Search Results

Search found 35869 results on 1435 pages for 'object context'.

Page 521/1435 | < Previous Page | 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528  | Next Page >

  • If I select from an IQueryable then the Include is lost

    - by Connor Murphy
    The include does not work after I perform a select on the IQueryable query. Is there a way arround this? My query is public IQueryable<Network> GetAllNetworks() { var query = (from n in _db.NetworkSet .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Target") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Source") select (n)); return query;; } I then try to populate mya ViewModel in my WebUI layer using the following code var projectedNetworks = from n in GetAllNetworks() select new NetworkViewModel { Name = n.Name, Contacts = from contact in networkList .SelectMany(nc => nc.NetworkContacts) .Where(nc => nc.Member == true) .Where(nc => nc.NetworkId == n.ID) .Select(c => c.Contact) select contact, }; return projectedNetworks; The problem now occurs in my newly createdNetworkViewModel The Contacts object does include any loaded data for RelationshipSource.Target or RelationshipSource.Source The data should is there when run from the original Repository IQueryable object. However the related include data does not seem to get transferred into the new Contacts collection that is created from this IQueryable using the Select New {} code above. Is there a way to preserve this Include data when it gets passed into a new object?

    Read the article

  • Define a swig interface file for generation of wrapper to every type from some header file

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    Hi! We're using some C library in our Java project. Several years ago some other developer which has retired few years ago (as always) has created all the wrappers for us. The wrappers were generated by the swig, but the interface file is lost now. The basic idea of library and the wrappers for it is following: There only one function which returns pointer to some complex object. And there are wrapper for that function. The complex object is a tree-like structure with dozens of node kinds and types (C structures) used to represent them. There are hundreds of wrappers for every field of every type and we're trying to use them all. The library was updated some time ago and now there are some new data we unaware of which yet, but would like to use. This data is contained in some of the objects indirectly contained or referenced from the object created by the function we call (Some new fields and types were added). I know that I shouldn't make any changes to the wrappers by hand and should rather modify the interface, but as I already wrote it's missing. For now I only want to generate wrappers some few types which are added/changed and them to our old wrappers, but later I want to start creation of interface file which will define "what and how should be wrapped". All the definitions necessary for us are defined in single header file. Is it possible to tell swig to generate wrappers for every type in this header? If so, how can I write such interface file?

    Read the article

  • using the ASP.NET Caching API via method annotations in C#

    - by craigmoliver
    In C#, is it possible to decorate a method with an annotation to populate the cache object with the return value of the method? Currently I'm using the following class to cache data objects: public class SiteCache { // 7 days + 6 hours (offset to avoid repeats peak time) private const int KeepForHours = 174; public static void Set(string cacheKey, Object o) { if (o != null) HttpContext.Current.Cache.Insert(cacheKey, o, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(KeepForHours), TimeSpan.Zero); } public static object Get(string cacheKey) { return HttpContext.Current.Cache[cacheKey]; } public static void Clear(string sKey) { HttpContext.Current.Cache.Remove(sKey); } public static void Clear() { foreach (DictionaryEntry item in HttpContext.Current.Cache) { Clear(item.Key.ToString()); } } } In methods I want to cache I do this: [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var ck = string.Format("SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name-Name_{0}-", Name.ToLower()); var dt = (DataTable)SiteCache.Get(ck); if (dt == null) { dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); SiteCache.Set(ck, dt); } var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; } Is it possible to separate those concerns like so: (notice the new annotation) [CacheReturnValue] [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; }

    Read the article

  • Accessing previous activity instances in a sequence activity

    - by Dan Revell
    This has a rather SharePoint spin to it but the problem is straight workflow. I've got a parallel replication activity which contains a sequence activity. The sequence activity contains a CreateTask activity, a CodeActivity, a OnTaskChanged activity and finally a CompleteTask activity. The idea is to create a task for each username passed into the ReplicatorActivity.InitialChildData property. Typically in workflow I bind a field to the CreateTask.TaskId and CreateTask.TaskProperties and inside the CreateTask.MethodInvoking I set these through the local bound fields. This works and my tasks all get created properly. However in the CodeActivity that follows, I want to then access the TaskProperties. The problem I am encountering is that this field holds the values of the final task to be created as the CreateTask runs for all the replications before the CodeActivity gets to runs. From the CodeActivity, here are two ways I've tried to access the CreateTask activity instance from the same context or instance or whatever the terminology is for the replicated sequence. CreateTask task = ((CreateTask)sender.Parent.GetActivityByName("createSoftwareRequestTask", true)); CreateTask createTask = (CreateTask)sender.Parent.Activities[0]; Unfortunately the CreateTask activities both refer back to the last task to be created and not the task from the context that the CodeActivity is executing within. Two reasons why this might be that I can think of. I'm not accessing the correct instance with my code. I am accessing the correct instance, but as the properties I require were bound to and set through local fields then their previous data was overwritten. I'm hitting a brick wall with my understanding of workflow with this and would very much appreciate some assistance here.

    Read the article

  • Rails: link_to_remote prototype helper with :with option

    - by Syed Aslam
    I am trying to grab the current value of a drop down list with Prototype and passing it along using :with like this <%= link_to_remote "today", :update => "choices", :url => { :action => "check_availability" } , :with => "'practitioner='+$F('practitioner')&'clinic='+$F('clinic')&'when=today'", :loading => "spinner.show(); $('submit').disable();", :complete => "spinner.hide(); $('submit').enable();" %> However, this is not working as expected. I am unable to access parameters in the controller as the link_to_remote helper is sending parameters like this: Parameters: {"succ"=>"function () {\n return this + 1;\n}", "action"=>"check_availability", "round"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "ceil"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "floor"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "times"=>"function (iterator, context) {\n $R(0, this, true).each(iterator, context);\n return this;\n}", "toPaddedString"=>"function (length, radix) {\n var string = this.toString(radix || 10);\n return \"0\".times(length - string.length) + string;\n}", "toColorPart"=>"function () {\n return this.toPaddedString(2, 16);\n}", "abs"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "controller"=>"main"} Where am I going wrong? Is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • In .NET when Aborting Thread, can this piece of code get corrupted?

    - by bosko
    Little intro: In complex multithreaded aplication (enterprise service bus EBS), I need to use Thread.Abort, because this EBS accepts user written modules which communicates with hardware security modules. So if this module gets deadlocked or hardware stops responding - i need to just unload this module and rest of this server aplication must keep runnnig. So there is abort sync mechanism which ensures that code can be aborted only in user section and this section must be marked as AbortAble. If this happen there is possibility that ThreadAbortException will be thrown in this pieace of code: public void StopAbortSection() { var id = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; lock (threadIdMap[id]) { .... } } If module is on AbortSection and Aplication decides to abort module, but after this decision but before actual Thread.Abort, module enters NonAbortableSection by calling this method, but lock is actualy taken on that locking object. So lock will block until Abort or abort can be executed before reaching this block by this code. But Object with this method is essential and i need to be sure that this pieace of code is safe to abort in any moment. Probably i have to mention that threadIdMap is Dictionary(int,ManualResetEvent), so locking object is instance of ManualResetEvent. I hope you now understad my question. Sorry for its largeness.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to write an IIS URL Rewrite Rule that examines content of HTTP Post?

    - by JohnRudolfLewis
    I need to split a portion of functionality away from a legacy ISAPI dll onto another solution (ASP.NET MVC most likely). IIS7's URL Rewrite sounded like a perfect candidate for the job, but it turns out I cannot find a way to configure the rules the way I need. I need to write a rule that examines the content of the HTTP post for a particular value. i.e. <form method="post" action="legacy_isapi.dll"> <input name="foo" /> </form> if (Request.Form["foo"] == "bar") Context.RewritePath("/some_other_url/on_the_same_machine/foo/bar"); As a proof of concept, I was able to create an IHttpModule that examines context.Request.Form collection and performs a rewrite when certain parameters are present. I installed this module in my website, and it works. Rather than a custom module, however, I'd rather extend the existing URL Rewrite module to support examining the content of the HTTP Post as one of its rules. Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • KeyUp processed for wrong control

    - by Mikael
    I have made a simple test application for the issue, two winforms each containing a button. The button on the first form opens the other form when clicked. It also subscribes to keyup events. The second form has its button set as "AcceptButton" and in the Clicked event we sleep for 1s and then set DialogResult to true (the sleep is to simulate some processing done) When enter is used to close this second form the KeyUp event of the button on the first form is triggered, even though the key was released well before the second had passed so the second form was still shown and focused. If any key other then enter is pressed in the second form the event is not triggered for the button on the first form. First form: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); buttonForm2.KeyUp += new KeyEventHandler(cntKeyUp); } void cntKeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(e.KeyCode.ToString()); } private void buttonForm2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (Form2 f = new Form2()) { f.ShowDialog(); } } Second form: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(1000); this.DialogResult = DialogResult.OK; } Does anyone know why the event is triggered for the button on the non active form and what can be done to stop this from happening?

    Read the article

  • Debugging a HTTP Handler from Visual Studio

    - by O.O.
    I am trying to debug a HTTP Handler in Visual Studio and the break point is not getting hit. Does anyone have an idea on how to go about debugging HTTP Handlers in Visual Studio? I am using VS 2010 Premium, .NET 4.0 on a Windows 7 machine. In my Web Application I have a HTTP Handler in /HTTPHandler/TrackingHandler.cs The following is in my web config file: <system.webServer> <handlers> <add name="TrackingHandler" path="/tx/*" verb="*" type="ProjectNamespace.TrackingHandler" resourceType="Unspecified" preCondition="integratedMode" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> My HTTP Handler looks like below namespace ProjectNamespace { public class TrackingHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { //Breakpoint on the very first line below string tracker = Path.GetFileName(context.Request.PhysicalPath); ....... } } } I start my Web Application using any random page in Visual Studio Debug using the builtin Web Server. I then maually edit the URL to point to the /tx/ directory and some random string after it. For e.g. my current URL looks like http://localhost:53699/tx/sdfs. I thought this should pull up the breakpoint on the first line of ProcessRequest() but it does not. I’d be grateful for any ideas. O. O.

    Read the article

  • CF - How to get mouse position when ContextMenu pops up ??

    - by no9
    I have a problem i cannot solve. In my view (that shows a map) i created a contextMenu. When context menu is invoked i need to get the position where the user has clicked on the map. Here is my problem: In the view i already have onMouseDown event that gets me the coordinates where the user clicked. private void MapView_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.lastMouseDownX = e.X; this.lastMouseDownY = e.Y; } When the contextMenu is invoked i need the same data, but the problem is that contextMenu only has EventArgs that dont keep the data i need. Furthermore ... contextMenu is invoked when user presses and holds mouse for a second and when its invoked the code does not enter onMouseDown event ! It just goes into popup event on my context menu.... I tried putting this in my popup event, but the coordinates are not ok. Y coordinate is way off the chart. private void servicesContextMenu_Popup(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.lastMouseUpX = Control.MousePosition.X; this.lastMouseUpX = Control.MousePosition.Y; } I also tried this, but with no success ... the problem remains ... when contextMenu is invoked the code does not fire onMouseDown event. http://www.mofeel.net/58-microsoft-public-dotnet-framework-compactframework/19285.aspx Help?

    Read the article

  • Why is creating a ring buffer shared by different processes so hard (in C++), what I am doing wrong?

    - by recipriversexclusion
    I am being especially dense about this but it seems I'm missing an important, basic point or something, since what I want to do should be common: I need to create a fixed-size ring buffer object from a manager process (Process M). This object has write() and read() methods to write/read from the buffer. The read/write methods will be called by independent processes (Process R and W) I have implemented the buffer, SharedBuffer<T&>, it allocates buffer slots in SHM using boost::interprocess and works perfectly within a single process. I have read the answers to this question and that one on SO, as well as asked my own, but I'm still in the dark about how to have different processes access methods from a common object. The Boost doc has an example of creating a vector in SHM, which is very similar to what I want, but I want to instantiate my own class. My current options are: Use placement new, as suggested by Charles B. to my question; however, he cautions that it's not a good idea to put non-POD objects in SHM. But my class needs the read/write methods, how can I handle those? Add an allocator to my class definition, e.g. have SharedBuffer<T&, Alloc> and proceed similarly to the vector example given in boost. This sounds really complicated. Change SharedBuffer to a POD class, i.e. get rid of all the methods. But then how to synchronize reading and writing between processes? What am I missing? Fixed-length ring buffers are very common, so either this problem has a solution or else I'm doing something wrong.

    Read the article

  • C#: How to run NUnit from my code

    - by Flavio
    Hello, I'd like to use NUnit to run unit tests in my plug-in, but it needs to be run in the context of my application. To solve this, I was trying to develop a plug-in that runs NUnit, which in turn will execute my tests in the application's context. I didn't find a specific documentation on this subject so I dug a piece of information here and there and I came out with the following piece of code (which is similar to one I found here in StackOverflow): SimpleTestRunner runner = new SimpleTestRunner(); TestPackage package = new TestPackage( "Test" ); string loc = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location package.Assemblies.Add( loc ); if( runner.Load(package) ) { TestResult result = runner.Run( new NullListener() ); } The result variable says "has no TestFixture" although I know for sure it is there. In fact my test file contains two test. Using another approach I found, which is summarized by the following code: TestSuiteBuilder builder = new TestSuiteBuilder(); TestSuite testSuite = builder.Build( package ); // Run tests TestResult result = testSuite.Run( new NullListener(), NUnit.Core.TestFilter.Empty ); I saw nunit data structures with only 1 test and I had the same error. For sake of completeness, I am using the latest version of nunit, which is 2.5.5.10112. Does anyone know what I'm missing? A sample code would be appreciated. thanks

    Read the article

  • How can I test for an empty Breeze predicate?

    - by Megan
    I'm using Breeze to filter data requested on the client. My code looks a little like this: Client - Creating Filter Predicate var predicates = []; var criteriaPredicate = null; $.each(selectedFilterCriteria(), function (index, item) { criteriaPredicate = (index == 0) ? breeze.Predicate.create('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item) : criteriaPredicate.or('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(criteriaPredicate)) { predicates.push(criteriaPredicate); } // Repeat for X Filter Criteria var filter = breeze.Predicate.and(predicates); return context.getAll(filter, data); Client - Context Query function getAll(predicate, dataObservable) { var query = breeze.EntityQuery.from('Data'); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(predicate)) { query = query.where(predicate); } return manager.executeQuery(query).then(success).fail(failure); } Issue I'm having an issue with the request because, if there are no filters set, I apply an "empty" predicate (due to the var filter = breeze.Predicate.and([]) line) resulting in a request like http://mysite/api/app/Data?$filter=. The request is an invalid OData query since the value of the $filter argument cannot be empty. Is there a good way for me to check for an empty predicate? I know I can refactor my client code to not use a predicate unless there is at least one filterable item, but I thought I would check first to see if I overlooked some property or method on the Breeze Predicate.

    Read the article

  • httpHandler - subfolder issue

    - by Patto
    Hi, I am trying to redirect my old typepad blog to my new blog (permanent 301 redirect) that runs with wordpress. The new blog will also be on a new server. the old Blog had the following structure: http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html The new Blog looks like this: http://www.domain.com/Blog/year/month/what-ever-article.html I am using an http handler that I found online and tried to work with it: public class MyHttpModule :IHttpModule { public MyHttpModule() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } #region IHttpModule Members public void Dispose() { } public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(context_BeginRequest); } void context_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string oldURL = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString(); string newURL = String.Empty; //oldURL = if (oldURL.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("articles") >= 0 || System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("weblog") >= 0) { newURL = oldURL.Replace("subdomain.domain.com/weblog", "www.domain.com/Blog/index.php"); if (newURL.ToLower().Contains("subdomain")) { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } } else { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.StatusCode = 301; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Location", newURL); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } #endregion } To use this code, I put the handler into the web.config <httpModules> <add name="MyHttpModule" type="MyHttpModule, App_Code"/> </httpModules> The issue that I have is that when I want to redirect from the http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html, I get an error that the folder would not exist. Is there any way to change my script or add an catch all to the web.config that forwards the URL to my script? When I use "http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html" in oldURL string, then the redirect works just fine... so I must have some IIS or web.config settings wrong. Thanks in advance, Patrick

    Read the article

  • AJAX - ASP.NET - Timer delay problem

    - by Julian
    Hi, I'm trying to make an webapplication where you see an Ajax countdown timer. Whenever I push a button the countdown should go back to 30 and keep counting down. Now the problem is whenever I push the button the timer keeps counting down for a second or 2 and most of the time after that the timer keeps standing on 30 for to long. WebForm code: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="geen verbinding"></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Timer1" EventName="Tick" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Timer ID="Timer1" runat="server" Interval="1000" ontick="Timer1_Tick"> </asp:Timer> </form> Code Behind: static int timer = 30; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = timer.ToString(); } protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer--; } protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer = 30; } Hope somebody knows what the problem is and if there is anyway to fix this. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Android maps out of memory error

    - by SamB09
    Hi , sometimes when running a google maps program with an overlay image i will receive a bit map out of memory error. It always seems to be at a random point in the app. Im not sure how to solve this. Anyone have any ideas ? My overlay code is below , im not sure if you need to see the class its called in though? public class MyOverlay2 extends Overlay { private static final double MAX_TAP_DISTANCE_KM = 3; // Rough approximation - one degree = 50 nautical miles private static final double MAX_TAP_DISTANCE_DEGREES = MAX_TAP_DISTANCE_KM * 0.5399568 * 50; private final GeoPoint gPoint; private final Context cont; private final int draw; // private final int lat; public MyOverlay2(Context cont, GeoPoint gPoint1, int draw) { // constructor will be called in the userLocation class to draw an overly image this.cont = cont; this.gPoint = gPoint1; this.draw = draw; } @Override public boolean draw(Canvas canvas, MapView mapView, boolean shadow, long when) { // constructor takes 3 arguments super.draw(canvas, mapView, shadow); // Convert geo coordinates to screen pixels Point screenPoint = new Point(); mapView.getProjection().toPixels(gPoint, screenPoint); //Read the image from the xml resource using a bitmap factory BitmapFactory.Options options=new BitmapFactory.Options(); options.inSampleSize = 1; Bitmap preview_bitmap=BitmapFactory.decodeResource(cont.getResources(),R.drawable.monday12,options); //draw the image at the location specified by the co-ordinates canvas.drawBitmap(preview_bitmap, screenPoint.x - preview_bitmap.getWidth() /2, screenPoint.y - preview_bitmap.getHeight()/2 , null); // get the images height and width values divided by two draw the image at the specified screen points return true; } @Override public boolean onTap(GeoPoint s, MapView mapView) { // Handle tapping on the overlay here return true; } }

    Read the article

  • Android - I can't make a widget clickable to launch an intent

    - by Daniele
    Hi all. I am new to Android development. I have developed a very simple widget that was meant to interact with the user via an ImageButton. What I am trying to do now is as follows. When a user taps the button (after adding the widget to their home screen), I want the phone to dial a certain telephone number. A sort of speed dial for your home screen. Unfortunately when I tap the button nothing happens. This is the body of my SpeedDialAppWidgetProvider.onUpdate method: Log.d("", "beginning of onUpdate"); final int N = appWidgetIds.length; for (int i=0; i<N; i++) { int appWidgetId = appWidgetIds[i]; Log.d("", "dealing with appWidgetId: " + appWidgetId); // Create an Intent to launch ExampleActivity Intent dialIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_CALL, Uri.parse("tel:1234567")); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, dialIntent, 0); Log.d("", "pendingIntent classname " + pendingIntent.getClass().getName()); // Get the layout for the App Widget and attach an on-click listener to the button RemoteViews remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.speed_dial_appwidget); remoteViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.dial_icon, pendingIntent); Log.d("", "remoteViews classname " + remoteViews.getClass().getName()); // Tell the AppWidgetManager to perform an update on the current App Widget appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(appWidgetId, remoteViews); Log.d("", "end of onUpdate"); I can see the method is called and the result of the logging makes sense. The speed_dial_appwidget.xml file is like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" androidrientation="vertical" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <ImageButton id="@+id/dial_icon" android:src="@drawable/speed_dial" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> </LinearLayout> Can you please help me with this? Thanks in advance, Dan

    Read the article

  • A question on delegates and method parameters

    - by Srinivas Reddy Thatiparthy
    public class Program { delegate void Srini(string param); static void Main(string[] args) { Srini sr = new Srini(PrintHello1); sr += new Srini(PrintHello2); //case 2: sr += new Srini(delegate(string o) { Console.WriteLine(o); }); sr += new Srini(delegate(object o) { Console.WriteLine(o.ToString()); }); //case 4: sr += new Srini(delegate { Console.WriteLine(“This line is accepted,though the method signature is not Comp”); });//case 5 sr("Hello World"); Console.Read(); } static void PrintHello1(string param) { Console.WriteLine(param); } static void PrintHello2(object param) { Console.WriteLine(param); } } Compiler doesn't complain about the case 2(see the comment),well,the reason is straight forward since string inherits from object. ,along the same lines ,Why is it complaining for anonymous method types(see the comment //case 4:) that “Cannot convert anonymous method to delegate type 'DelegateTest.Program.Srini' because the parameter types do not match the delegate parameter types” where as in case of normal method it doesn't ?or am i comparing apples with oranges? Another case is why is it accepting anonymous method without parameters?

    Read the article

  • sorting filtered data in asp.net listview

    - by user791345
    I've created a listview that's filled up with a list of guitars from the database on page load like so: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["GuitarsLTDBConnectionString"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM Guitars", con); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd.CommandText, con); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da.Fill(dt); lvGuitars.DataSource = dt; lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The following code filters that list of guitars by a certain Make when the user checks the checkbox corresponding to that make protected void chkOrgs_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); if (chkOrgs.SelectedValue == "Gibson") { dv.RowFilter = "Make = 'Gibson' OR Make='Fender'"; } lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } Now, what I want to do is be able to sort the latest data that is present within the listview. Meaning, if sort is clicked before filtering, the it should sort all data. If sort is clicked after filtering, it should sort the filtered data. I'm using the following code, which is triggered upon a LinkButton click protected void lnkSortResults_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); dv.Sort = "Make ASC"; lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The problem is that all the data that the listview was loaded with before any filtering is sorted, and not the latest filtered data. How can I change this code so that the latest data available in the listview is the one that's sorted? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Populate textboxes with XmlNode.Attributes

    - by Doug
    I have Data.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <data> <album> <slide title="Autum Leaves" description="Leaves from the fall of 1986" source="images/Autumn Leaves.jpg" thumbnail="images/Autumn Leaves_thumb.jpg" /> <slide title="Creek" description="Creek in Alaska" source="images/Creek.jpg" thumbnail="images/Creek_thumb.jpg" /> </album> </data> I'd like to be able to edit the attributes of each Slide node via GridView (that has a "Select" column added.) And so far I have: protected void GridView1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int selectedIndex = GridView1.SelectedIndex; LoadXmlData(selectedIndex); } private void LoadXmlData(int selectedIndex) { XmlDocument xmldoc = new XmlDocument(); xmldoc.Load(MapPath(@"..\photo_gallery\Data.xml")); XmlNodeList nodelist = xmldoc.DocumentElement.ChildNodes; XmlNode xmlnode = nodelist.Item(selectedIndex); titleTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["title"].InnerText; descriptionTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["description"].InnerText; sourceTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["source"].InnerText; thumbTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["thumbnail"].InnerText; } The code for LoadXmlData is just a guess on my part - I'm new to working with xml in this way. I'd like have the user to slected the row from the gridview, then populate a set of text boxes with each slide attributed for updating back to the Data.xml file. The error I'm getting is Object reference not set to an instance of an object" at the line: titleTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["@title"].InnerText; so I'm not reaching the attribute "title" of the slide node. Thanks for any ideas you may have.

    Read the article

  • Flash/Flex sending XML to Rails App

    - by bdicasa
    I'm trying to send some XML to a rails app in Flex. I'm using the URLRequest and URLLoader objects. However, I'm having trouble determining how to send the XML and _method parameter to the rails app using these flash objects. Below is how I'm currently trying to achieve this. var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; request.data = new Object(); request.data.xml = Blog.xml.toXMLString(); request.contentType = "text/xml"; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, saveCompleteHandler); var saveUrl:String = ""; saveUrl = BASE_URL; if (Blog.isNewBlog) { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "POST"; saveUrl += "blogs.xml"; } else { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "PUT"; saveUrl += "blogs/" + Blog.id.toString() + ".xml"; } request.url = saveUrl; //trace(request.data.toString()); loader.load(request); However the only data that is getting sent to the server is [Object object]. If some one could let me know where I'm going wrong I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

    - by Rob
    I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

    Read the article

  • Why put a DAO layer over a persistence layer (like JDO or Hibernate)

    - by Todd Owen
    Data Access Objects (DAOs) are a common design pattern, and recommended by Sun. But the earliest examples of Java DAOs interacted directly with relational databases -- they were, in essence, doing object-relational mapping (ORM). Nowadays, I see DAOs on top of mature ORM frameworks like JDO and Hibernate, and I wonder if that is really a good idea. I am developing a web service using JDO as the persistence layer, and am considering whether or not to introduce DAOs. I foresee a problem when dealing with a particular class which contains a map of other objects: public class Book { // Book description in various languages, indexed by ISO language codes private Map<String,BookDescription> descriptions; } JDO is clever enough to map this to a foreign key constraint between the "BOOKS" and "BOOKDESCRIPTIONS" tables. It transparently loads the BookDescription objects (using lazy loading, I believe), and persists them when the Book object is persisted. If I was to introduce a "data access layer" and write a class like BookDao, and encapsulate all the JDO code within this, then wouldn't this JDO's transparent loading of the child objects be circumventing the data access layer? For consistency, shouldn't all the BookDescription objects be loaded and persisted via some BookDescriptionDao object (or BookDao.loadDescription method)? Yet refactoring in that way would make manipulating the model needlessly complicated. So my question is, what's wrong with calling JDO (or Hibernate, or whatever ORM you fancy) directly in the business layer? Its syntax is already quite concise, and it is datastore-agnostic. What is the advantage, if any, of encapsulating it in Data Access Objects?

    Read the article

  • Fast, very lightweight algorithm for camera motion detection?

    - by Ertebolle
    I'm working on an augmented reality app for iPhone that involves a very processor-intensive object recognition algorithm (pushing the CPU at 100% it can get through maybe 5 frames per second), and in an effort to both save battery power and make the whole thing less "jittery" I'm trying to come up with a way to only run that object recognizer when the user is actually moving the camera around. My first thought was to simply use the iPhone's accelerometers / gyroscope, but in testing I found that very often people would move the iPhone at a consistent enough attitude and velocity that there wouldn't be any way to tell that it was still in motion. So that left the option of analyzing the actual video feed and detecting movement in that. I got OpenCV working and tried running their pyramidal Lucas-Kanade optical flow algorithm, which works well but seems to be almost as processor-intensive as my object recognizer - I can get it to an acceptable framerate if I lower the depth levels / downsample the image / track fewer points, but then accuracy suffers and it starts to miss some large movements and trigger on small hand-shaking-y ones. So my question is, is there another optical flow algorithm that's faster than Lucas-Kanade if I just want to detect the overall magnitude of camera movement? I don't need to track individual objects, I don't even need to know which direction the camera is moving, all I really need is a way to feed something two frames of video and have it tell me how far apart they are.

    Read the article

  • use startActivityForResult from non-activity

    - by rayman
    Hi, I have MainActivity which is an Activity and other class(which is a simple java class), we`ll call it "SimpleClass". now i want to run from that class the command startActivityForResult. now i though that i could pass that class(SimpleClass), only MainActivity's context, problem is that, u cant run context.startActivityForResult(...); so the only way making SimpleClass to use 'startActivityForResult; is to pass the reference of MainActivity as an Activity variable to the SimpleClass something like that: inside the MainActivity class i create the instance of SimpleClass this way: SimpleClass simpleClass=new SimpleClass(MainActivity.this); now this is how SimpleClass looks like: public Class SimpleClass { Activity myMainActivity; public SimpleClass(Activity mainActivity) { super(); this.myMainActivity=mainActivity; } .... } public void someMethod(...) { myMainActivity.startActivityForResult(...); } now its working, but isnt a proper way of doing this? I`am afraid i could have some memory leaks in the future. thanks. ray.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528  | Next Page >