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  • Need a refresher course on property access...

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I need help with accessing class properties within a given class. For example, take the below class: public partial class Account { private Profile _profile; private Email _email; private HostInfo _hostInfo; public Profile Profile { get { return _profile; } set { _profile = value; } } public Email Email { get { return _email; } set { _email = value; } } public HostInfo HostInfo { get { return _hostInfo; } set { _hostInfo = value; } } In the class "Account" exists a bunch of class properties such as Email or Profile. Now, when I want to access those properties at run-time, I do something like this (for Email): _accountRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IAccountRepository>(); string username = Cryptography.Decrypt(_webContext.UserNameToVerify, "verify"); Account account = _accountRepository.GetAccountByUserName(username); if(account != null) { account.Email.IsConfirmed = true; But, I get "Object reference not set..." for account.Email... Why is that? How do I access Account such that account.Email, account.Profile, and so on returns the correct data for a given AccountId or UserName. Here is a method that returns Account: public Account GetAccountByUserName(string userName) { Account account = null; using (MyDataContext dc = _conn.GetContext()) { try { account = (from a in dc.Accounts where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); } catch { //oops } } return account; } The above works but when I try: account = (from a in dc.Accounts join em in dc.Emails on a.AccountId equals em.AccountId join p in dc.Profiles on em.AccountId equals p.AccountId where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); I am still getting object reference exceptions for my Email and Profile properties. Is this simply a SQL problem or is there something else I need to be doing to be able to fully access all the properties within my Account class? Thanks!

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  • WCF service not working after program update

    - by Boesj
    I have recently added a WCF service reference to my program. When I perform a clean install of this program, everything seems to work as expected. But, when I install the program on a client which already has a previous version (without the new service reference) installed, I get a exception telling me the default endpoint for this particular service could not be found. It seems that the appname.exe.config is not being updated with the new endpoint settings. Is there any reason for this and how can I force the installer to overwrite the config file? I'm using the default Visual Studio 2008 installer project with RemovePreviousVersions set to True. Update: My program encrypts the settings section after the first run with the following code Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); ConfigurationSection section = config.GetSection(sectionKey); if (section != null) { if (!section.SectionInformation.IsProtected) { if (!section.ElementInformation.IsLocked) { section.SectionInformation.ProtectSection("DataProtectionConfigurationProvider"); section.SectionInformation.ForceSave = true; config.Save(ConfigurationSaveMode.Full); } } } When I do not run the program before installing the new version the app.config gets updated.

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • friend declaration in C++

    - by Happy Mittal
    In Thinking in C++ by Bruce eckel, there is an example given regarding friend functions as // Declaration (incomplete type specification): struct X; struct Y { void f(X*); }; struct X { // Definition private: int i; public: friend void Y::f(X*); // Struct member friend }; void Y::f(X* x) { x->i = 47; } Now he explained this: Notice that Y::f(X*) takes the address of an X object. This is critical because the compiler always knows how to pass an address, which is of a fixed size regardless of the object being passed, even if it doesn’t have full information about the size of the type. If you try to pass the whole object, however, the compiler must see the entire structure definition of X, to know the size and how to pass it, before it allows you to declare a function such as Y::g(X). But when I tried void f(X); as declaration in struct Y, it shows no error. Please explain why?

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  • F# How to tokenise user input: separating numbers, units, words?

    - by David White
    I am fairly new to F#, but have spent the last few weeks reading reference materials. I wish to process a user-supplied input string, identifying and separating the constituent elements. For example, for this input: XYZ Hotel: 6 nights at 220EUR / night plus 17.5% tax the output should resemble something like a list of tuples: [ ("XYZ", Word); ("Hotel:", Word); ("6", Number); ("nights", Word); ("at", Operator); ("220", Number); ("EUR", CurrencyCode); ("/", Operator); ("night", Word); ("plus", Operator); ("17.5", Number); ("%", PerCent); ("tax", Word) ] Since I'm dealing with user input, it could be anything. Thus, expecting users to comply with a grammar is out of the question. I want to identify the numbers (could be integers, floats, negative...), the units of measure (optional, but could include SI or Imperial physical units, currency codes, counts such as "night/s" in my example), mathematical operators (as math symbols or as words including "at" "per", "of", "discount", etc), and all other words. I have the impression that I should use active pattern matching -- is that correct? -- but I'm not exactly sure how to start. Any pointers to appropriate reference material or similar examples would be great.

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  • Hibernate: fetching multiple bags efficiently

    - by Jens Jansson
    Hi! I'm developing a multilingual application. For this reason many objects have in their name and description fields collections of something I call LocalizedStrings instead of plain strings. Every LocalizedString is basically a pair of a locale and a string localized to that locale. Let's take an example an entity, let's say a book -object. public class Book{ @OneToMany private List<LocalizedString> names; @OneToMany private List<LocalizedString> description; //and so on... } When a user asks for a list of books, it does a query to get all the books, fetches the name and description of every book in the locale the user has selected to run the app in, and displays it back to the user. This works but it is a major performance issue. For the moment hibernate makes one query to fetch all the books, and after that it goes through every single object and asks hibernate for the localized strings for that specific object, resulting in a "n+1 select problem". Fetching a list of 50 entities produces about 6000 rows of sql commands in my server log. I tried making the collections eager but that lead me to the "cannot simultaneously fetch multiple bags"-issue. Then I tried setting the fetch strategy on the collections to subselect, hoping that it would do one query for all books, and after that do one query that fetches all LocalizedStrings for all the books. Subselects didn't work in this case how i would have hoped and it basically just did exactly the same as my first case. I'm starting to run out of ideas on how to optimize this. So in short, what fetching strategy alternatives are there when you are fetching a collection and every element in that collection has one or multiple collections in itself, which has to be fetch simultaneously.

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  • CXF code first service, WSDL generation; soap:address changes?

    - by jcalvert
    I have a simple Java interface/implementation I am exposing via CXF. I have a jaxws element in my Spring configuration file like this: <jaxws:endpoint id="managementServiceJaxws" implementor="#managementService" address="/jaxws/ManagementService" > </jaxws:endpoint> It generates the WSDL from my annotated interface and exposes the service. Then when I hit http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService?wsdl I get a lovely WSDL. At the bottom in the wsdl:service element, I'll see <soap:address location="http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService"/> However, some time a day or so later, with no application restart, hitting that same url produces: This causes a number of problems, but what I really want is to fix it. Right now, there's a particular client to the webservice that sets the endpoint to localhost; because it runs on the same machine. Is it possible the wsdl is getting regenerated and cached and then exposing the 'localhost' version? In part I don't know the exact mechanism by which one goes from a ?wsdl request in CXF to the response. It seems almost certain that it's retrieving some cached version, given that it's supposed to be determining the address by asking the servletcontainer (Jetty). For reference I know a stopgap solution is using the hostname on the client and making sure an alias in place so that it goes over the loopback. EDIT: For reference, I confirmed that if I bring my application up and first hit it over localhost, then querying for the wsdl via the hostname shows the address as localhost. Conversely, first hitting it over the hostname causes localhost requests to show the hostname. So obviously something is getting cached here.

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  • how to bind a list to a dropdown list in gridview

    - by user3721173
    I have a GridView that it contain a Drop-down list.I have a list that wanna to bind this list to drop-down in gridview. <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False"OnSelectedIndexChanged="GridView1_SelectedIndexChanged" OnRowDataBound="GridView1_RowDataBound"> <Columns> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList3" runat="server" AppendDataBoundItems="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="DropDownList3_SelectedIndexChanged1" > </asp:DropDownList> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> and protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { DropDownList dropdown = (DropDownList)e.Row.FindControl("DropDownList3"); ClassDal obj = new ClassDal(); List<phone> list = obj.GetAll(); dropdown.DataTextField = "phone"; dropdown.DataValueField = "id"; dropdown.DataSource = list.ToList(); dropdown.DataBind(); } and namespace sample_table { public class ClassDal { public List<phone> GetAll() { using (PracticeDBEntities1 context = new PracticeDBEntities1()) { return context.phone.ToList(); } } } } but i received this exception :Object reference not set to an instance of an object on the row: dropdown.DataTextField = "phone";

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  • Should a C++ constructor do real work?

    - by Wade Williams
    I'm strugging with some advice I have in the back of my mind but for which I can't remember the reasoning. I seem to remember at some point reading some advice (can't remember the source) that C++ constructors should not do real work. Rather, they should initialize variables only. The advice when on to explain that real work should be done in some sort of init() method, to be called separately after the instance was created. The situation is I have a class that represents a hardware device. It makes logical sense to me for the constructor to call the routines that query the device in order to build up the instance variables that describe the device. In other words, once new instantiates the object, the developer receives an object which is ready to be used, no separate call to object-init() required. Is there a good reason why constructors shouldn't do real work? Obviously it could slow allocation time, but that wouldn't be any different if calling a separate method immediately after allocation. Just trying to figure out what gotchas I not currently considering that might have lead to such advice.

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  • Python: why can't descriptors be instance variables?

    - by Continuation
    Say I define this descriptor: class MyDescriptor(object): def __get__(self, instance, owner): return self._value def __set__(self, instance, value): self._value = value def __delete__(self, instance): del(self._value) And I use it in this: class MyClass1(object): value = MyDescriptor() >>> m1 = MyClass1() >>> m1.value = 1 >>> m2 = MyClass1() >>> m2.value = 2 >>> m1.value 2 So value is a class attribute and is shared by all instances. Now if I define this: class MyClass2(object) value = 1 >>> y1 = MyClass2() >>> y1.value=1 >>> y2 = MyClass2() >>> y2.value=2 >>> y1.value 1 In this case value is an instance attribute and is not shared by the instances. Why is it that when value is a descriptor it can only be a class attribute, but when value is a simple integer it becomes an instance attribute?

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  • c# template member functions

    - by user3730583
    How can I define a template member function in C# For instance I will fill any collection which supports an Add(...) member function, please check out the sample code below public class CInternalCollection { public static void ExternalCollectionTryOne<T<int>>(ref T<int> ext_col, int para_selection = 0) { foreach (int int_value in m_int_col) { if (int_value > para_selection) ext_col.Add(int_value); } } public static void ExternalCollectionTryTwo<T>(ref T ext_col, int para_selection = 0) { foreach (int int_value in m_int_col) { if (int_value > para_selection) ext_col.Add(int_value); } } static int[] m_int_col = { 0, -1, -3, 5, 7, -8 }; } The ExternalCollectionTryOne<...(...) would be the preferred kind, because the int type can be explicit defined, but results in an error: Type parameter declaration must be an identifier not a type The type or namespace name 'T' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) The ExternalCollectionTryTwo<...(...) results in an error: 'T' does not contain a definition for 'Add' and no extension method 'Add' accepting a first argument of type 'T' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)... I hope the problem is clear – any suggestions? ----------------------------- edit -------------------------- The answers with the interface ICollection<.. without a template member works fine and thanks all for this hint, but I still cannot define successfully a member template(generic) function So a more simpler example ... how can I define this public class CAddCollectionValues { public static void AddInt<T>(ref T number, int selection) { T new_T = new T(); //this line is just an easy demonstration to get a compile error with type T foreach (int i_value in m_int_col) { if (i_value > selection) number += i_value; //again the type T cannot be used } } static int[] m_int_col = { 0, -1, -3, 5, 7, -8 }; }

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  • Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

    - by Randolpho
    The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

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  • Random number generation in MVC applications

    - by SlimShaggy
    What is the correct way of generating random numbers in an ASP.NET MVC application if I need exactly one number per request? According to MSDN, in order to get randomness of sufficient quality, it is necessary to generate multiple numbers using a single System.Random object, created once. Since a new instance of a controller class is created for each request in MVC, I cannot use a private field initialized in the controller's constructor for the Random object. So in what part of the MVC app should I create and store the Random object? Currently I store it in a static field of the controller class and lazily initialize it in the action method that uses it: public class HomeController : Controller { ... private static Random random; ... public ActionResult Download() { ... if (random == null) random = new Random(); ... } } Since the "random" field can be accessed by multiple instances of the controller class, is it possible for its value to become corrupted if two instances attempt to initialize it simultaneously? And one more question: I know that the lifetime of statics is the lifetime of the application, but in case of an MVC app what is it? Is it from IIS startup till IIS shutdown?

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  • Java and Jasper

    - by bhargava
    Hey Guys, I have integrated Jasper Reports on my netbeans platform and i am able to generate reports using the following code. Map<String, Object> params = new HashMap<String, Object>(); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection("databaseUrl", "userid","password"); JasperReport jasperReport = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportSource); JasperPrint jasperPrint = JasperFillManager.fillReport(jasperReport, params, conn); JasperExportManager.exportReportToHtmlFile(jasperPrint, reportDest); JasperViewer.viewReport(jasperPrint); This stuff works perfect. But not i am trying to integrate Jasper with GWT.I have my server as glass fish server. I am getting the Connection object using the followind code. public static Connection getConnection() { try { String JNDI = "JNDI name"; InitialContext initCtx = new InitialContext(); javax.sql.DataSource ds = (javax.sql.DataSource) initCtx.lookup(JNDI); Connection conn = (Connection) ds.getConnection(); return conn; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } return null; } and then Map params = new HashMap(); JasperReport jasperReport = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportSource); JasperPrint jasperPrint = JasperFillManager.fillReport(jasperReport, params, getConnection()); JasperExportManager.exportReportToHtmlFile(jasperPrint, reportDest); JasperViewer.viewReport(jasperPrint); but i always get Error.I am implementing this on Server.I am having RPC calls to get this method to work when a button is clicked. Can you please help me how to work on this.(That is to integrate Jasper reports with GWT). I would highly appreciate any explanation with some code as i am just a beginner. Thanks

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  • JQuery modal box form validation

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I was using a view to create an object for my specific project, but now I have to adapt this to another requirements, such as the creation of this object must be integrated in the creation of another one. The thing is, that this object must be created before starting to create the other one, and the way of doing it will be poping up a modal dialog box with JQuery with the form to create it. I've got to adapt the creation and it works fine, except for the validation messages. It is made in the controller like : if (not.NotName.Trim().Length == 0) { ModelState.AddModelError("NotName", "Name is required"); } if (_notification.checkIfExists(not.NotName, not.NotRecID)) { ModelState.AddModelError("NotName", "Notification already exists"); } And before with a normal view it worked fine, but now I'm not able to get the validation messages as I did. How can you get this validation messages thrown by the controller in the Modal Box? Because now when I made a mistake on purpose in the form in order to get the error it doesn't appear. I've seen the error is displayed in the site, because I've seen it on firebug, but it doesn't appear in my model box. How can I retrieve this errors? Do you know any tutorial that could help me with this? Thank you

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  • Strange behaviour of DataTable with DataGridView

    - by Paul
    Please explain me what is happening. I have created a WinForms .NET application which has DataGridView on a form and should update database when DataGridView inline editing is used. Form has SqlDataAdapter _da with four SqlCommands bound to it. DataGridView is bound directly to DataTable _names. Such a CellValueChanged handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { _da.Update(_names); } does not update database state although _names DataTable is updated. All the rows of _names have RowState == DataRowState.Unchanged Ok, I modified the handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); _da.Update(_names); } this variant really writes modified cell to database, but when I attempt to insert new row into grid, I get an error about an absence of row with index e.RowIndex So, I decided to improve the handler further: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { if (_names.Rows.Count<e.RowIndex) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); } else { DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = dataGridView1["NameText", e.RowIndex].Value; _names.Rows.Add(row); } _da.Update(_names); } Now the really strange things happen when I insert new row to grid: the grid remains what it was until _names.Rows.Add(row); After this line THREE rows are inserted into table - two rows with the same value and one with Null value. The slightly modified code: DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = "--------------" _names.Rows.Add(row); inserts three rows with three different values: one as entered into the grid, the second with "--------------" value and third - with Null value. I really got stuck in guessing what is happening.

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  • do the Python libraries have a natural dependence on the global namespace?

    - by msw
    I first ran into this when trying to determine the relative performance of two generators: t = timeit.repeat('g.get()', setup='g = my_generator()') So I dug into the timeit module and found that the setup and statement are evaluated with their own private, initially empty namespaces so naturally the binding of g never becomes accessible to the g.get() statement. The obvious solution is to wrap them into a class, thus adding to the global namespace. I bumped into this again when attempting, in another project, to use the multiprocessing module to divide a task among workers. I even bundled everything nicely into a class but unfortunately the call pool.apply_async(runmc, arg) fails with a PicklingError because buried inside the work object that runmc instantiates is (effectively) an assignment: self.predicate = lambda x, y: x > y so the whole object can't be (understandably) pickled and whereas: def foo(x, y): return x > y pickle.dumps(foo) is fine, the sequence bar = lambda x, y: x > y yields True from callable(bar) and from type(bar), but it Can't pickle <function <lambda> at 0xb759b764>: it's not found as __main__.<lambda>. I've given only code fragments because I can easily fix these cases by merely pulling them out into module or object level defs. The bug here appears to be in my understanding of the semantics of namespace use in general. If the nature of the language requires that I create more def statements I'll happily do so; I fear that I'm missing an essential concept though. Why is there such a strong reliance on the global namespace? Or, what am I failing to understand? Namespaces are one honking great idea -- let's do more of those!

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  • Where are the network boundaries in the Java Connector Architecture (JCA)?

    - by Laird Nelson
    I am writing a JCA resource adapter. I'm also, as I go, trying to fully understand the connection management portion of the JCA specification. As a thought experiment, pretend that the only client of this adapter will be a Swing Java Application Client located on a different machine. Also assume that the resource adapter will communicate with its "enterprise information system" (EIS) over the network as well. As I understand the JCA specification, the .rar file is deployed to the application server. The application server creates the .rar file's implementation of the ManagedConnectionFactory interface. It then asks it to produce a connection factory, which is the opaque object that is deployed to JNDI for the user to use to obtain a connection to the resource. (In the case of JDBC, the connection factory is a javax.sql.DataSource.) It is a requirement that the connection factory retain a reference to the application-server-supplied ConnectionManager, which, in turn, is required to be Serializable. This makes sense--in order for the connection factory to be stored in JNDI, it must be serializable, and in order for it to keep a reference to the ConnectionManager, the ConnectionManager must also be serializable. So fine, this little object graph gets installed in the application client's JNDI tree. This is where I start to get queasy. Is the ConnectionManager--the piece supplied by the application server that is supposed to handle connection management, sharing, pooling, etc.--wholly present on the client at this point? One of its jobs is to create ManagedConnection instances, and a ManagedConnection is not required to be Serializable, and the user connection handles it vends are also not required to be Serializable. That suggests to me that the whole connection pooling machinery is shipped wholesale to the application client and stuffed into its JNDI tree. Does this all mean that JCA interactions from the client side bypass the server-side componentry of the application server? Where are the network boundaries in the JCA API?

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • Run code before class instanciation in ActionScript 3

    - by soow.fr
    I need to run code in a class declaration before its instanciation. This would be especially useful to automatically register classes in a factory. See: // Main.as public class Main extends Sprite { public function Main() : void { var o : Object = Factory.make(42); } } // Factory.as public class Factory { private static var _factory : Array = new Array(); public static function registerClass(id : uint, c : Class) : void { _factory[id] = function () : Object { return new c(); }; } public static function make(id : uint) : Object { return _factory[id](); } } // Foo.as public class Foo { // Run this code before instanciating Foo! Factory.registerClass(42, Foo); } AFAIK, the JIT machine for the ActionScript language won't let me do that since no reference to Foo is made in the Main method. The Foo class being generated, I can't (and don't want to) register the classes in Main: I'd like to register all the exported classes in a specific package (or library). Ideally, this would be done through package introspection, which doesn't exist in ActionScript 3. Do you know any fix (or other solution) to my design issue?

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • Problem with moving a winform using C#

    - by karthik
    My form doesn't have a title bar, so I am implementing the code to drag the entire form around the screen. I am using the below code to do it, which works fine. I have two panels in my form, PanelA and PanelB. During the startup I show PanelA where the dragging works perfectly. Later when the user clicks the button in PanelA, I need to make PanelA invisible and show PanelB However, the dragging does not work when PanelB is shown. What's the problem here? private void SerialPortScanner_MouseUp(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = false; } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = true; this.start_point = new Point(e.X, e.Y); } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (this.drag) { Point p1 = new Point(e.X, e.Y); Point p2 = this.PointToScreen(p1); Point p3 = new Point(p2.X - this.start_point.X, p2.Y - this.start_point.Y); this.Location = p3; } }

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  • Link Button on asp.net user control not firing

    - by andyriome
    Hi I have a user control, which is added to another user control. The nested user control is built up of a gridview, an image button and a link button. The nested user control is added to the outer control as a collection object based upon the results bound to the gridview. The problem that I have is that my link button doesn't work. I click on it and the event doesn't fire. Even adding a break point was not reached. As the nested user control is added a number of times, I have set image button to have unique ids and also the link button. Whilst image button works correctly with its java script. The link button needs to fire an event in the code behind, but despite all my efforts, I can't make it work. I am adding the link button to the control dynamically. Below is the relevant code that I am using: public partial class ucCustomerDetails : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected override void CreateChildControls( ) { base.CreateChildControls( ); string strUniqueID = lnkShowAllCust.UniqueID; strUniqueID = strUniqueID.Replace('$','_'); this.lnkShowAllCust.ID = strUniqueID; this.lnkShowAllCust.Click += new EventHandler(this.lnkShowAllCust_Click); this.Controls.Add(lnkShowAllCust); } protected override void OnInit (EventArgs e) { CreateChildControls( ); base.OnInit(e); } protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.EnsureChildControls( ); } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (IsPostBack) { CreateChildControls( ); } } protected void lnkShowAllCust_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.OnCustShowAllClicked(new EventArgs ( )); } protected virtual void OnCustShowAllClicked(EventArgs args) { if (this.ViewAllClicked != null) { this.ViewAllClicked(this, args); } } public event EventHandler ViewAllClicked; } I have been stuggling with this problem for the last 3 days and have had no success with it, and I really do need some help. Can anyone please help me?

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  • Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

    - by Dougc
    I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

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  • Have something loaded only when JList item is visibile

    - by elvencode
    Hello, i'm implementing a Jlist populated with a lot of elements. Each element corresponds to a image so i'd like to show a resized preview of them inside each row of the list. I've implemented a custom ImageCellRenderer extending the Jlabel and on getListCellRendererComponent i create the thumbnail if there'snt any for that element. Each row corresponds to a Page class where i store the path of the image and the icon applied to the JLabel. Each Page object is put inside a DefaultListModel to populate the JList. The render code is something like this: public Component getListCellRendererComponent( JList list, Object value, int index, boolean isSelected, boolean cellHasFocus) { Page page = (Page) value; if (page.getImgIcon() == null) { System.out.println(String.format("Creating thumbnail of %s", page.getImgFilename())); ImageIcon icon = new ImageIcon(page.getImgFilename()); int thumb_width = icon.getIconWidth() > icon.getIconHeight() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconWidth() * 128) / icon.getIconHeight()); int thumb_height = icon.getIconHeight() > icon.getIconWidth() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconHeight() * 128) / icon.getIconWidth()); icon.setImage(getScaledImage(icon.getImage(), thumb_width, thumb_height)); page.setImgIcon(icon); } setIcon(page.getImgIcon()); } I was thinking that only a certain item is visibile in the List the cell renderer is called but i'm seeing that all the thumnails are created when i add the Page object to the list model. I've tried to load the items and after set the model in the JList or set the model first and after starting appending the items but the results are the same. Is there any way to load the data only when necessary or do i need to create a custom control like a JScrollPanel with stacked items inside where i check myself the visibility of each elements? Thanks

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