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• WCF service not working after program update

  - by Boesj

  I have recently added a WCF service reference to my program. When I perform a clean install of this program, everything seems to work as expected. But, when I install the program on a client which already has a previous version (without the new service reference) installed, I get a exception telling me the default endpoint for this particular service could not be found. It seems that the appname.exe.config is not being updated with the new endpoint settings. Is there any reason for this and how can I force the installer to overwrite the config file? I'm using the default Visual Studio 2008 installer project with RemovePreviousVersions set to True. Update: My program encrypts the settings section after the first run with the following code Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); ConfigurationSection section = config.GetSection(sectionKey); if (section != null) { if (!section.SectionInformation.IsProtected) { if (!section.ElementInformation.IsLocked) { section.SectionInformation.ProtectSection("DataProtectionConfigurationProvider"); section.SectionInformation.ForceSave = true; config.Save(ConfigurationSaveMode.Full); } } } When I do not run the program before installing the new version the app.config gets updated.

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• Can Haskell's monads be thought of as using and returning a hidden state parameter?

  - by AJM

  I don't understand the exact algebra and theory behind Haskell's monads. However, when I think about functional programming in general I get the impression that state would be modelled by taking an initial state and generating a copy of it to represent the next state. This is like when one list is appended to another; neither list gets modified, but a third list is created and returned. Is it therefore valid to think of monadic operations as implicitly taking an initial state object as a parameter and implicitly returning a final state object? These state objects would be hidden so that the programmer doesn't have to worry about them and to control how they gets accessed. So, the programmer would not try to copy the object representing the IO stream as it was ten minutes ago. In other words, if we have this code: main = do putStrLn "Enter your name:" name <- getLine putStrLn ( "Hello " ++ name ) ...is it OK to think of the IO monad and the "do" syntax as representing this style of code? putStrLn :: IOState -> String -> IOState getLine :: IOState -> (IOState, String) main :: IOState -> IOState -- main returns an IOState we can call "state3" main state0 = putStrLn state2 ("Hello " ++ name) where (state2, name) = getLine state1 state1 = putStrLn state0 "Enter your name:"

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• Random Movement in a Fixed Container

  - by James Barracca

  I'm looking to create something that can move randomly inside of a fixed div container. I love the way the object moves in this example that I found searching this website... http://jsfiddle.net/Xw29r/15/ The code on the jsfiddle contains the following: $(document).ready(function(){ animateDiv(); }); function makeNewPosition(){ // Get viewport dimensions (remove the dimension of the div) var h = $(window).height() - 50; var w = $(window).width() - 50; var nh = Math.floor(Math.random() * h); var nw = Math.floor(Math.random() * w); return [nh,nw]; } function animateDiv(){ var newq = makeNewPosition(); var oldq = $('.a').offset(); var speed = calcSpeed([oldq.top, oldq.left], newq); $('.a').animate({ top: newq[0], left: newq[1] }, speed, function(){ animateDiv(); }); }; function calcSpeed(prev, next) { var x = Math.abs(prev[1] - next[1]); var y = Math.abs(prev[0] - next[0]); var greatest = x > y ? x : y; var speedModifier = 0.1; var speed = Math.ceil(greatest/speedModifier); return speed; }? CSS: div.a { width: 50px; height:50px; background-color:red; position:fixed; }? However, I don't believe the code above constricts that object at all. I need my object to move randomly inside of a container that is let's say for now... 1200px in width and 500px in height. Can someone steer me in the right direction? I'm super new to coding so I'm having a hard time finding an answer on my own. Thanks so much! James

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• Hibernate: fetching multiple bags efficiently

  - by Jens Jansson

  Hi! I'm developing a multilingual application. For this reason many objects have in their name and description fields collections of something I call LocalizedStrings instead of plain strings. Every LocalizedString is basically a pair of a locale and a string localized to that locale. Let's take an example an entity, let's say a book -object. public class Book{ @OneToMany private List<LocalizedString> names; @OneToMany private List<LocalizedString> description; //and so on... } When a user asks for a list of books, it does a query to get all the books, fetches the name and description of every book in the locale the user has selected to run the app in, and displays it back to the user. This works but it is a major performance issue. For the moment hibernate makes one query to fetch all the books, and after that it goes through every single object and asks hibernate for the localized strings for that specific object, resulting in a "n+1 select problem". Fetching a list of 50 entities produces about 6000 rows of sql commands in my server log. I tried making the collections eager but that lead me to the "cannot simultaneously fetch multiple bags"-issue. Then I tried setting the fetch strategy on the collections to subselect, hoping that it would do one query for all books, and after that do one query that fetches all LocalizedStrings for all the books. Subselects didn't work in this case how i would have hoped and it basically just did exactly the same as my first case. I'm starting to run out of ideas on how to optimize this. So in short, what fetching strategy alternatives are there when you are fetching a collection and every element in that collection has one or multiple collections in itself, which has to be fetch simultaneously.

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• Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

  - by Randolpho

  The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

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• Link Button on asp.net user control not firing

  - by andyriome

  Hi I have a user control, which is added to another user control. The nested user control is built up of a gridview, an image button and a link button. The nested user control is added to the outer control as a collection object based upon the results bound to the gridview. The problem that I have is that my link button doesn't work. I click on it and the event doesn't fire. Even adding a break point was not reached. As the nested user control is added a number of times, I have set image button to have unique ids and also the link button. Whilst image button works correctly with its java script. The link button needs to fire an event in the code behind, but despite all my efforts, I can't make it work. I am adding the link button to the control dynamically. Below is the relevant code that I am using: public partial class ucCustomerDetails : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected override void CreateChildControls( ) { base.CreateChildControls( ); string strUniqueID = lnkShowAllCust.UniqueID; strUniqueID = strUniqueID.Replace('$','_'); this.lnkShowAllCust.ID = strUniqueID; this.lnkShowAllCust.Click += new EventHandler(this.lnkShowAllCust_Click); this.Controls.Add(lnkShowAllCust); } protected override void OnInit (EventArgs e) { CreateChildControls( ); base.OnInit(e); } protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.EnsureChildControls( ); } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (IsPostBack) { CreateChildControls( ); } } protected void lnkShowAllCust_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.OnCustShowAllClicked(new EventArgs ( )); } protected virtual void OnCustShowAllClicked(EventArgs args) { if (this.ViewAllClicked != null) { this.ViewAllClicked(this, args); } } public event EventHandler ViewAllClicked; } I have been stuggling with this problem for the last 3 days and have had no success with it, and I really do need some help. Can anyone please help me?

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• NHibernate class referencing discriminator based subclass

  - by Rich

  I have a generic class Lookup which contains code/value properties. The table PK is category/code. There are subclasses for each category of lookup, and I've set the discriminator column in the base class and its value in the subclass. See example below (only key pieces shown): public class Lookup { public string Category; public string Code; public string Description; } public class LookupClassMap { CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x = x.Category, "CATEGORY_ID") .KeyProperty(x = x.Code, "CODE_ID"); DiscriminateSubclassesBasedOnColumn("CATEGORY_ID"); } public class MaritalStatus: Lookup {} public class MartialStatusClassMap: SubclassMap { DiscriminatorValue(13); } This all works. Here's the problem. When a class has a property of type MaritalStatus, I create a reference based on the contained code ID column ("MARITAL_STATUS_CODE_ID"). NHibernate doesn't like it because I didn't map both primary key columns (Category ID & Code ID). But with the Reference being of type MaritalStatus, NHibernate should already know what the value of the category ID is going to be, because of the discriminator value. What am I missing?

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• Issue with class design to model user preferences for different classes

  - by Mulone

  Hi all, I'm not sure how to design a couple of classes in my app. Basically that's a situation: each user can have many preferences each preference can be referred to an object of different classes (e.g. album, film, book etc) the preference is expressed as a set of values (e.g. score, etc). The problem is that many users can have preferences on the same objects, e.g.: John: score=5 for filmid=apocalypsenow Paul: score=3 for filmid=apocalypsenow And naturally I don't want to duplicate the object film in each user. So I could create a class called "preference" holding a score and then a target object, something like: User{ hasMany preferences } Preference{ belongsTo User double score Film target Album target //etc } and then define just one target. Then I would create an interface for the target Classes (album, film etc): Interface canBePreferred{ hasMany preferences } And implement all of those classes. This could work, but it looks pretty ugly and it would requires a lot of joins to work. Do you have some patterns I could use to model this nicely? Cheers, Mulone

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• What are the original reasons for ToString() in Java and .NET?

  - by d.

  I've used ToString() modestly in the past and I've found it very useful in many circumstances. However, my usage of this method would hardly justify to put this method in none other than System.Object. My wild guess is that, at some point during the work carried out and meetings held to come up with the initial design of the .NET framework, it was decided that it was necessary - or at least extremely useful - to include a ToString() method that would be implemented by everything in the .NET framework. Does anyone know what the exact reasons were? Am I missing a ton of situations where ToString() proves useful enough as to be part of System.Object? What were the original reasons for ToString()? Thanks a lot! PS - Again: I'm not questioning the method or implying that it's not useful, I'm just curious to know what makes it SO useful as to be placed in System.Object. Side note - Imagine this: AnyDotNetNativeClass someInitialObject = new AnyDotNetNativeClass([some constructor parameters]); AnyDotNetNativeClass initialObjectFullCopy = AnyDotNetNativeClass.FromString(someInitialObject.ToString()); Wouldn't this be cool? EDIT(1): (A) - Based on some answers, it seems that .NET languages inherited this from Java. So, I'm adding "Java" to the subject and to the tags as well. If someone knows the reasons why this was implemented in Java then please shed some light! (B) - Static hypothetical FromString vs Serialization: sure, but that's quite a different story, right?

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• Problem with moving a winform using C#

  - by karthik

  My form doesn't have a title bar, so I am implementing the code to drag the entire form around the screen. I am using the below code to do it, which works fine. I have two panels in my form, PanelA and PanelB. During the startup I show PanelA where the dragging works perfectly. Later when the user clicks the button in PanelA, I need to make PanelA invisible and show PanelB However, the dragging does not work when PanelB is shown. What's the problem here? private void SerialPortScanner_MouseUp(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = false; } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = true; this.start_point = new Point(e.X, e.Y); } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (this.drag) { Point p1 = new Point(e.X, e.Y); Point p2 = this.PointToScreen(p1); Point p3 = new Point(p2.X - this.start_point.X, p2.Y - this.start_point.Y); this.Location = p3; } }

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• How can I get my business objects layer to use the management layer in their methods?

  - by Tom Pickles

  I have a solution in VS2010 with several projects, each making up a layer within my application. I have business entities which are currently objects with no methods, and I have a management layer which references the business entities layer in it's project. I now think I have designed my application poorly and would like to move methods from helper classes (which are in another layer) into methods I'll create within the business entities themselves. For example I have a VirtualMachine object, which uses a helper class to call a Reboot() method on it which passes the request to the management layer. The static manager class talks to an API that reboots the VM. I want to move the Reboot() method into the VirtualMachine object, but I will need to reference the management layer: public void Reboot() { VMManager.Reboot(this.Name); } So if I add a reference to my management project in my entities project, I get the circular dependency error, which is how it should be. How can I sort this situation out? Do I need to an yet another layer between the entity layer and the management layer? Or, should I just forget it and leave it as it is. The application works ok now, but I am concerned my design isn't particularly OOP centric and I would like to correct this.

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• In perl, how can I call a method whose name I have in a string?

  - by Ryan Thompson

  I'm trying to write some abstract code for searching through a list of similar objects for the first one whose attributes match specific values. In order to do this, I need to call a bunch of accessor methods and check all their values one by one. I'd like to use an abstraction like this: sub verify_attribute { my ($object, $attribute_method, $wanted_value) = @_; if ( call_method($object, $attribute_method) ~~ $wanted_value ) { return 1; } else { return; } } Then I can loop through a hash whose keys are accessor method names and whose values are the values I'm looking for for those attributes. For example, if that hash is called %wanted, I might use code like this to find the object I want: my $found_object; FINDOBJ: foreach my $obj (@list_of_objects) { foreach my $accessor (keys %wanted) { next FINDOBJ unless verify_attribute($obj, $accessor, $wanted{$accessor}); } # All attrs verified $found_object = $obj; last FINDOBJ; } Of course, the only problem is that call_method does not exsit. Or does it? How can I call a method if I have a string containing its name? Or is there a better solution to this whole problem?

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• Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

  - by ropstah

  I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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• Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

  - by Dougc

  I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

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• LINQ to SQL - Insert yielding strange behavior.

  - by Isaac

  Hi, I'm trying to insert several newly created items to the database. I have a LINQ2SQL generated class called "Order". Inside order, there's a property called "OrderItems" which is also generated by LINQ2SQL and represents the Items of that Order. So far so good. The problem I'm having right now, is when I try to add more than one newly created OrderItem inside Order. I.E: Order o = orderWorker.GetById( 10 ); for( int i=0; i < 5; ++i ) { OrderItem oi =new OrderItem { Order = order, Price = 100, ShippingPrice = 100, ShippingMethod = ... }; o.OrderItems.Add( oi ); } context.SubmitChanges(); Unfortunately, only a single entity is being added. Yes, I checked the generated SQL by adding Context.Log = Console.Out, and yes, only one statement was created. Any clues? By the way I know I'm not using InsertOnSubmit, by the documentation says: You can explicitly request Inserts by using InsertOnSubmit. Alternatively, LINQ to SQL can infer Inserts by finding objects connected to one of the known objects that must be updated. For example, if you add an Untracked object to an EntitySet(TEntity) or set an EntityRef(TEntity) to an Untracked object, you make the Untracked object reachable by way of tracked objects in the graph. While processing SubmitChanges, LINQ to SQL traverses the tracked objects and discovers any reachable persistent objects that are not tracked. Such objects are candidates for insertion into the database. Thank you very much for your time.

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• Create a variable which is named depending on an ID number?

  - by gray

  Is there any way to create a variable, and add an ID to the end of the actual variable name? I have a variable called 'gauge', used to create a new Gauge object: var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); I want to add an ID to the variable, so something like: var gauge+id = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); It's because I'm creating a number of these objects, and have a specific ID already for each one, which I want to attach to the gauge object if possible? All my code for this function is below, if it gives you a better idea of what i need to do: function go(id, votes) { var val = $('#votes_'+id).text(); var target = document.getElementById('foo_'+id); // your canvas element var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); // create sexy gauge! gauge.maxValue = 100; // set max gauge value gauge.animationSpeed = 20; // set animation speed (32 is default value) var a=votes+0.5; gauge.set(val); // set actual value } My main problem arises on the last line. It says gauge.set(val), and it only sets the last object, ignoring all the other ones...

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• Updating iOS application content which include images

  - by azamsharp

  I am working on a Vegetable gardening application. Apart from the vegetable name and description I also have vegetable image. Currently, I have all the images in the Supported Files folder in the Xcode project. But later on I want to update the application dynamically without having the user download a new version. When the user updates the application or downloads new data from the server that data will include the images. Can I store those images in the supporting file folder or somewhere where they can be references by just the name. RELATED QUESTION: I will also allow the user to take pictures of their vegetables and then write notes about the vegetables like "just planted", "about to harvest" etc. What is the recommended approach for storing pictures/photos. I can always store them in the user's photo library and then store the reference in the local database and then fetch and display the picture using the reference. The problem with that approach might be that if the user accidentally deletes the picture from the library then it will no longer be displayed in my application. The only way I see if to store the picture in the app local database as a BLOB.

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• How to force my method to accept objects from external software?

  - by Roman

  I have a method which needs to take a callback object as an argument and then (at the moment when it's needed) my method will call a specific method of the callback object. I wrote a class called Manager which has a method called addListener. As the argument for this method I need to use a callback object which is defined by the external software. So, I define the addListener in the following way: public void addListener(Listener listener). Of course Eclipse complains because it does not know what Listener is (because the Listener is defined by the external software). The only think that I know (should know) about the Listener is that it has a method called doSomething. So, to pleasure Eclipse I add an interface before my Manager class: interface Listener { void doSomething(); } public class CTManager { ... The problem seems to be solved but then I try to test my software. So, I create a class called test. In this class I create an instance of the Manager class and try to use addListener method of this instance. I also create a class Listener, instantiate it and give the instance to the addListener. And it's the place where the problem appears. Eclipse writes that addListener is not applicable to the given argument. I think it's because it expect something from my Listenr interface but gets something from the Listener class. How can I solve this problem?

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• Convenient way to do "wrong way rebase" in git?

  - by Kaz

  I want to pull in newer commits from master into topic, but not in such a way that topic changes are replayed over top of master, but rather vice versa. I want the new changes from master to be played on top of topic, and the result to be installed as the new topic head. I can get exactly the right object if I rebase master to topic, the only problem being that the object is installed as the new head of master rather than topic. Is there some nice way to do this without manually shuffling around temporary head pointers? Edit: Here is how it can be achieved using a temporary branch head, but it's clumsy: git checkout master git checkout -b temp # temp points to master git rebase topic # topic is brought into temp, temp changes played on top Now we have the object we want, and it's pointed at by temp. git checkout topic git reset --hard temp Now topic has it; and all that is left is to tidy up by deleting temp: git branch -d temp Another way is to to do away with temp and just rebase master, and then reset topic to master. Finally, reset master back to what it was by pulling its old head from the reflog, or a cut-and-paste buffer.

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• WCF data services - Limiting related objects returned based on critera

  - by Mike Morley

  I have an object graph consisting of a base employee object, and a set of related message objects. I am able to return the employee objects based on search criteria on the employee properties (eg team) etc. However, if I expand on the messages, I get the full collection of messages back. I would like to be able to either take the top n messages (i.e. restrict to 10 most recent) or ideally use a date range on the message objects to limit how many are brought back. So far I have not been able to figure out a way of doing this: I get an error if I attempt to filter on properties on the message (&$filter=employee/message/StartDate gives an error "No property 'StartDate' exists in type 'System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityCollection`1). Attempting to use Top on the message related object doesn't work either. I have also tried using a WebGet extension that takes a string list of employee IDs. That works until the list gets too long, and then fails due to the URL getting too long (it might be possible to setup a paging mechanism on this approach)... Unfortunately the UI control I am using requires the data to be in a fairly specific hierarchical shape, so I can't easily come at this from starting on the message side and working backwards. Outside of making multiple calls does anyone know of a method to accomplish this with wcf data services? Thanks! M.

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• SQL query error while trying to put a file in the database

  - by DaGhostman Dimitrov

  Hey Guys I have a big problem that I have no Idea why.. I have few forms that upload files to the database, all of them work fine except one.. I use the same query in all(simple insert). I think that it has something to do with the files i am trying to upload but I am not sure. Here is the code: if ($_POST['action'] == 'hndlDocs') { $ref = $_POST['reference']; // Numeric value of $doc = file_get_contents($_FILES['doc']['tmp_name']); $link = mysqli_connect('localhost','XXXXX','XXXXX','documents'); mysqli_query($link,"SET autocommit = 0"); $query = "INSERT INTO documents ({$ref}, '{$doc}', '{$_FILES['doc']['type']}') ;"; mysqli_query($link,$query); if (mysqli_error($link)) { var_dump(mysqli_error($link)); mysqli_rollback($link); } else { print("<script> window.history.back(); </script>"); mysqli_commit($link); } } The database has only these fields: DATABASE documents ( reference INT(5) NOT NULL, //it is unsigned zerofill doc LONGBLOB NOT NULL, //this should contain the binary data mime_type TEXT NOT NULL // the mime type of the file php allows only application/pdf and image/jpeg ); And the error I get is : You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '00001, '????' at line 1 I will appreciate every help. Cheers!

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• How to specify generic method type parameters partly

  - by DNNX

  I have an extension method like below: public static T GetValueAs<T, R>(this IDictionary<string, R> dictionary, string fieldName) where T : R { R value; if (!dictionary.TryGetValue(fieldName, out value)) return default(T); return (T)value; } Currently, I can use it in the following way: var dictionary = new Dictionary<string, object(); //... var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A"); // this may throw ClassCastException - this is expected behavior; It works pretty fine, but the second type parameter is really annoying. Is it possible in C# 4.0 rewrite GetValueAs is such a way that the method will still be applicable to different types of string-keyed dictionaries AND there will be no need to specify second type parameter in the calling code, i.e. use var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int("A"); or at least something like var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, ?("A"); instead of var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A");

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• what is the best practice approach for n-tier application development with entity framework?

  - by samsur

  I am building an application using entity framework. I am using the T4 template to generate self tracking entities. Currently, I am thinking of creating the entity framework code in a separate project. In this same project, I would have partial classes with additional methods for the entities. I am thinking of creating a separate project for a service layer (WCF) with methods for the upper/presentation tier. The WCF layer will reference the entity framework project. The methods in the WCF layer will return the entities or accept the entities as the parameters. I am thinkg of creating a third project for the presentation layer (ASP.net), this will make calls to the WCF service but will also need to reference the entities as the WCF methods take these types as the parameters/return types. In short, i want to use the STE entities generated by the T4 template as a DTO to be used in all layers. I was originally thinking of creating a business logic layer that maps to each entities. Example: If i have a customer class, the Business Layer would have a CustomerBLL class and then methods in the customerBLL will be used by the service layer. I was also trying to create a DTO in this business layer. I however found that this approach is very time consuming and i do not see a major benefit as it would create more maintenance work. What is the best practice for n-tier application development using entity framework 4?

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• using asp.net membership provider in a dll

  - by Keith Barrows

  I've used Membership Providers in web apps over the last several years. I now have a new "request" for an internal project at work. They would like a service (not a web service) to do a quick authenticate against. Basically, exposing the ValidateUser(UserName, Password) method... I am building this in a DLL that will sit with our internal web site. What is the best approach to make this work? The DLL will not reference the web app and the web app will reference the DLL. How do I make the DLL aware of the Membership Provider? TIA PS: If this has been answered elsewhere please direct me to that... EDIT: I found an article on using ASP.NET Membership with WinForms and/or WPF applications. Unfortunately, these depend on an app.config file. A DLL appears to not use the app.config once published. If I am wrong, please set me straight! The article is here: http://aspalliance.com/1595_Client_Application_Services__Part_1.all

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• Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

  - by Jack

  I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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