't. Also, I've noticed that some example custom views call [self exposeBinding:@"bindingName"] in the initializer. From what I gather from various sources, this is something that's related to IBPlugins and isn't something I need to do if I'm not using them. Is that correct? I've found a post on Stackoverflow here which seems to discuss something very similar to my problem, but there wasn't any clear winner as to the best answer. The last comment by noa on 12th Sept seems interesting, although they mention you should be calling exposeBinding:. Is this comment along the right track? Is the call to exposeBinding really necessary? Apologies for any dumb questions. Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • Reduce white space between lines of text

    - by user654466
    I am creating a webpage (first time) and i'm following as much of the CSS rules and tags as I can. However, I ran into a problem with white space. I've underlined the first line of text but now the second line seems to have drifted below. Is there a way to make it a bit more snug, i'd like the second line of text to be just below the above line. body,td,th { color: #000000; } body { margin: 0; padding: 0; padding-top: 6px; text-align: center; background-color: #FFFFFF; } #centered { width: 800px; /* set to desired width in px or percent */ text-align: left; /* optionally you could use "justified" */ border: 0px; /* Changing this value will add lines around the centered area */ padding: 0; margin: 0 auto; } .style3 { font-size: 32pt; color: #666666; margin-left: 0px; border-bottom: 3px double; } .style5 { margin-left: 390px; font-size: 32pt; color: #CCCCCC; } --> </style></head> <div id="centered"> <body> <p class="style3">&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;FIRST LINE OF TEXT</p> <p class="style5">INDENTED SECOND LINE</p> </body> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Help regarding database and logic layer for my ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Ismail S
    I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right?

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  • Searching For A Record After A LINQ query

    - by Justin
    I'm confused to why this is happening. I'm new to LINQ so I'm clearly missing something here, that is probably pretty easy. I've looked up help on the topic, but I don't really know what to ask so I haven't found any answers that really address my question. This doesn't work It throws an EntityCommandExecutionException when the FirstOrDefault method is executed. var query = from band in context.BandsEntitySet where band.ID == 12345 select band; string venueName = "Willis Park"; foreach (var item in query) { var venue = context.VenueEntitySet.FirstOrDefault(r => r.Venue.Equals(venueName)); } This works var query = from band in context.BandsEntitySet where band.ID == 12345 select band; var bandList = query.toList(); string venueName = "Willis Park"; foreach (var item in bandList) { var venue = context.VenueEntitySet.FirstOrDefault(r => r.Venue.Equals(venueName)); } My question is simple: Why is the exception being thrown? And why does creating a list from the query allow me to use the FirstOrDefault method? Exception Message: A first chance exception of type 'System.Data.EntityCommandExecutionException' occurred in System.Data.Entity.dll I guess I am wrong in my assumption that query is a list? Then what is it exactly? I'm confused because this doesn't throw an exception: foreach (var item in query) { var area = item.VenueArea; } I'd appreciate any help on this issue. thanks, Justin

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  • Browser Issue: Charts are not rendered on IE8

    - by Rachel
    We have inhouse library which uses canvas for displaying charts in my application. And dojo as scripting language.Everything is fine, but my charts are not appearing in IE8. I google about this, and found that there is some VML issue in IE8. I found this: var printChart = function(time, freq){ if (!document.namespaces['g_vml_']) { document.namespaces.add('g_vml_', 'urn:schemas-microsoft-com:vml', '#default#VML'); } if (!document.namespaces['g_o_']) { document.namespaces.add('g_o_', 'urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office', '#default#VML'); } if (freq === undefined) { this.freq = "1mi"; } if (time === undefined) { this.time = "1dy"; } self.reload(); } Now I was trying to add this in my DOJO code and that is creating problem. As when I do document.namespace I get firebug error 'document.namespaces is undefined'. Q: How can we fix this, are the any better alternative approaches for the same, basic problem am having is browser related, charts are rendered properly on other browsers but not on IE8, any suggestions ? Update: What are ways to deal with such cross browser issue ?

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  • Django - partially validating form

    - by aeter
    I'm new to Django, trying to process some forms. I have this form for entering information (creating a new ad) in one template: class Ad(models.Model): ... category = models.CharField("Category",max_length=30, choices=CATEGORIES) sub_category = models.CharField("Subcategory",max_length=4, choices=SUBCATEGORIES) location = models.CharField("Location",max_length=30, blank=True) title = models.CharField("Title",max_length=50) ... I validate it with "is_valid()" just fine. Basically for the second validation (another template) I want to validate only against "category" and "sub_category": In another template, I want to use 2 fields from the same form ("category" and "sub_category") for filtering information - and now the "is_valid()" method would not work correctly, cause it validates the entire form, and I need to validate only 2 fields. I have tried with the following: ... if request.method == 'POST': # If a filter for data has been submitted: form = AdForm(request.POST) try: form = form.clean() category = form.category sub_category = form.sub_category latest_ads_list = Ad.objects.filter(category=category) except ValidationError: latest_ads_list = Ad.objects.all().order_by('pub_date') else: latest_ads_list = Ad.objects.all().order_by('pub_date') form = AdForm() ... but it doesn't work. How can I validate only the 2 fields category and sub_category?

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  • Practical non-image based CAPTCHA approaches?

    - by Jeff Atwood
    It looks like we'll be adding CAPTCHA support to Stack Overflow. This is necessary to prevent bots, spammers, and other malicious scripted activity. We only want human beings to post or edit things here! We'll be using a JavaScript (jQuery) CAPTCHA as a first line of defense: http://docs.jquery.com/Tutorials:Safer_Contact_Forms_Without_CAPTCHAs The advantage of this approach is that, for most people, the CAPTCHA won't ever be visible! However, for people with JavaScript disabled, we still need a fallback and this is where it gets tricky. I have written a traditional CAPTCHA control for ASP.NET which we can re-use. However, I'd prefer to go with something textual to avoid the overhead of creating all these images on the server with each request. I've seen things like.. ASCII text captcha: \/\/(_)\/\/ math puzzles: what is 7 minus 3 times 2? trivia questions: what tastes better, a toad or a popsicle? Maybe I'm just tilting at windmills here, but I'd like to have a less resource intensive, non-image based <noscript> compatible CAPTCHA if possible. Ideas?

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