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  • BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly alternative to avoid ambiguous properties of derived classes

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am looking for a solution to access 'flatten' (lowest) properties values of a class and its derived via reflection by property names. ie access either Property1 or Property2 from the ClassB or ClassC type : public class ClassA { public virtual object Property1 { get; set; } public object Property2 { get; set; } } public class ClassB : ClassA { public override object Property1 { get; set; } } public class ClassC : ClassB { } Using simple reflection works until you have virtual properties that are overrired (ie Property1 from ClassB). Then you get a AmbiguousMatchException because the searcher don't know if you want the property of the main class or the derived. Using BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly avoid the AmbiguousMatchException but unoverrided virtual properties or derived classes properties are ommited (ie Property2 from ClassB). Is there an alternative to this poor workaround : // Get the main class property with the specified propertyName PropertyInfo propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName, BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Static); // If not found, get the property wherever it is if (propertyInfo == null) propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName); Furthermore, this workaround not resolve the reflection of 2nd level properties : getting Property1 from ClassC and AmbiguousMatchException is back. My thoughts : I have no choice except loop... Erk... ?? I'am open to Emit, Lambda (is the Expression.Call can handle this?) even DLR solution. Thanks !

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  • [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • Trying to attach a file from SD Card to email

    - by Chrispix
    I am trying to launch an Intent to send an email. All of that works, but when I try to actually send the email a couple 'weird' things happen. here is code Intent sendIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_SEND); sendIntent.setType("image/jpeg"); sendIntent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_SUBJECT, "Photo"); sendIntent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_STREAM, Uri.parse("file://sdcard/dcim/Camera/filename.jpg")); sendIntent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_TEXT, "Enjoy the photo"); startActivity(Intent.createChooser(sendIntent, "Email:")); So if I launch using the Gmail menu context It shows the attachment, lets me type who the email is to, and edit the body & subject. No big deal. I hit send, and it sends. The only thing is the attachment does NOT get sent. So. I figured, why not try it w/ the Email menu context (for my backup email account on my phone). It shows the attachment, but no text at all in the body or subject. When I send it, the attachment sends correctly. That would lead me to believe something is quite wrong. Do I need a new permission in the Manifest launch an intent to send email w/ attachment? What am I doing wrong?

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  • httpHandler - subfolder issue

    - by Patto
    Hi, I am trying to redirect my old typepad blog to my new blog (permanent 301 redirect) that runs with wordpress. The new blog will also be on a new server. the old Blog had the following structure: http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html The new Blog looks like this: http://www.domain.com/Blog/year/month/what-ever-article.html I am using an http handler that I found online and tried to work with it: public class MyHttpModule :IHttpModule { public MyHttpModule() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } #region IHttpModule Members public void Dispose() { } public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(context_BeginRequest); } void context_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string oldURL = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString(); string newURL = String.Empty; //oldURL = if (oldURL.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("articles") >= 0 || System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("weblog") >= 0) { newURL = oldURL.Replace("subdomain.domain.com/weblog", "www.domain.com/Blog/index.php"); if (newURL.ToLower().Contains("subdomain")) { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } } else { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.StatusCode = 301; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Location", newURL); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } #endregion } To use this code, I put the handler into the web.config <httpModules> <add name="MyHttpModule" type="MyHttpModule, App_Code"/> </httpModules> The issue that I have is that when I want to redirect from the http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html, I get an error that the folder would not exist. Is there any way to change my script or add an catch all to the web.config that forwards the URL to my script? When I use "http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html" in oldURL string, then the redirect works just fine... so I must have some IIS or web.config settings wrong. Thanks in advance, Patrick

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  • Is this a clean way to manage AsyncResults with Generic Methods?

    - by Michael Stum
    I've contributed Async Support to a Project I'm using, but I made a bug which I'm trying to fix. Basically I have this construct: private readonly Dictionary<WaitHandle, object> genericCallbacks = new Dictionary<WaitHandle, object>(); public IAsyncResult BeginExecute<T>(RestRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state) where T : new() { var genericCallback = new RequestExecuteCaller<T>(this.Execute<T>); var asyncResult = genericCallback.BeginInvoke(request, callback, state); genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] = genericCallback; return asyncResult; } public RestResponse<T> EndExecute<T>(IAsyncResult asyncResult) where T : new() { var cb = genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] as RequestExecuteCaller<T>; genericCallbacks.Remove(asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle); return cb.EndInvoke(asyncResult); } So I have a generic BeginExecute/EndExecute method pair. As I need to store the delegate that is called on EndExecute somewhere I created a dictionary. I'm unsure about using WaitHandles as keys though, but that seems to be the only safe choice. Does this approach make sense? Are WaitHandles unique or could I have two equal ones? Or should I instead use the State (and wrap any user provided state into my own State value)? Just to add, the class itself is non-generic, only the Begin/EndExecute methods are generic.

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  • Android maps out of memory error

    - by SamB09
    Hi , sometimes when running a google maps program with an overlay image i will receive a bit map out of memory error. It always seems to be at a random point in the app. Im not sure how to solve this. Anyone have any ideas ? My overlay code is below , im not sure if you need to see the class its called in though? public class MyOverlay2 extends Overlay { private static final double MAX_TAP_DISTANCE_KM = 3; // Rough approximation - one degree = 50 nautical miles private static final double MAX_TAP_DISTANCE_DEGREES = MAX_TAP_DISTANCE_KM * 0.5399568 * 50; private final GeoPoint gPoint; private final Context cont; private final int draw; // private final int lat; public MyOverlay2(Context cont, GeoPoint gPoint1, int draw) { // constructor will be called in the userLocation class to draw an overly image this.cont = cont; this.gPoint = gPoint1; this.draw = draw; } @Override public boolean draw(Canvas canvas, MapView mapView, boolean shadow, long when) { // constructor takes 3 arguments super.draw(canvas, mapView, shadow); // Convert geo coordinates to screen pixels Point screenPoint = new Point(); mapView.getProjection().toPixels(gPoint, screenPoint); //Read the image from the xml resource using a bitmap factory BitmapFactory.Options options=new BitmapFactory.Options(); options.inSampleSize = 1; Bitmap preview_bitmap=BitmapFactory.decodeResource(cont.getResources(),R.drawable.monday12,options); //draw the image at the location specified by the co-ordinates canvas.drawBitmap(preview_bitmap, screenPoint.x - preview_bitmap.getWidth() /2, screenPoint.y - preview_bitmap.getHeight()/2 , null); // get the images height and width values divided by two draw the image at the specified screen points return true; } @Override public boolean onTap(GeoPoint s, MapView mapView) { // Handle tapping on the overlay here return true; } }

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  • How do I pass a lot of parameters to views in Dango?

    - by Mark
    I'm very new to Django and I'm trying to build an application to present my data in tables and charts. Till now my learning process went very smooth, but now I'm a bit stuck. My pageview retrieves large amounts of data from a database and puts it in the context. The template then generates different html-tables. So far so good. Now I want to add different charts to the template. I manage to do this by defining <img src=".../> tags. The Matplotlib chart is generate in my chartview an returned via: response=HttpResponse(content_type='image/png') canvas.print_png(response) return response Now I have different questions: the data is retrieved twice from the database. Once in the pageview to render the tables, and again in the chartview for making the charts. What is the best way to pass the data, already in the context of the page to the chartview? I need a lot of charts, each with different datasets. I could make a chartview for each chart, but probably there is a better way. How do I pass the different dataset names to the chartview? Some charts have 20 datasets, so I don't think that passing these dataset parameters via the url (like: <imgm src="chart/dataset1/dataset2/.../dataset20/chart.png />) is the right way. Any advice?

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  • ASP.NET - I am generating an .XLS file with a DLL, how do I grant permissions for writing to file? (

    - by hamlin11
    I'm generating an .XLS file with a DLL (Excel Library http://code.google.com/p/excellibrary/) I've added this DLL as a reference to my project. The code to save the .XLS to disk is running, but it's encountering a permissions issue. I've attempted to set full access for IUSRS, Network Service, and Everyone just to see if I could get it working, and none of these seems to make a difference. Here's where I'm trying to write the file: c:/temp/test1.xls Here's the error: [SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.FileIOPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed.] System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) +0 System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() +54 System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) +2103 System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) +138 System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share) +89 System.IO.File.Open(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share) +58 ExcelLibrary.Office.CompoundDocumentFormat.CompoundDocument.Create(String file) +88 ExcelLibrary.Office.Excel.Workbook.Save(String file) +73 CHC_Reports.LitAnalysis.CreateSpreadSheet_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Users\brian\Desktop\Enterprise Manager\CHC_Reports\LitAnalysis.aspx.vb:19 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) +115 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +140 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +29 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +11041511 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +11041050 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest() +91 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) +240 ASP.litanalysis_aspx.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) +52 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +599 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +171 Any idea what I need to do to diagnose the permissions issue and allow the file creation? Thanks.

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  • A question on delegates and method parameters

    - by Srinivas Reddy Thatiparthy
    public class Program { delegate void Srini(string param); static void Main(string[] args) { Srini sr = new Srini(PrintHello1); sr += new Srini(PrintHello2); //case 2: sr += new Srini(delegate(string o) { Console.WriteLine(o); }); sr += new Srini(delegate(object o) { Console.WriteLine(o.ToString()); }); //case 4: sr += new Srini(delegate { Console.WriteLine(“This line is accepted,though the method signature is not Comp”); });//case 5 sr("Hello World"); Console.Read(); } static void PrintHello1(string param) { Console.WriteLine(param); } static void PrintHello2(object param) { Console.WriteLine(param); } } Compiler doesn't complain about the case 2(see the comment),well,the reason is straight forward since string inherits from object. ,along the same lines ,Why is it complaining for anonymous method types(see the comment //case 4:) that “Cannot convert anonymous method to delegate type 'DelegateTest.Program.Srini' because the parameter types do not match the delegate parameter types” where as in case of normal method it doesn't ?or am i comparing apples with oranges? Another case is why is it accepting anonymous method without parameters?

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  • Combining properties made available via webservices profile service aspnet

    - by Adam
    I really wasn't sure what the title for my question could be, so sorry if it's a bit vague. I'm working on an application that uses client application services for authentication/profile management etc. In web.config for my website, I have the following profile properties like this: <properties> <add name="FirstName" type="string" defaultValue="" customProviderData="FirstName;nvarchar"/> ... Basic things like first name, last name etc. I'm exposing properties for my client app like this: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL="false"/> <profileService enabled="true" readAccessProperties="UserProfile" writeAccessProperties="UserProfile"/> <roleService enabled="true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> What I'm wondering is whether it's possible to bundle all the individual profile properties into a single object for client apps to utilize? I originally had all my profile data stored as members of a single class (UserProfile) but I broke it all out so that I could use the SqlTableProfileProvider to store each field as individual columns in relevant tables. I know I can create an class with members for each type, I'm just not sure if there's an easy way to create an object with all my property values (other than assigning values to this object whenever I assign to the the standalone properties). I don't think I'm explaining this very well, so I'll try an example. Say in my website profile I have FirstName and LastName as properties. For my client application profileService I want to have one ReadAccessProperty FullName. Is there some way to automatically create FullName from the existing FirstName and LastName properties without having to also have a seperate FullName property (and manually assign data to it whenever I assign data to FirstName and LastName)?

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  • AJAX - ASP.NET - Timer delay problem

    - by Julian
    Hi, I'm trying to make an webapplication where you see an Ajax countdown timer. Whenever I push a button the countdown should go back to 30 and keep counting down. Now the problem is whenever I push the button the timer keeps counting down for a second or 2 and most of the time after that the timer keeps standing on 30 for to long. WebForm code: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="geen verbinding"></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Timer1" EventName="Tick" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Timer ID="Timer1" runat="server" Interval="1000" ontick="Timer1_Tick"> </asp:Timer> </form> Code Behind: static int timer = 30; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = timer.ToString(); } protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer--; } protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer = 30; } Hope somebody knows what the problem is and if there is anyway to fix this. Thanks in advance!

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  • faster way to change xml to array(grails to flex)

    - by Anthony Umpad
    I have a large xml passed from grails to flex. When flex receives the xml, it converts the xml into an associative array object. Given the large xml file, it takes too long to complete the loop, is there any way in flex to make conversion faster? Below is my sample code. <xml> <car> <model>Vios</model> <type>Sedan</type> <color>Blue</color> </car> <car> <model>Camry</model> <type>Luxury</type> <color>Black</color> </car> </xml> *converted to the flex associative array below.* [Vios].type = Sedan .color = Blue [Camry].type = Luxury .color = Black *Below is a code I used in flex to convert the xml to the associative array object* var tempXML=xml.children() var tempArray:Array= new Array() for(var i:int=0;i<tempXML.length();i++) { tempArray[tempXML[i].@model]= new Object(); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].color = tempXML[i][email protected](); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].type = tempXML[i][email protected](); }

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  • In .NET when Aborting Thread, can this piece of code get corrupted?

    - by bosko
    Little intro: In complex multithreaded aplication (enterprise service bus EBS), I need to use Thread.Abort, because this EBS accepts user written modules which communicates with hardware security modules. So if this module gets deadlocked or hardware stops responding - i need to just unload this module and rest of this server aplication must keep runnnig. So there is abort sync mechanism which ensures that code can be aborted only in user section and this section must be marked as AbortAble. If this happen there is possibility that ThreadAbortException will be thrown in this pieace of code: public void StopAbortSection() { var id = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; lock (threadIdMap[id]) { .... } } If module is on AbortSection and Aplication decides to abort module, but after this decision but before actual Thread.Abort, module enters NonAbortableSection by calling this method, but lock is actualy taken on that locking object. So lock will block until Abort or abort can be executed before reaching this block by this code. But Object with this method is essential and i need to be sure that this pieace of code is safe to abort in any moment. Probably i have to mention that threadIdMap is Dictionary(int,ManualResetEvent), so locking object is instance of ManualResetEvent. I hope you now understad my question. Sorry for its largeness.

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  • Can an interface define the signature of a c#-constructor

    - by happyclicker
    I have a .net-app that provides a mechanism to extend the app with plugins. Each plugin must implement a plugin-interface and must provide furthermore a constructor that receives one parameter (a resource context). During the instantiation of the plugin-class I look via reflection, if the needed constructor exists and if yes, I instantiate the class (via Reflection). If the constructor does not exists, I throw an exception that says that the plugin not could be created, because the desired constructor is not available. My question is, if there is a way to declare the signature of a constructor in the plugin-interface so that everyone that implements the plugin-interface must also provide a constructor with the desired signature. This would ease the creation of plugins. I don’t think that such a possibility exists because I think such a feature falls not in the main purpose for what interfaces were designed for but perhaps someone knows a statement that does this, something like: public interface IPlugin { ctor(IResourceContext resourceContext); int AnotherPluginFunction(); } I want to add that I don't want to change the constructor to be parameterless and then set the resource-context through a property, because this will make the creation of plugins much more complicated. The persons that write plugins are not persons with deep programming experience. The plugins are used to calculate statistical data that will be visualized by the app.

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  • Javascript: I can get the text of a selection, now how do I get the text outside the selection?

    - by DavidR
    I have a bit of code that returns the text of a selection and I can assign that string to a variable, but now all I need are two variables, one for the text before the selection and one for the text after the selection. Here is the code for getting the selection: function findSelection(){ //returns the selection object. var userSelection; if (window.getSelection) {userSelection = window.getSelection();} // Mozilla Selection object. else if (document.selection){userSelection = document.selection.createRange();} //gets Microsoft Text Range, should be second b/c Opera has poor support for it. if (userSelection.text){return userSelection.text} //for Microsoft Objects. else {return userSelection} //For Mozilla Objects. } Then I find the anchorOffset and focusOffset to find the caret positions. I tried using these to modify a range object, like this: var range = document.createRange(); range.setStart(textdiv,0); range.setEnd(textdiv,5); Where textdiv is a variable holding the last div the user clicked on. The problem is firefox just gives me a "Security error" code: "1000" at the line range.setStart(textdiv,0);. Is there an easier way to go about doing this? I really just need the text and nothing more.

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  • Spring-MVC Problem using @Controller on controller implementing an interface

    - by layne
    I'm using spring 2.5 and annotations to configure my spring-mvc web context. Unfortunately, I am unable to get the following to work. I'm not sure if this is a bug (seems like it) or if there is a basic misunderstanding on how the annotations and interface implementation subclassing works. For example, @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } works fine. When the context starts up, the urls this handler deals with are discovered, and everything works great. This however does not: @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo implements Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } When I try to pull up the url, I get the following nasty stack trace: javax.servlet.ServletException: No adapter for handler [com.shaneleopard.web.controller.RegistrationController@e973e3]: Does your handler implement a supported interface like Controller? org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.getHandlerAdapter(DispatcherServlet.java:1091) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doDispatch(DispatcherServlet.java:874) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doService(DispatcherServlet.java:809) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:571) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doGet(FrameworkServlet.java:501) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:627) However, if I change Bar to be an abstract superclass and have Foo extend it, then it works again. @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo extends Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } This seems like a bug. The @Controller annotation should be sufficient to mark this as a controller, and I should be able to implement one or more interfaces in my controller without having to do anything else. Any ideas?

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  • Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an app if I have Message Driven Bean

    - by Harry Pham
    I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

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  • C#: How to run NUnit from my code

    - by Flavio
    Hello, I'd like to use NUnit to run unit tests in my plug-in, but it needs to be run in the context of my application. To solve this, I was trying to develop a plug-in that runs NUnit, which in turn will execute my tests in the application's context. I didn't find a specific documentation on this subject so I dug a piece of information here and there and I came out with the following piece of code (which is similar to one I found here in StackOverflow): SimpleTestRunner runner = new SimpleTestRunner(); TestPackage package = new TestPackage( "Test" ); string loc = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location package.Assemblies.Add( loc ); if( runner.Load(package) ) { TestResult result = runner.Run( new NullListener() ); } The result variable says "has no TestFixture" although I know for sure it is there. In fact my test file contains two test. Using another approach I found, which is summarized by the following code: TestSuiteBuilder builder = new TestSuiteBuilder(); TestSuite testSuite = builder.Build( package ); // Run tests TestResult result = testSuite.Run( new NullListener(), NUnit.Core.TestFilter.Empty ); I saw nunit data structures with only 1 test and I had the same error. For sake of completeness, I am using the latest version of nunit, which is 2.5.5.10112. Does anyone know what I'm missing? A sample code would be appreciated. thanks

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  • Android - I can't make a widget clickable to launch an intent

    - by Daniele
    Hi all. I am new to Android development. I have developed a very simple widget that was meant to interact with the user via an ImageButton. What I am trying to do now is as follows. When a user taps the button (after adding the widget to their home screen), I want the phone to dial a certain telephone number. A sort of speed dial for your home screen. Unfortunately when I tap the button nothing happens. This is the body of my SpeedDialAppWidgetProvider.onUpdate method: Log.d("", "beginning of onUpdate"); final int N = appWidgetIds.length; for (int i=0; i<N; i++) { int appWidgetId = appWidgetIds[i]; Log.d("", "dealing with appWidgetId: " + appWidgetId); // Create an Intent to launch ExampleActivity Intent dialIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_CALL, Uri.parse("tel:1234567")); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, dialIntent, 0); Log.d("", "pendingIntent classname " + pendingIntent.getClass().getName()); // Get the layout for the App Widget and attach an on-click listener to the button RemoteViews remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.speed_dial_appwidget); remoteViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.dial_icon, pendingIntent); Log.d("", "remoteViews classname " + remoteViews.getClass().getName()); // Tell the AppWidgetManager to perform an update on the current App Widget appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(appWidgetId, remoteViews); Log.d("", "end of onUpdate"); I can see the method is called and the result of the logging makes sense. The speed_dial_appwidget.xml file is like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" androidrientation="vertical" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <ImageButton id="@+id/dial_icon" android:src="@drawable/speed_dial" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> </LinearLayout> Can you please help me with this? Thanks in advance, Dan

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  • Accessing previous activity instances in a sequence activity

    - by Dan Revell
    This has a rather SharePoint spin to it but the problem is straight workflow. I've got a parallel replication activity which contains a sequence activity. The sequence activity contains a CreateTask activity, a CodeActivity, a OnTaskChanged activity and finally a CompleteTask activity. The idea is to create a task for each username passed into the ReplicatorActivity.InitialChildData property. Typically in workflow I bind a field to the CreateTask.TaskId and CreateTask.TaskProperties and inside the CreateTask.MethodInvoking I set these through the local bound fields. This works and my tasks all get created properly. However in the CodeActivity that follows, I want to then access the TaskProperties. The problem I am encountering is that this field holds the values of the final task to be created as the CreateTask runs for all the replications before the CodeActivity gets to runs. From the CodeActivity, here are two ways I've tried to access the CreateTask activity instance from the same context or instance or whatever the terminology is for the replicated sequence. CreateTask task = ((CreateTask)sender.Parent.GetActivityByName("createSoftwareRequestTask", true)); CreateTask createTask = (CreateTask)sender.Parent.Activities[0]; Unfortunately the CreateTask activities both refer back to the last task to be created and not the task from the context that the CodeActivity is executing within. Two reasons why this might be that I can think of. I'm not accessing the correct instance with my code. I am accessing the correct instance, but as the properties I require were bound to and set through local fields then their previous data was overwritten. I'm hitting a brick wall with my understanding of workflow with this and would very much appreciate some assistance here.

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  • If I select from an IQueryable then the Include is lost

    - by Connor Murphy
    The include does not work after I perform a select on the IQueryable query. Is there a way arround this? My query is public IQueryable<Network> GetAllNetworks() { var query = (from n in _db.NetworkSet .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Target") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Source") select (n)); return query;; } I then try to populate mya ViewModel in my WebUI layer using the following code var projectedNetworks = from n in GetAllNetworks() select new NetworkViewModel { Name = n.Name, Contacts = from contact in networkList .SelectMany(nc => nc.NetworkContacts) .Where(nc => nc.Member == true) .Where(nc => nc.NetworkId == n.ID) .Select(c => c.Contact) select contact, }; return projectedNetworks; The problem now occurs in my newly createdNetworkViewModel The Contacts object does include any loaded data for RelationshipSource.Target or RelationshipSource.Source The data should is there when run from the original Repository IQueryable object. However the related include data does not seem to get transferred into the new Contacts collection that is created from this IQueryable using the Select New {} code above. Is there a way to preserve this Include data when it gets passed into a new object?

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  • Core Data @sum aggregate

    - by nasim
    I am getting an exception when I try to get @sum on a column in iPhone Core-Data application. My two models are following - Task model: @interface Task : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * taskName; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSSet* completion; @end @interface Task (CoreDataGeneratedAccessors) - (void)addCompletionObject:(NSManagedObject *)value; - (void)removeCompletionObject:(NSManagedObject *)value; - (void)addCompletion:(NSSet *)value; - (void)removeCompletion:(NSSet *)value; @end Completion model: @interface Completion : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * percentage; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDate * time; @property (nonatomic, retain) Task * task; @end And here is the fetch: NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; request.entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Task" inManagedObjectContext:context]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"taskName" ascending:YES]; request.sortDescriptors = [NSArray arrayWithObject:sortDescriptor]; NSError *error; NSArray *results = [context executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; NSArray *parents = [results valueForKeyPath:@"taskName"]; NSArray *children = [results valueForKeyPath:@"[email protected]"]; NSLog(@"%@ %@", parents, children); [request release]; [sortDescriptor release]; The exception is thrown at the fourth line from bottom. The thrown exception is: *** -[NSCFSet decimalValue]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b25a30 *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSCFSet decimalValue]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b25a30' I would very much appreciate any kind of help. Thanks.

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  • How to use reflection to call a method and pass parameters whose types are unknown at compile time?

    - by MandoMando
    I'd like to call methods of a class dynamically with parameter values that are "parsed" from a string input. For example: I'd like to call the following program with these commands: c:myprog.exe MethodA System.Int32 777 c:myprog.exe MethodA System.float 23.17 c:myprog.exe MethodB System.Int32& 777 c:myprog.exe MethodC System.Int32 777 System.String ThisCanBeDone static void Main(string[] args) { ClassA aa = new ClassA(); System.Type[] types = new Type[args.Length / 2]; object[] ParamArray = new object[types.Length]; for (int i=0; i < types.Length; i++) { types[i] = System.Type.GetType(args[i*2 + 1]); // LINE_X: this will obviously cause runtime error invalid type/casting ParamArray[i] = args[i*2 + 2]; MethodInfo callInfo = aa.GetType().GetMethod(args[0],types); callInfo.Invoke(aa, ParamArray); } // In a non-changeable classlib: public class ClassA { public void MethodA(int i) { Console.Write(i.ToString()); } public void MethodA(float f) { Console.Write(f.ToString()); } public void MethodB(ref int i) { Console.Write(i.ToString()); i++; } public void MethodC(int i, string s) { Console.Write(s + i.ToString()); } public void MethodA(object o) { Console.Write("Argg! Type Trapped!"); } } "LINE_X" in the above code is the sticky part. For one, I have no idea how to assign value to a int or a ref int parameter even after I create it using Activator.CreatInstance or something else. The typeConverter does come to mind, but then that requires an explicit compile type casting as well. Am I looking at CLR with JavaScript glasses or there is way to do this?

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  • sorting filtered data in asp.net listview

    - by user791345
    I've created a listview that's filled up with a list of guitars from the database on page load like so: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["GuitarsLTDBConnectionString"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM Guitars", con); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd.CommandText, con); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da.Fill(dt); lvGuitars.DataSource = dt; lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The following code filters that list of guitars by a certain Make when the user checks the checkbox corresponding to that make protected void chkOrgs_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); if (chkOrgs.SelectedValue == "Gibson") { dv.RowFilter = "Make = 'Gibson' OR Make='Fender'"; } lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } Now, what I want to do is be able to sort the latest data that is present within the listview. Meaning, if sort is clicked before filtering, the it should sort all data. If sort is clicked after filtering, it should sort the filtered data. I'm using the following code, which is triggered upon a LinkButton click protected void lnkSortResults_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); dv.Sort = "Make ASC"; lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The problem is that all the data that the listview was loaded with before any filtering is sorted, and not the latest filtered data. How can I change this code so that the latest data available in the listview is the one that's sorted? Thanks

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  • VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

    - by Rob
    I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

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