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• C#; On casting to the SAME class that came from another assembly

  - by G. Stoynev

  For complete separation/decoupling, I've implemented a DAL in an assebly that is simply being copied over via post-build event to the website BIN folder. The website then on Application Start loads that assembly via System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFile. Again, using reflection, I construct a couple of instances from classes in that assembly. I then store a reference to these instances in the session (HttpContext.Current.Items) Later, when I try to get the object stored in the session, I am not able to cast them to their own types (was trying interfaces initially, but for debugging tried to cast to THEIR OWN TYPES), getting this error: [A]DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder cannot be cast to [B] DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder. Type A originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'Default' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\ad6e8bff\70fa2384\assembly\dl3\aaf7a5b0\84f01b09_b10acb01\DAL_QSYSCamper.DLL'. Type B originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\Documents\Projects\QSYS\Deleteme\UI\MVCClient\bin\DAL_QSYSCa mper.DLL'. This is happening while debugging in VS - VS manages to stop into the source DAL project even though I've loaded from assembly and the project is not refferenced by the website project (they're both in the solution). I do understand the error, but I don't understand how and why the assembly is being used/loaded from two locations - I only load it once from the file and there's no referrence to the project. Should mention that I also use Windsor for DI. The object that tries to extract the object from the session is A) from a class from that DAL assembly; B) is injected into a website class by Windsor. I will work on adding some sample code to this question, but wanted to put it out in case it's obvious what I do wrong.

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• JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

  - by rattaman

  Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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• Multiple usage of MenuItems declared once (WPF)

  - by Alex Kofman

  Is it possible in WPF to define some menu structure and than use it in multiple contexts? For example I'd like to use a set of menu items from resources in ContextMenu, Window's menu and ToolBar (ToolBar with icons only, without headers). So items order, commands, icons, separators must be defined just once. I look for something like this: Declaration in resources: <MenuItem Command="MyCommands.CloneObject" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Clone"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Clone.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> <MenuItem Command="MyCommands.RemoveCommand" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Remove"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Remove.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> <Separator/> <MenuItem Command="MCommands.CreateChild" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Create child"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Child.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> Usage: <ToolBar MenuItems(?)="{Reference to set of items}" ShowText(?)="false" /> and <ContextMenu MenuItems(?)="{Reference to set of items}" />

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• IBM WESB/WAS JCA security configuration

  - by user594883

  I'm working with IBM tools. I have a Websphere ESB (WESB) and a CICS transaction gateway (CTG). The basic set-up is as follows: A SOAP service needs data from CICS. The SOAP-service is connecting to service bus (WESB) to handle data and protocol transformation and then WESB calls the CTG which in turn calls CICS and the reply is handled vice verse (synchronously). WESB calls the CTG using Resource Adapter and JCA connector (or CICS adapter as it is called in WESB). Now, I have all the pieces in place and working. My question is about the security, and even though I'm working with WESB, the answer is probably the same as in Websphere Application Server (WAS). The Resource Adaper is secured using JAAS - J2C authentication data. I have configured the security using J2C authentication data entry, so basically I have a reference in the application I'm running and at runtime the application does a lookup for the security attributes from the server. So basically I'm always accessing the CICS adapter with the same security reference. My problem is that I need to access the resource in more dynamic way in the future. The security cannot be welded into the application anymore but instead given as a parameter. Could some WESB or WAS guru help me out, how this could be done in WESB/WAS exactly?

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• Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

  - by Etan

  I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

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• Out of memory when creating a lot of objects C#

  - by Bas

  I'm processing 1 million records in my application, which I retrieve from a MySQL database. To do so I'm using Linq to get the records and use .Skip() and .Take() to process 250 records at a time. For each retrieved record I need to create 0 to 4 Items, which I then add to the database. So the average amount of total Items that has to be created is around 2 million. while (objects.Count != 0) { using (dataContext = new LinqToSqlContext(new DataContext())) { foreach (Object objectRecord in objects) { // Create a list of 0 - 4 Random Items and add each Item to the Object for (int i = 0; i < Random.Next(0, 4); i++) { Item item = new Item(); item.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); item.Object = objectRecord.Id; item.Created = DateTime.Now; item.Changed = DateTime.Now; dataContext.InsertOnSubmit(item); } } dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } amountToSkip += 250; objects = objectCollection.Skip(amountToSkip).Take(250).ToList(); } Now the problem arises when creating the Items. When running the application (and not even using dataContext) the memory increases consistently. It's like the items are never getting disposed. Does anyone notice what I'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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• A problem regarding dll inheritance

  - by Adam

  Hello all I have created a dll that will be used by multiple applications, and have created an installer package that installs it to the program files, as well as adds it to the Global Assembly Cache. The dll itself uses log4net, and requires a xml file for the logging definitions. Therefore when the installer is run, the following files get copied to the install directory within program files: The main dll that I developed - The Log4Net.dll - the Log4Net.xml file I am now experiencing a problem. I have created a test console application for experimentation. I have added my dll as a reference, and set the 'local copy' flag to false. When I compile the test console exe however, I noticed that it has copied the log4net.dll and log4net.xml files to the bin directory. And when running the test console, it appears that it will only work if the log4net.dll is in the same directory as the exe. This is dispite the fact that the test console application does not use log4net, only the dll that was added as a reference does. Is there some way to have it so that the log4net.dll & xml files used will be the ones that were installed to the program files, rather than any application needed to copy over local copies? The applications that will be using my dll will not be using log4net, only the dll that they are referencing uses it. Many thanks

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• getting a "default" concrete class that implements an interface

  - by Roger Joys

  I am implementing a custom (and generic) Json.net serializer and hit a bump in the road that I could use some help on. When the deserializer is mapping to a property that is an interface, how can I best determine what sort of object to construct to deserialize to to place into the interface property. I have the following: [JsonConverter(typeof(MyCustomSerializer<foo>))] class foo { int Int1 { get; set; } IList<string> StringList {get; set; } } My serializer properly serializes this object, and but when it comes back in, and I try to map the json parts to to object, I have a JArray and an interface. I am currently instantiating anything enumerable like List as theList = Activator.CreateInstance(property.PropertyType); This works create to work with in the deserialization process, but when the property is IList, I get runtime complaints (obviously) about not being able to instantiate an interface. So how would I know what type of concrete class to create in a case like this? Thank you

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• Combining two-part SQL query into one query

  - by user332523

  Hello, I have a SQL query that I'm currently solving by doing two queries. I am wondering if there is a way to do it in a single query that makes it more efficient. Consider two tables: Transaction_Entries table and Transactions, each one defined below: Transactions - id - reference_number (varchar) Transaction_Entries - id - account_id - transaction_id (references Transactions table) Notes: There are multiple transaction entries per transaction. Some transactions are related, and will have the same reference_number string. To get all transaction entries for Account X, then I would do SELECT E.*, T.reference_number FROM Transaction_Entries E JOIN Transactions T ON (E.transaction_id=T.id) where E.account_id = X The next part is the hard part. I want to find all related transactions, regardless of the account id. First I make a list of all the unique reference numbers I found in the previous result set. Then for each one, I can query all the transactions that have that reference number. Assume that I hold all the rows from the previous query in PreviousResultSet UniqueReferenceNumbers = GetUniqueReferenceNumbers(PreviousResultSet) // in Java foreach R in UniqueReferenceNumbers // in Java SELECT * FROM Transaction_Entries where transaction_id IN (SELECT * FROM Transactions WHERE reference_number=R Any suggestions how I can put this into a single efficient query?

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• asp.net Can I force every page to inherit from a base page? Also should some of this logic be in my master page?

  - by Bex

  Hi! I have a web app that has a base page. Each page needs to inherit from this base page as it contains properties they all need as well as dealing with the login rights. My base page has some properties, eg: IsRole1, IsRole2, currentUserID, Role1Allowed, Role2Allowed. On the init of each page I set the properties "Role1Allowed" and "Role2Allowed" Private Sub Page_Init(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Init Role1Allowed = True Role2Allowed= False End Sub The basepage then decides if the user needs redirecting. 'Sample code so not exactly what is going to be, bug gives the idea Protected Overridable Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) If Role1Allowed And Not Role1 Then 'Redirect somewhere End If End Sub The page then must override this pageload if they need anything else in it, but making sure they call the base pageload first. Protected Overrides Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load MyBase.Page_Load(sender, e) If Not IsPostBack Then BindGrid() End If End Sub The other properties (IsRole1, IsRole, currentUserID) are also accessible by the page so it can be decided if certain things need doing based on the user. (I hope this makes sense) Ok so I have 2 questions Should this functionality be in the base page or should it somehow be in the master, and if so how would I get access to all the properties if it was? As there are multiple people working on this project and creating pages some are forgetting to inherit from this basepage, or call the base pageload when overriding it. Is there any way to force them to do this? Thanks for any help. bex

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• Ember Data Sycn - LocalStorage+REST+RealTime+Online/Offline

  - by Miguel Madero

  We have a combination of requirements in terms o data access. Pre-load some reference data. We need reference data to survive browser restarts instead of just living in memory to avoid loading it all the time. I'm currently using the LocalStorageAdapter for that. Once we have it, we would like to sync changes (polling or using Socket.IO in the background and updating the LocalStorage could do the trick) There're other models that are more transactional, where we would need to directly go to the Server and get/save them. It would be nice to use something like the RESTAdapter for that. Lastly, there're some operations that should work off-line and changes should be synced later. To make it more concrete: * We pre-load vendor and "favorite products" into Local Storage. We work offline with those. * We need to sync server changes to vendor and product information. * If they search the full catalog, that requires them to be online. * When offline, we need to allow users to add something to their cart or even submit and order. We would like to queue this action and submit it when they have an Internet Connection. So a few questions are derived from this: * Is there a way to user RESTAdapter in combination with LocalStorage? * Is there some Socket.IO support? (Happy to do this part manually) * Is there Queueing support? Ideally at the Ember-Data level. I know we will have to do a lot of this manually and pull together the different lego pieces, but I wanted to ask for some perspective from experience Ember devs.

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• java: retrieving the "canonical value" from a Set<T> where T has a custom equals()

  - by Jason S

  I have a class Foo which overrides equals() and hashCode() properly. I would like to also would like to use a HashSet<Foo> to keep track of "canonical values" e.g. I have a class that I would like to write like this, so that if I have two separate objects that are equivalent I can coalesce them into references to the same object: class Canonicalizer<T> { final private Set<T> values = new HashSet<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { T canonical = this.values.get(value); if (canonical == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future this.values.add(value); return value; } else { return canonical; } } } except that Set doesn't have a "get" method that would return the actual value stored in the set, just the "contains" method that returns true or false. (I guess that it assumes that if you have an object that is equal to a separate object in the set, you don't need to retrieve the one in the set) Is there a convenient way to do this? The only other thing I can think of is to use a map and a list: class Canonicalizer<T> { // warning: neglects concurrency issues final private Map<T, Integer> valueIndex = new HashMap<T, Integer>(); final private List<T> values = new ArrayList<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { Integer i = this.valueIndex.get(value); if (i == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future i = this.values.size(); this.values.add(value); this.valueIndex.put(value, i); return value; } else { // in the set return this.values.get(i); } } }

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• Dynamically cast a control type in runtime

  - by JayT

  Hello, I have an application whereby I dynamically create controls on a form from a database. This works well, but my problem is the following: private Type activeControlType; private void addControl(ContainerControl inputControl, string ControlName, string Namespace, string ControlDisplayText, DataRow drow, string cntrlName) { Assembly assem; Type myType = Type.GetType(ControlName + ", " + Namespace); assem = Assembly.GetAssembly(myType); Type controlType = assem.GetType(ControlName); object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(controlType); Control tb = (Control)obj; tb.Click += new EventHandler(Cntrl_Click); inputControl.Controls.Add(tb); activeControlType = controlType; } private void Cntrl_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string test = ((activeControlType)sender).Text; //Problem ??? } How do I dynamically cast the sender object to a class that I can reference the property fields of it. I have googled, and found myself trying everything I have come across..... Now I am extremely confused... and in need of some help Thnx JT

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• How can I invoke a .Net DLL from a LabView 6.1 VI?

  - by tw1k

  I work in a manufacturing company that uses LabView for testing the devices we make. Most of the test engineers are using 7.1 which can natively reference a .Net assembly. However, there is a group that is stuck on LabView 6.1. I would like for them to be able to use my .Net assembly which is basically a proxy to some web services. I have created a test assembly that is nothing more than Hello World, and I'm trying to consume it in a VI. I made it COM visible, and registered it with regasm.exe and created a type library, which I'm not sure I need. I can see it in Visual Studio in the list of COM objects when I open the Add Reference window, so I know it's registered properly. I'm very unfamiliar with VI's. I'm only looking at it because no one I have spoken to in manufacturing knows anything about invoking a COM object in a VI. I'm basically looking for some names of controls or menu options to get the test engineers pointed in the right direction. I did a bunch of web searching on Google and the NI forums, but didn't find much. Alternatively, would it be easier to write a C or C++ DLL that acts as a proxy to my .Net DLL? Or is there a simple way to invoke a web service from a VI? That might obviate the need for a DLL altogether. I'm currently reading through this document from NI for help, but it obviously knows nothing about .Net and might not be able to help me choose the best path forward.

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• Preventing ActiveRecord save() on an instance

  - by Craig Walker

  I have an ActiveRecord model object Foo; it represents a standard database row. I want to be able to display modified versions of instances of this object. I'd like to reuse the class itself, as it already has all the hooks & aspects I'll need. (For example: I already have a view that displays the appropriate attributes). Basically I want to clone the model instance, modify some of its properties, and feed it back to the caller (view, test, etc). I do not want these attribute modifications getting back into the database. However, I do want to include the id attribute in the cloned version, as it makes dealing with the route-helpers much easier. Thus, I plan on calling ActiveRecord::Base.clone(), manually setting the ID of the cloned instance, and then making the appropriate attribute changes to the new instance. This has me worried though; one save() on the modified instance and my original data will get clobbered. So, I'm looking to lock down the new instance so that it won't hurt anything else. I'm already planning on calling freeze() (on the understanding that this prevents further modification to the object, though the documentation isn't terribly clear). However, I don't see any obvious way to prevent a save(). What would be the best approach to achieving this?

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• How can I intercept an exception occurred during serialization in WCF?

  - by bonomo

  I have a legit data object with all data contract / data member attributes. For some reason the WCF service crashes after the operation has completed and the result is passed as a return value. I believe it has something to do with WCF not being able to serialize that result properly. The test client doesn't say anything specific: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.RequestChannel.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.RequestChannelBinder.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at IFacade.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) at FacadeClient.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) Inner Exception: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I am in control of creating the instance of the service using a customized service host factory. I know I can set up trace listeners and check the logs, but it's a lot of hassle to do. So I would rather handle it explicitly on the server at the time it happens. So I how can I intercept that exception programmatically and return an appropriate fault meassage?

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• webpart context.session is null

  - by tbischel

  I've been using the session array to store a state variable for my webpart... so I have a property like this: public INode RootNode { get { return this.Context.Session["RootNode"] as INode; } set { this.Context.Session["RootNode"] = value as object; } } This usually works fine. I've discovered that sometimes, the context.session variable will be null. I'd like to know what are the conditions that cause the session to be null in the first place, and whats the best way to persist my object when this happens? Can I just assign a new HttpSessionState object to the context, or does that screw things up? Edit: Ok, so its not just the session that is null... the whole context is screwed up. When the webpart enters the init, the context is fine... but when it reaches the dropbox selectedindexchange postback event (the dropbox contains node id's to use to set the rootnode variable), the context contains mostly null properties. also, it only seems to happen when certain id's are selected. This looks more like some kind of weird bug on my end than a problem with my understanding of the session.

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• XML Decryption Bug (referencing issue)

  - by OrangePekoe

  Hi, Needing some explanation of what exactly the decryption is doing, in addition to some help on solving the problem. Currently, when a portion of XML is encrypted, and then decrypted, the DOM appears to work correctly. We can see the element is encrypted and then see it return back once it is decrypted. Our problem lies when a user tries to change data in that same element after decryption has occurred. When a user changes some settings, data in the XML should change. However, if the user attempts to change an XML element that has been decrypted the changes are not reflected in the DOM. We have a reference pointer to the XML element that is used to bind the element to an object. If you encrypt the node and then decrypt it, the reference pointer now points to a valid orphaned XML element that is no longer part of the DOM. After decryption, there will be 2 copies of the XML element. One in the DOM as expected (though will not reflect new changes), and one orphaned element in memory that is still referenced by our pointer. The orphaned element is valid (reflects new changes). We can see that this orphaned element is owned by the DOM, but when we try to return its parent, it returns null. The question is: Where did this orphaned xml element come from? And how can we get it to correctly append (replace old data) to the DOM? The code resembles: public static void Decrypt(XmlDocument Doc, SymmetricAlgorithm Alg) { if (Doc == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Doc"); if (Alg == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Alg"); XmlElement encryptedElement = Doc.GetElementsByTagName("EncryptedData")[0] as XmlElement; if (encryptedElement == null) { throw new XmlException("The EncryptedData element was not found."); } EncryptedData edElement = new EncryptedData(); edElement.LoadXml(encryptedElement); EncryptedXml exml = new EncryptedXml(); byte[] rgbOutput = exml.DecryptData(edElement, Alg); exml.ReplaceData(encryptedElement, rgbOutput); }

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• CodeIgniter: problem using foreach in view

  - by krike

  I have a model and controller who gets some data from my database and returns the following array Array ( [2010] => Array ( [year] => 2010 [months] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [sales] => 2 [month] => Apr ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [sales] => 1 [month] => Nov ) ) ) [2011] => Array ( [year] => 2011 [months] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [sales] => 1 [month] => Nov ) ) ) ) It shows exactly what it should show but the key's have different names so I have no idea on how to loop through the years using foreach in my view. Arrays is something I'm not that good at yet :( this is the controller if you need to know: function analytics() { $this->load->model('admin_model'); $analytics = $this->admin_model->Analytics(); foreach ($analytics as $a): $data[$a->year]['year'] = $a->year; $data[$a->year]['months'] = $this->admin_model->AnalyticsMonth($a->year); endforeach; echo"<pre style='text-align:left;'>"; print_r($data); echo"</pre>"; $data['main_content'] = 'analytics'; $this->load->view('template_admin', $data); }//end of function categories()

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• How to mock a String using mockito?

  - by Alceu Costa

  I need to simulate a test scenario in which I call the getBytes() method of a String object and I get an UnsupportedEncodingException. I have tried to achieve that using the following code: String nonEncodedString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); The problem is that when I run my test case I get a MockitoException that says that I can't mock a java.lang.String class. Is there a way to mock a String object using mockito or, alternatively, a way to make my String object throw an UnsupportedEncodingException when I call the getBytes method? Here are more details to illustrate the problem: This is the class that I want to test: public final class A{ public static String f(String str){ try{ return new String(str.getBytes("UTF-8")); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { // This is the catch block that I want to exercise. ... } } } This is my testing class (I'm using JUnit 4 and mockito): public class TestA { @Test(expected=UnsupportedEncodingException.class) public void test(){ String aString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); A.f(aString); } }

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• Re-add missing project without having to re-add it to all projects referencing it

  - by coffeeaddict

  Lets say you open a .NET solution (mine being VS 2010) after you just moved your entire folder to some new location locally. Now one of the projects that was being referenced in that solution is not there and so when you launch VS, it naturally tells you that the project is missing and therefore as always you see the project greyed out in Solution Explorer. Ok, well I can't go re-add that project (specify a different path for where that project lives) unless I remove the missing project reference and then try to re-add it back to the solution. But how can I reassociate a project without losing all references in other projects that were referencing that missing project? Is this possible? Otherwise every time I re-add that missing project, I end up having to go through about 8 projects of mine that are referencing it and re-reference it for each one of those projects which is tedious. I guess it makes sense since each project was referencing that missing project at that old path so it would break it there as well but is there an easier way to re-associate a project and references to that missing project without having to take 10 minutes every time to re-associate it all over the place if simply the path has changed?

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• Get more error information from unhandled error

  - by Andrew Simpson

  I am using C# in a desktop application. I am calling a DLL written in C that I do not have the source code for. Whenever I call this DLL I get an untrapped error which I trap in an UnhandledException event/delegate. The error is : object reference not set to an instance of an object But the stack trace is empty. When I Googled this the info back was that the error was being hanlded eleswhere and then rethrown. But this can only be in the DLL I do not have the source code for. So, is there anyway I can get more info about this error? This is my code... in program.cs... AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); static void CurrentDomain_UnhandledException(object sender, UnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { try { Exception _ex = (Exception)e.ExceptionObject; //the stact trace property is empty here.. } finally { Application.Exit(); } } My DLL... [DllImport("AutoSearchDevice.dll", EntryPoint = "Start", ExactSpelling = false, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern int Start(int ASD_HANDLE); An I call it like so: public static void AutoSearchStart() { try { Start(m_pASD); } catch (Exception ex) { } }

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• Where are the network boundaries in the Java Connector Architecture (JCA)?

  - by Laird Nelson

  I am writing a JCA resource adapter. I'm also, as I go, trying to fully understand the connection management portion of the JCA specification. As a thought experiment, pretend that the only client of this adapter will be a Swing Java Application Client located on a different machine. Also assume that the resource adapter will communicate with its "enterprise information system" (EIS) over the network as well. As I understand the JCA specification, the .rar file is deployed to the application server. The application server creates the .rar file's implementation of the ManagedConnectionFactory interface. It then asks it to produce a connection factory, which is the opaque object that is deployed to JNDI for the user to use to obtain a connection to the resource. (In the case of JDBC, the connection factory is a javax.sql.DataSource.) It is a requirement that the connection factory retain a reference to the application-server-supplied ConnectionManager, which, in turn, is required to be Serializable. This makes sense--in order for the connection factory to be stored in JNDI, it must be serializable, and in order for it to keep a reference to the ConnectionManager, the ConnectionManager must also be serializable. So fine, this little object graph gets installed in the application client's JNDI tree. This is where I start to get queasy. Is the ConnectionManager--the piece supplied by the application server that is supposed to handle connection management, sharing, pooling, etc.--wholly present on the client at this point? One of its jobs is to create ManagedConnection instances, and a ManagedConnection is not required to be Serializable, and the user connection handles it vends are also not required to be Serializable. That suggests to me that the whole connection pooling machinery is shipped wholesale to the application client and stuffed into its JNDI tree. Does this all mean that JCA interactions from the client side bypass the server-side componentry of the application server? Where are the network boundaries in the JCA API?

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• Class Generics break completely seperate method

  - by TheLQ

  I found a strange problem when I used class Generics Today: Setting some broke a completely separate method. Here's a small example class that illustrates the problem. This code works just fine public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) return; } } Now as soon as I use class Generics, the getListeners() method returns Set<Object> instead of Set<Listener> public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest<E extends Object> { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) //Expected Listener, not Object return; } } What would cause this error? The ##java channel on Freenode said it was because of compile time candy and that I was using a raw type. But how would an raw class type break all generics in the class? And how would of worked before?

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• sqlalchemy dynamic mapping

  - by adancu

  Hi, I have the following problem: I have the class: class Word(object): def __init__(self): self.id = None self.columns = {} def __str__(self): return "(%s, %s)" % (str(self.id), str(self.columns)) self.columns is a dict which will hold (columnName:columnValue) values. The name of the columns are known at runtime and they are loaded in a wordColumns list, for example wordColumns = ['english', 'korean', 'romanian'] wordTable = Table('word', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key = True) ) for columnName in wordColumns: wordTable.append_column(Column(columnName, String(255), nullable = False)) I even created a explicit mapper properties to "force" the table columns to be mapped on word.columns[columnName], instead of word.columnName, I don't get any error on mapping, but it seems that doesn't work. mapperProperties = {} for column in wordColumns: mapperProperties['columns[\'%']' % column] = wordTable.columns[column] mapper(Word, wordTable, mapperProperties) When I load a word object, SQLAlchemy creates an object which has the word.columns['english'], word.columns['korean'] etc. properties instead of loading them into word.columns dict. So for each column, it creates a new property. Moreover word.columns dictionary doesn't even exists. The same way, when I try to persist a word, SQLAlchemy expects to find the column values in properties named like word.columns['english'] (string type) instead of the dictionary word.columns. I have to say that my experience with Python and SQLAlchemy is quite limited, maybe it isn't possible to do what I'm trying to do. Any help appreciated, Thanks in advance.

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