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• faster way to change xml to array(grails to flex)

  - by Anthony Umpad

  I have a large xml passed from grails to flex. When flex receives the xml, it converts the xml into an associative array object. Given the large xml file, it takes too long to complete the loop, is there any way in flex to make conversion faster? Below is my sample code. <xml> <car> <model>Vios</model> <type>Sedan</type> <color>Blue</color> </car> <car> <model>Camry</model> <type>Luxury</type> <color>Black</color> </car> </xml> *converted to the flex associative array below.* [Vios].type = Sedan .color = Blue [Camry].type = Luxury .color = Black *Below is a code I used in flex to convert the xml to the associative array object* var tempXML=xml.children() var tempArray:Array= new Array() for(var i:int=0;i<tempXML.length();i++) { tempArray[tempXML[i].@model]= new Object(); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].color = tempXML[i][email protected](); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].type = tempXML[i][email protected](); }

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• Can an interface define the signature of a c#-constructor

  - by happyclicker

  I have a .net-app that provides a mechanism to extend the app with plugins. Each plugin must implement a plugin-interface and must provide furthermore a constructor that receives one parameter (a resource context). During the instantiation of the plugin-class I look via reflection, if the needed constructor exists and if yes, I instantiate the class (via Reflection). If the constructor does not exists, I throw an exception that says that the plugin not could be created, because the desired constructor is not available. My question is, if there is a way to declare the signature of a constructor in the plugin-interface so that everyone that implements the plugin-interface must also provide a constructor with the desired signature. This would ease the creation of plugins. I don’t think that such a possibility exists because I think such a feature falls not in the main purpose for what interfaces were designed for but perhaps someone knows a statement that does this, something like: public interface IPlugin { ctor(IResourceContext resourceContext); int AnotherPluginFunction(); } I want to add that I don't want to change the constructor to be parameterless and then set the resource-context through a property, because this will make the creation of plugins much more complicated. The persons that write plugins are not persons with deep programming experience. The plugins are used to calculate statistical data that will be visualized by the app.

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• Is this a clean way to manage AsyncResults with Generic Methods?

  - by Michael Stum

  I've contributed Async Support to a Project I'm using, but I made a bug which I'm trying to fix. Basically I have this construct: private readonly Dictionary<WaitHandle, object> genericCallbacks = new Dictionary<WaitHandle, object>(); public IAsyncResult BeginExecute<T>(RestRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state) where T : new() { var genericCallback = new RequestExecuteCaller<T>(this.Execute<T>); var asyncResult = genericCallback.BeginInvoke(request, callback, state); genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] = genericCallback; return asyncResult; } public RestResponse<T> EndExecute<T>(IAsyncResult asyncResult) where T : new() { var cb = genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] as RequestExecuteCaller<T>; genericCallbacks.Remove(asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle); return cb.EndInvoke(asyncResult); } So I have a generic BeginExecute/EndExecute method pair. As I need to store the delegate that is called on EndExecute somewhere I created a dictionary. I'm unsure about using WaitHandles as keys though, but that seems to be the only safe choice. Does this approach make sense? Are WaitHandles unique or could I have two equal ones? Or should I instead use the State (and wrap any user provided state into my own State value)? Just to add, the class itself is non-generic, only the Begin/EndExecute methods are generic.

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• Why put a DAO layer over a persistence layer (like JDO or Hibernate)

  - by Todd Owen

  Data Access Objects (DAOs) are a common design pattern, and recommended by Sun. But the earliest examples of Java DAOs interacted directly with relational databases -- they were, in essence, doing object-relational mapping (ORM). Nowadays, I see DAOs on top of mature ORM frameworks like JDO and Hibernate, and I wonder if that is really a good idea. I am developing a web service using JDO as the persistence layer, and am considering whether or not to introduce DAOs. I foresee a problem when dealing with a particular class which contains a map of other objects: public class Book { // Book description in various languages, indexed by ISO language codes private Map<String,BookDescription> descriptions; } JDO is clever enough to map this to a foreign key constraint between the "BOOKS" and "BOOKDESCRIPTIONS" tables. It transparently loads the BookDescription objects (using lazy loading, I believe), and persists them when the Book object is persisted. If I was to introduce a "data access layer" and write a class like BookDao, and encapsulate all the JDO code within this, then wouldn't this JDO's transparent loading of the child objects be circumventing the data access layer? For consistency, shouldn't all the BookDescription objects be loaded and persisted via some BookDescriptionDao object (or BookDao.loadDescription method)? Yet refactoring in that way would make manipulating the model needlessly complicated. So my question is, what's wrong with calling JDO (or Hibernate, or whatever ORM you fancy) directly in the business layer? Its syntax is already quite concise, and it is datastore-agnostic. What is the advantage, if any, of encapsulating it in Data Access Objects?

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• How do I pass a lot of parameters to views in Dango?

  - by Mark

  I'm very new to Django and I'm trying to build an application to present my data in tables and charts. Till now my learning process went very smooth, but now I'm a bit stuck. My pageview retrieves large amounts of data from a database and puts it in the context. The template then generates different html-tables. So far so good. Now I want to add different charts to the template. I manage to do this by defining <img src=".../> tags. The Matplotlib chart is generate in my chartview an returned via: response=HttpResponse(content_type='image/png') canvas.print_png(response) return response Now I have different questions: the data is retrieved twice from the database. Once in the pageview to render the tables, and again in the chartview for making the charts. What is the best way to pass the data, already in the context of the page to the chartview? I need a lot of charts, each with different datasets. I could make a chartview for each chart, but probably there is a better way. How do I pass the different dataset names to the chartview? Some charts have 20 datasets, so I don't think that passing these dataset parameters via the url (like: <imgm src="chart/dataset1/dataset2/.../dataset20/chart.png />) is the right way. Any advice?

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• httpHandler - subfolder issue

  - by Patto

  Hi, I am trying to redirect my old typepad blog to my new blog (permanent 301 redirect) that runs with wordpress. The new blog will also be on a new server. the old Blog had the following structure: http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html The new Blog looks like this: http://www.domain.com/Blog/year/month/what-ever-article.html I am using an http handler that I found online and tried to work with it: public class MyHttpModule :IHttpModule { public MyHttpModule() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } #region IHttpModule Members public void Dispose() { } public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(context_BeginRequest); } void context_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string oldURL = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString(); string newURL = String.Empty; //oldURL = if (oldURL.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("articles") >= 0 || System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("weblog") >= 0) { newURL = oldURL.Replace("subdomain.domain.com/weblog", "www.domain.com/Blog/index.php"); if (newURL.ToLower().Contains("subdomain")) { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } } else { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.StatusCode = 301; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Location", newURL); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } #endregion } To use this code, I put the handler into the web.config <httpModules> <add name="MyHttpModule" type="MyHttpModule, App_Code"/> </httpModules> The issue that I have is that when I want to redirect from the http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html, I get an error that the folder would not exist. Is there any way to change my script or add an catch all to the web.config that forwards the URL to my script? When I use "http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html" in oldURL string, then the redirect works just fine... so I must have some IIS or web.config settings wrong. Thanks in advance, Patrick

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• using the ASP.NET Caching API via method annotations in C#

  - by craigmoliver

  In C#, is it possible to decorate a method with an annotation to populate the cache object with the return value of the method? Currently I'm using the following class to cache data objects: public class SiteCache { // 7 days + 6 hours (offset to avoid repeats peak time) private const int KeepForHours = 174; public static void Set(string cacheKey, Object o) { if (o != null) HttpContext.Current.Cache.Insert(cacheKey, o, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(KeepForHours), TimeSpan.Zero); } public static object Get(string cacheKey) { return HttpContext.Current.Cache[cacheKey]; } public static void Clear(string sKey) { HttpContext.Current.Cache.Remove(sKey); } public static void Clear() { foreach (DictionaryEntry item in HttpContext.Current.Cache) { Clear(item.Key.ToString()); } } } In methods I want to cache I do this: [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var ck = string.Format("SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name-Name_{0}-", Name.ToLower()); var dt = (DataTable)SiteCache.Get(ck); if (dt == null) { dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); SiteCache.Set(ck, dt); } var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; } Is it possible to separate those concerns like so: (notice the new annotation) [CacheReturnValue] [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; }

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• Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an app if I have Message Driven Bean

  - by Harry Pham

  I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

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• Android maps out of memory error

  - by SamB09

  Hi , sometimes when running a google maps program with an overlay image i will receive a bit map out of memory error. It always seems to be at a random point in the app. Im not sure how to solve this. Anyone have any ideas ? My overlay code is below , im not sure if you need to see the class its called in though? public class MyOverlay2 extends Overlay { private static final double MAX_TAP_DISTANCE_KM = 3; // Rough approximation - one degree = 50 nautical miles private static final double MAX_TAP_DISTANCE_DEGREES = MAX_TAP_DISTANCE_KM * 0.5399568 * 50; private final GeoPoint gPoint; private final Context cont; private final int draw; // private final int lat; public MyOverlay2(Context cont, GeoPoint gPoint1, int draw) { // constructor will be called in the userLocation class to draw an overly image this.cont = cont; this.gPoint = gPoint1; this.draw = draw; } @Override public boolean draw(Canvas canvas, MapView mapView, boolean shadow, long when) { // constructor takes 3 arguments super.draw(canvas, mapView, shadow); // Convert geo coordinates to screen pixels Point screenPoint = new Point(); mapView.getProjection().toPixels(gPoint, screenPoint); //Read the image from the xml resource using a bitmap factory BitmapFactory.Options options=new BitmapFactory.Options(); options.inSampleSize = 1; Bitmap preview_bitmap=BitmapFactory.decodeResource(cont.getResources(),R.drawable.monday12,options); //draw the image at the location specified by the co-ordinates canvas.drawBitmap(preview_bitmap, screenPoint.x - preview_bitmap.getWidth() /2, screenPoint.y - preview_bitmap.getHeight()/2 , null); // get the images height and width values divided by two draw the image at the specified screen points return true; } @Override public boolean onTap(GeoPoint s, MapView mapView) { // Handle tapping on the overlay here return true; } }

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• AJAX - ASP.NET - Timer delay problem

  - by Julian

  Hi, I'm trying to make an webapplication where you see an Ajax countdown timer. Whenever I push a button the countdown should go back to 30 and keep counting down. Now the problem is whenever I push the button the timer keeps counting down for a second or 2 and most of the time after that the timer keeps standing on 30 for to long. WebForm code: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="geen verbinding"></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Timer1" EventName="Tick" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Timer ID="Timer1" runat="server" Interval="1000" ontick="Timer1_Tick"> </asp:Timer> </form> Code Behind: static int timer = 30; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = timer.ToString(); } protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer--; } protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer = 30; } Hope somebody knows what the problem is and if there is anyway to fix this. Thanks in advance!

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• C#: How to run NUnit from my code

  - by Flavio

  Hello, I'd like to use NUnit to run unit tests in my plug-in, but it needs to be run in the context of my application. To solve this, I was trying to develop a plug-in that runs NUnit, which in turn will execute my tests in the application's context. I didn't find a specific documentation on this subject so I dug a piece of information here and there and I came out with the following piece of code (which is similar to one I found here in StackOverflow): SimpleTestRunner runner = new SimpleTestRunner(); TestPackage package = new TestPackage( "Test" ); string loc = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location package.Assemblies.Add( loc ); if( runner.Load(package) ) { TestResult result = runner.Run( new NullListener() ); } The result variable says "has no TestFixture" although I know for sure it is there. In fact my test file contains two test. Using another approach I found, which is summarized by the following code: TestSuiteBuilder builder = new TestSuiteBuilder(); TestSuite testSuite = builder.Build( package ); // Run tests TestResult result = testSuite.Run( new NullListener(), NUnit.Core.TestFilter.Empty ); I saw nunit data structures with only 1 test and I had the same error. For sake of completeness, I am using the latest version of nunit, which is 2.5.5.10112. Does anyone know what I'm missing? A sample code would be appreciated. thanks

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• [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

  - by codemonkie

  I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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• Accessing previous activity instances in a sequence activity

  - by Dan Revell

  This has a rather SharePoint spin to it but the problem is straight workflow. I've got a parallel replication activity which contains a sequence activity. The sequence activity contains a CreateTask activity, a CodeActivity, a OnTaskChanged activity and finally a CompleteTask activity. The idea is to create a task for each username passed into the ReplicatorActivity.InitialChildData property. Typically in workflow I bind a field to the CreateTask.TaskId and CreateTask.TaskProperties and inside the CreateTask.MethodInvoking I set these through the local bound fields. This works and my tasks all get created properly. However in the CodeActivity that follows, I want to then access the TaskProperties. The problem I am encountering is that this field holds the values of the final task to be created as the CreateTask runs for all the replications before the CodeActivity gets to runs. From the CodeActivity, here are two ways I've tried to access the CreateTask activity instance from the same context or instance or whatever the terminology is for the replicated sequence. CreateTask task = ((CreateTask)sender.Parent.GetActivityByName("createSoftwareRequestTask", true)); CreateTask createTask = (CreateTask)sender.Parent.Activities[0]; Unfortunately the CreateTask activities both refer back to the last task to be created and not the task from the context that the CodeActivity is executing within. Two reasons why this might be that I can think of. I'm not accessing the correct instance with my code. I am accessing the correct instance, but as the properties I require were bound to and set through local fields then their previous data was overwritten. I'm hitting a brick wall with my understanding of workflow with this and would very much appreciate some assistance here.

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• Is it possible to write an IIS URL Rewrite Rule that examines content of HTTP Post?

  - by JohnRudolfLewis

  I need to split a portion of functionality away from a legacy ISAPI dll onto another solution (ASP.NET MVC most likely). IIS7's URL Rewrite sounded like a perfect candidate for the job, but it turns out I cannot find a way to configure the rules the way I need. I need to write a rule that examines the content of the HTTP post for a particular value. i.e. <form method="post" action="legacy_isapi.dll"> <input name="foo" /> </form> if (Request.Form["foo"] == "bar") Context.RewritePath("/some_other_url/on_the_same_machine/foo/bar"); As a proof of concept, I was able to create an IHttpModule that examines context.Request.Form collection and performs a rewrite when certain parameters are present. I installed this module in my website, and it works. Rather than a custom module, however, I'd rather extend the existing URL Rewrite module to support examining the content of the HTTP Post as one of its rules. Is this possible?

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• In .NET when Aborting Thread, can this piece of code get corrupted?

  - by bosko

  Little intro: In complex multithreaded aplication (enterprise service bus EBS), I need to use Thread.Abort, because this EBS accepts user written modules which communicates with hardware security modules. So if this module gets deadlocked or hardware stops responding - i need to just unload this module and rest of this server aplication must keep runnnig. So there is abort sync mechanism which ensures that code can be aborted only in user section and this section must be marked as AbortAble. If this happen there is possibility that ThreadAbortException will be thrown in this pieace of code: public void StopAbortSection() { var id = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; lock (threadIdMap[id]) { .... } } If module is on AbortSection and Aplication decides to abort module, but after this decision but before actual Thread.Abort, module enters NonAbortableSection by calling this method, but lock is actualy taken on that locking object. So lock will block until Abort or abort can be executed before reaching this block by this code. But Object with this method is essential and i need to be sure that this pieace of code is safe to abort in any moment. Probably i have to mention that threadIdMap is Dictionary(int,ManualResetEvent), so locking object is instance of ManualResetEvent. I hope you now understad my question. Sorry for its largeness.

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• C# How to commit a TextBox?

  - by Jake

  Hi, In a form, I have a TextBox Binding an Object on its member property "Title". Along with it is a "Save" button to test the binding. Seems like the underlying object property does not get updated unless the textbox loses focus. But there no form.ActiveControl.Blur() for use. Besides, this does not seem like a sound hack. Anyway to do this better? Thanks. EDIT: Sorry for not being clear. My question is in the title: "How to commit a TextBox". I use the term "commit" from the DataGridView commit and BindingSource commit. And it's in WinForms. (Have never worked with WPF, so it didn't occur to me. Sorry). The actual scenario I have is I have a bunch of TextBox binded to property of a single Object. The user enters values in all the TextBox and when the user clicks save (toolbar button), the last TextBox is still in focus (or in editing mode) hence the save will not capture the last value in the last textbox. I want to find the correct way to "commit" the textbox value just before saving. Thanks.

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• A question on delegates and method parameters

  - by Srinivas Reddy Thatiparthy

  public class Program { delegate void Srini(string param); static void Main(string[] args) { Srini sr = new Srini(PrintHello1); sr += new Srini(PrintHello2); //case 2: sr += new Srini(delegate(string o) { Console.WriteLine(o); }); sr += new Srini(delegate(object o) { Console.WriteLine(o.ToString()); }); //case 4: sr += new Srini(delegate { Console.WriteLine(“This line is accepted,though the method signature is not Comp”); });//case 5 sr("Hello World"); Console.Read(); } static void PrintHello1(string param) { Console.WriteLine(param); } static void PrintHello2(object param) { Console.WriteLine(param); } } Compiler doesn't complain about the case 2(see the comment),well,the reason is straight forward since string inherits from object. ,along the same lines ,Why is it complaining for anonymous method types(see the comment //case 4:) that “Cannot convert anonymous method to delegate type 'DelegateTest.Program.Srini' because the parameter types do not match the delegate parameter types” where as in case of normal method it doesn't ?or am i comparing apples with oranges? Another case is why is it accepting anonymous method without parameters?

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• Javascript: I can get the text of a selection, now how do I get the text outside the selection?

  - by DavidR

  I have a bit of code that returns the text of a selection and I can assign that string to a variable, but now all I need are two variables, one for the text before the selection and one for the text after the selection. Here is the code for getting the selection: function findSelection(){ //returns the selection object. var userSelection; if (window.getSelection) {userSelection = window.getSelection();} // Mozilla Selection object. else if (document.selection){userSelection = document.selection.createRange();} //gets Microsoft Text Range, should be second b/c Opera has poor support for it. if (userSelection.text){return userSelection.text} //for Microsoft Objects. else {return userSelection} //For Mozilla Objects. } Then I find the anchorOffset and focusOffset to find the caret positions. I tried using these to modify a range object, like this: var range = document.createRange(); range.setStart(textdiv,0); range.setEnd(textdiv,5); Where textdiv is a variable holding the last div the user clicked on. The problem is firefox just gives me a "Security error" code: "1000" at the line range.setStart(textdiv,0);. Is there an easier way to go about doing this? I really just need the text and nothing more.

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• How to use reflection to call a method and pass parameters whose types are unknown at compile time?

  - by MandoMando

  I'd like to call methods of a class dynamically with parameter values that are "parsed" from a string input. For example: I'd like to call the following program with these commands: c:myprog.exe MethodA System.Int32 777 c:myprog.exe MethodA System.float 23.17 c:myprog.exe MethodB System.Int32& 777 c:myprog.exe MethodC System.Int32 777 System.String ThisCanBeDone static void Main(string[] args) { ClassA aa = new ClassA(); System.Type[] types = new Type[args.Length / 2]; object[] ParamArray = new object[types.Length]; for (int i=0; i < types.Length; i++) { types[i] = System.Type.GetType(args[i*2 + 1]); // LINE_X: this will obviously cause runtime error invalid type/casting ParamArray[i] = args[i*2 + 2]; MethodInfo callInfo = aa.GetType().GetMethod(args[0],types); callInfo.Invoke(aa, ParamArray); } // In a non-changeable classlib: public class ClassA { public void MethodA(int i) { Console.Write(i.ToString()); } public void MethodA(float f) { Console.Write(f.ToString()); } public void MethodB(ref int i) { Console.Write(i.ToString()); i++; } public void MethodC(int i, string s) { Console.Write(s + i.ToString()); } public void MethodA(object o) { Console.Write("Argg! Type Trapped!"); } } "LINE_X" in the above code is the sticky part. For one, I have no idea how to assign value to a int or a ref int parameter even after I create it using Activator.CreatInstance or something else. The typeConverter does come to mind, but then that requires an explicit compile type casting as well. Am I looking at CLR with JavaScript glasses or there is way to do this?

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• Flash/Flex sending XML to Rails App

  - by bdicasa

  I'm trying to send some XML to a rails app in Flex. I'm using the URLRequest and URLLoader objects. However, I'm having trouble determining how to send the XML and _method parameter to the rails app using these flash objects. Below is how I'm currently trying to achieve this. var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; request.data = new Object(); request.data.xml = Blog.xml.toXMLString(); request.contentType = "text/xml"; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, saveCompleteHandler); var saveUrl:String = ""; saveUrl = BASE_URL; if (Blog.isNewBlog) { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "POST"; saveUrl += "blogs.xml"; } else { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "PUT"; saveUrl += "blogs/" + Blog.id.toString() + ".xml"; } request.url = saveUrl; //trace(request.data.toString()); loader.load(request); However the only data that is getting sent to the server is [Object object]. If some one could let me know where I'm going wrong I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

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• Rails: link_to_remote prototype helper with :with option

  - by Syed Aslam

  I am trying to grab the current value of a drop down list with Prototype and passing it along using :with like this <%= link_to_remote "today", :update => "choices", :url => { :action => "check_availability" } , :with => "'practitioner='+$F('practitioner')&'clinic='+$F('clinic')&'when=today'", :loading => "spinner.show(); $('submit').disable();", :complete => "spinner.hide(); $('submit').enable();" %> However, this is not working as expected. I am unable to access parameters in the controller as the link_to_remote helper is sending parameters like this: Parameters: {"succ"=>"function () {\n return this + 1;\n}", "action"=>"check_availability", "round"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "ceil"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "floor"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "times"=>"function (iterator, context) {\n $R(0, this, true).each(iterator, context);\n return this;\n}", "toPaddedString"=>"function (length, radix) {\n var string = this.toString(radix || 10);\n return \"0\".times(length - string.length) + string;\n}", "toColorPart"=>"function () {\n return this.toPaddedString(2, 16);\n}", "abs"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "controller"=>"main"} Where am I going wrong? Is there a better way to do this?

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• If I select from an IQueryable then the Include is lost

  - by Connor Murphy

  The include does not work after I perform a select on the IQueryable query. Is there a way arround this? My query is public IQueryable<Network> GetAllNetworks() { var query = (from n in _db.NetworkSet .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Target") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Source") select (n)); return query;; } I then try to populate mya ViewModel in my WebUI layer using the following code var projectedNetworks = from n in GetAllNetworks() select new NetworkViewModel { Name = n.Name, Contacts = from contact in networkList .SelectMany(nc => nc.NetworkContacts) .Where(nc => nc.Member == true) .Where(nc => nc.NetworkId == n.ID) .Select(c => c.Contact) select contact, }; return projectedNetworks; The problem now occurs in my newly createdNetworkViewModel The Contacts object does include any loaded data for RelationshipSource.Target or RelationshipSource.Source The data should is there when run from the original Repository IQueryable object. However the related include data does not seem to get transferred into the new Contacts collection that is created from this IQueryable using the Select New {} code above. Is there a way to preserve this Include data when it gets passed into a new object?

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• Fast, very lightweight algorithm for camera motion detection?

  - by Ertebolle

  I'm working on an augmented reality app for iPhone that involves a very processor-intensive object recognition algorithm (pushing the CPU at 100% it can get through maybe 5 frames per second), and in an effort to both save battery power and make the whole thing less "jittery" I'm trying to come up with a way to only run that object recognizer when the user is actually moving the camera around. My first thought was to simply use the iPhone's accelerometers / gyroscope, but in testing I found that very often people would move the iPhone at a consistent enough attitude and velocity that there wouldn't be any way to tell that it was still in motion. So that left the option of analyzing the actual video feed and detecting movement in that. I got OpenCV working and tried running their pyramidal Lucas-Kanade optical flow algorithm, which works well but seems to be almost as processor-intensive as my object recognizer - I can get it to an acceptable framerate if I lower the depth levels / downsample the image / track fewer points, but then accuracy suffers and it starts to miss some large movements and trigger on small hand-shaking-y ones. So my question is, is there another optical flow algorithm that's faster than Lucas-Kanade if I just want to detect the overall magnitude of camera movement? I don't need to track individual objects, I don't even need to know which direction the camera is moving, all I really need is a way to feed something two frames of video and have it tell me how far apart they are.

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• sorting filtered data in asp.net listview

  - by user791345

  I've created a listview that's filled up with a list of guitars from the database on page load like so: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["GuitarsLTDBConnectionString"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM Guitars", con); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd.CommandText, con); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da.Fill(dt); lvGuitars.DataSource = dt; lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The following code filters that list of guitars by a certain Make when the user checks the checkbox corresponding to that make protected void chkOrgs_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); if (chkOrgs.SelectedValue == "Gibson") { dv.RowFilter = "Make = 'Gibson' OR Make='Fender'"; } lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } Now, what I want to do is be able to sort the latest data that is present within the listview. Meaning, if sort is clicked before filtering, the it should sort all data. If sort is clicked after filtering, it should sort the filtered data. I'm using the following code, which is triggered upon a LinkButton click protected void lnkSortResults_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); dv.Sort = "Make ASC"; lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The problem is that all the data that the listview was loaded with before any filtering is sorted, and not the latest filtered data. How can I change this code so that the latest data available in the listview is the one that's sorted? Thanks

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• KeyUp processed for wrong control

  - by Mikael

  I have made a simple test application for the issue, two winforms each containing a button. The button on the first form opens the other form when clicked. It also subscribes to keyup events. The second form has its button set as "AcceptButton" and in the Clicked event we sleep for 1s and then set DialogResult to true (the sleep is to simulate some processing done) When enter is used to close this second form the KeyUp event of the button on the first form is triggered, even though the key was released well before the second had passed so the second form was still shown and focused. If any key other then enter is pressed in the second form the event is not triggered for the button on the first form. First form: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); buttonForm2.KeyUp += new KeyEventHandler(cntKeyUp); } void cntKeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(e.KeyCode.ToString()); } private void buttonForm2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (Form2 f = new Form2()) { f.ShowDialog(); } } Second form: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(1000); this.DialogResult = DialogResult.OK; } Does anyone know why the event is triggered for the button on the non active form and what can be done to stop this from happening?

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