Search Results

Search found 38284 results on 1532 pages for 'object reference'.

Page 525/1532 | < Previous Page | 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532  | Next Page >

  • CXF code first service, WSDL generation; soap:address changes?

    - by jcalvert
    I have a simple Java interface/implementation I am exposing via CXF. I have a jaxws element in my Spring configuration file like this: <jaxws:endpoint id="managementServiceJaxws" implementor="#managementService" address="/jaxws/ManagementService" > </jaxws:endpoint> It generates the WSDL from my annotated interface and exposes the service. Then when I hit http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService?wsdl I get a lovely WSDL. At the bottom in the wsdl:service element, I'll see <soap:address location="http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService"/> However, some time a day or so later, with no application restart, hitting that same url produces: This causes a number of problems, but what I really want is to fix it. Right now, there's a particular client to the webservice that sets the endpoint to localhost; because it runs on the same machine. Is it possible the wsdl is getting regenerated and cached and then exposing the 'localhost' version? In part I don't know the exact mechanism by which one goes from a ?wsdl request in CXF to the response. It seems almost certain that it's retrieving some cached version, given that it's supposed to be determining the address by asking the servletcontainer (Jetty). For reference I know a stopgap solution is using the hostname on the client and making sure an alias in place so that it goes over the loopback. EDIT: For reference, I confirmed that if I bring my application up and first hit it over localhost, then querying for the wsdl via the hostname shows the address as localhost. Conversely, first hitting it over the hostname causes localhost requests to show the hostname. So obviously something is getting cached here.

    Read the article

  • do the Python libraries have a natural dependence on the global namespace?

    - by msw
    I first ran into this when trying to determine the relative performance of two generators: t = timeit.repeat('g.get()', setup='g = my_generator()') So I dug into the timeit module and found that the setup and statement are evaluated with their own private, initially empty namespaces so naturally the binding of g never becomes accessible to the g.get() statement. The obvious solution is to wrap them into a class, thus adding to the global namespace. I bumped into this again when attempting, in another project, to use the multiprocessing module to divide a task among workers. I even bundled everything nicely into a class but unfortunately the call pool.apply_async(runmc, arg) fails with a PicklingError because buried inside the work object that runmc instantiates is (effectively) an assignment: self.predicate = lambda x, y: x > y so the whole object can't be (understandably) pickled and whereas: def foo(x, y): return x > y pickle.dumps(foo) is fine, the sequence bar = lambda x, y: x > y yields True from callable(bar) and from type(bar), but it Can't pickle <function <lambda> at 0xb759b764>: it's not found as __main__.<lambda>. I've given only code fragments because I can easily fix these cases by merely pulling them out into module or object level defs. The bug here appears to be in my understanding of the semantics of namespace use in general. If the nature of the language requires that I create more def statements I'll happily do so; I fear that I'm missing an essential concept though. Why is there such a strong reliance on the global namespace? Or, what am I failing to understand? Namespaces are one honking great idea -- let's do more of those!

    Read the article

  • Need a refresher course on property access...

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I need help with accessing class properties within a given class. For example, take the below class: public partial class Account { private Profile _profile; private Email _email; private HostInfo _hostInfo; public Profile Profile { get { return _profile; } set { _profile = value; } } public Email Email { get { return _email; } set { _email = value; } } public HostInfo HostInfo { get { return _hostInfo; } set { _hostInfo = value; } } In the class "Account" exists a bunch of class properties such as Email or Profile. Now, when I want to access those properties at run-time, I do something like this (for Email): _accountRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IAccountRepository>(); string username = Cryptography.Decrypt(_webContext.UserNameToVerify, "verify"); Account account = _accountRepository.GetAccountByUserName(username); if(account != null) { account.Email.IsConfirmed = true; But, I get "Object reference not set..." for account.Email... Why is that? How do I access Account such that account.Email, account.Profile, and so on returns the correct data for a given AccountId or UserName. Here is a method that returns Account: public Account GetAccountByUserName(string userName) { Account account = null; using (MyDataContext dc = _conn.GetContext()) { try { account = (from a in dc.Accounts where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); } catch { //oops } } return account; } The above works but when I try: account = (from a in dc.Accounts join em in dc.Emails on a.AccountId equals em.AccountId join p in dc.Profiles on em.AccountId equals p.AccountId where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); I am still getting object reference exceptions for my Email and Profile properties. Is this simply a SQL problem or is there something else I need to be doing to be able to fully access all the properties within my Account class? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I make one Maven module depend on another?

    - by Daniel Pryden
    OK, I thought I understood how to use Maven... I have a master project M which has sub-projects A, B, and C. C contains some common functionality (interfaces mainly) which is needed by A and B. I can run mvn compile jar:jar from the project root directory (the M directory) and get JAR files A.jar, B.jar, and C.jar. (The versions for all these artifacts are currently 2.0-SNAPSHOT.) The master pom.xml file in the M directory lists C under its <dependencyManagement> tag, so that A and B can reference C by just including a reference, like so: <dependency> <groupId>my.project</groupId> <artifactId>C</artifactId> </dependency> So far, so good. I can run mvn compile from the command line and everything works fine. But when I open the project in NetBeans, it complains with the problem: "Some dependency artifacts are not in the local repository", and it says the missing artifact is C. Likewise from the command line, if I change into the A or B directories and try to run mvn compile I get "Build Error: Failed to resolve artifact." I expect I could manually go to where my C.jar was built and run mvn install:install-file, but I'd rather find a solution that enables me to just work directly in NetBeans (and/or in Eclipse using m2eclipse). What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Should we point to an NSManagedObject entity with weak instead of strong pointer?

    - by Jim Thio
    I think because NSManagedObject is managed by the managedObject context the pointer should be weak. Yet it often goes back to 0 in my cases. for (CategoryNearby * CN in sorted) { //[arrayOfItems addObject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ - %d",CN.name,[CN.order intValue]]]; NearbyShortcutTVC * tvc=[[NearbyShortcutTVC alloc]init]; tvc.categoryNearby =CN; // tvc.titleString=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",CN.name]; // tvc.displayed=CN.displayed; [arrayOfItemsLocal addObject:tvc]; //CN PO(tvc); PO(tvc.categoryNearby); while (false); } self.arrayOfItems = arrayOfItemsLocal; PO(self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems); [self.tableViewa reloadData]; ... Yet somewhere down the line: tvc.categoryNearby becomes nil. I do not know how or when or where it become nil. How do I debug this? Or should the reference be strong instead? This is the interface of NearbyShortcutTVC by the way @interface NearbyShortcutTVC : BGBaseTableViewCell{ } @property (weak, nonatomic) CategoryNearby * categoryNearby; @end To make sure that we're talking about the same object I print all the memory addresses of the NSArray They're both the exact same object. But somehow the categoryNearby property of the object is magically set to null somewhere. self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 ) self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 )

    Read the article

  • Strange behaviour of DataTable with DataGridView

    - by Paul
    Please explain me what is happening. I have created a WinForms .NET application which has DataGridView on a form and should update database when DataGridView inline editing is used. Form has SqlDataAdapter _da with four SqlCommands bound to it. DataGridView is bound directly to DataTable _names. Such a CellValueChanged handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { _da.Update(_names); } does not update database state although _names DataTable is updated. All the rows of _names have RowState == DataRowState.Unchanged Ok, I modified the handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); _da.Update(_names); } this variant really writes modified cell to database, but when I attempt to insert new row into grid, I get an error about an absence of row with index e.RowIndex So, I decided to improve the handler further: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { if (_names.Rows.Count<e.RowIndex) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); } else { DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = dataGridView1["NameText", e.RowIndex].Value; _names.Rows.Add(row); } _da.Update(_names); } Now the really strange things happen when I insert new row to grid: the grid remains what it was until _names.Rows.Add(row); After this line THREE rows are inserted into table - two rows with the same value and one with Null value. The slightly modified code: DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = "--------------" _names.Rows.Add(row); inserts three rows with three different values: one as entered into the grid, the second with "--------------" value and third - with Null value. I really got stuck in guessing what is happening.

    Read the article

  • How to handle window closed in the middle of a long running operation gracefully?

    - by Marek
    We have the following method called directly from the UI thread: void DoLengthyProcessing() { DoStuff(); var items = DoMoreStuff(); //do even more stuff - 200 lines of code trimmed this.someControl.PrepareForBigThing(); //someControl is a big user control //additional 100 lines of code that access this.someControl this.someControl.Finish(items); } Many of the called methods call Application.DoEvents() (and they do so many times) (do not ask me why, this is black magic written by black magic programmers and it can not be changed because everyone is scared what the impact would be) and there is also an operation running on a background thread involved in the processing. As a result, the window is not fully nonresponsive and can be closed manually during the processing. The Dispose method of the form "releases" the someControl variable by setting it to null. As a result, in case the user closes the window during the lengthy process, a null reference exception is thrown. How to handle this gracefully without just catching and logging the exception caused by disposal? Assigning the someControl instance to a temporary variable in the beginning of the method - but the control contains many subcontrols with similar disposal scheme - sets them to null and this causes null reference exceptions in other place put if (this.IsDisposed) return; calls before every access of the someControl variable. - making the already nasty long method even longer and unreadable. in Closing event, just indicate that we should close and only hide the window. Dispose it at the end of the lengthy operation. This is not very viable because there are many other methods involved (think 20K LOC for a single control) that would need to handle this mechanism as well. How to most effectively handle window disposal (by user action) in the middle of this kind of processing?

    Read the article

  • Can somebody explain this remark in the MSDN CreateMutex() documentation about the bInitialOwner fla

    - by Tom Williams
    The MSDN CreatMutex() documentation (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms682411%28VS.85%29.aspx) contains the following remark near the end: Two or more processes can call CreateMutex to create the same named mutex. The first process actually creates the mutex, and subsequent processes with sufficient access rights simply open a handle to the existing mutex. This enables multiple processes to get handles of the same mutex, while relieving the user of the responsibility of ensuring that the creating process is started first. When using this technique, you should set the bInitialOwner flag to FALSE; otherwise, it can be difficult to be certain which process has initial ownership. Can somebody explain the problem with using bInitialOwner = TRUE? Earlier in the same documentation it suggests a call to GetLastError() will allow you to determine whether a call to CreateMutext() created the mutex or just returned a new handle to an existing mutex: Return Value If the function succeeds, the return value is a handle to the newly created mutex object. If the function fails, the return value is NULL. To get extended error information, call GetLastError. If the mutex is a named mutex and the object existed before this function call, the return value is a handle to the existing object, GetLastError returns ERROR_ALREADY_EXISTS, bInitialOwner is ignored, and the calling thread is not granted ownership. However, if the caller has limited access rights, the function will fail with ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED and the caller should use the OpenMutex function.

    Read the article

  • c# template member functions

    - by user3730583
    How can I define a template member function in C# For instance I will fill any collection which supports an Add(...) member function, please check out the sample code below public class CInternalCollection { public static void ExternalCollectionTryOne<T<int>>(ref T<int> ext_col, int para_selection = 0) { foreach (int int_value in m_int_col) { if (int_value > para_selection) ext_col.Add(int_value); } } public static void ExternalCollectionTryTwo<T>(ref T ext_col, int para_selection = 0) { foreach (int int_value in m_int_col) { if (int_value > para_selection) ext_col.Add(int_value); } } static int[] m_int_col = { 0, -1, -3, 5, 7, -8 }; } The ExternalCollectionTryOne<...(...) would be the preferred kind, because the int type can be explicit defined, but results in an error: Type parameter declaration must be an identifier not a type The type or namespace name 'T' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) The ExternalCollectionTryTwo<...(...) results in an error: 'T' does not contain a definition for 'Add' and no extension method 'Add' accepting a first argument of type 'T' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)... I hope the problem is clear – any suggestions? ----------------------------- edit -------------------------- The answers with the interface ICollection<.. without a template member works fine and thanks all for this hint, but I still cannot define successfully a member template(generic) function So a more simpler example ... how can I define this public class CAddCollectionValues { public static void AddInt<T>(ref T number, int selection) { T new_T = new T(); //this line is just an easy demonstration to get a compile error with type T foreach (int i_value in m_int_col) { if (i_value > selection) number += i_value; //again the type T cannot be used } } static int[] m_int_col = { 0, -1, -3, 5, 7, -8 }; }

    Read the article

  • Should a C++ constructor do real work?

    - by Wade Williams
    I'm strugging with some advice I have in the back of my mind but for which I can't remember the reasoning. I seem to remember at some point reading some advice (can't remember the source) that C++ constructors should not do real work. Rather, they should initialize variables only. The advice when on to explain that real work should be done in some sort of init() method, to be called separately after the instance was created. The situation is I have a class that represents a hardware device. It makes logical sense to me for the constructor to call the routines that query the device in order to build up the instance variables that describe the device. In other words, once new instantiates the object, the developer receives an object which is ready to be used, no separate call to object-init() required. Is there a good reason why constructors shouldn't do real work? Obviously it could slow allocation time, but that wouldn't be any different if calling a separate method immediately after allocation. Just trying to figure out what gotchas I not currently considering that might have lead to such advice.

    Read the article

  • SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

    - by akaphenom
    After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Why do we need Audit Columns in Database Tables?

    - by Software Enthusiastic
    Hi I have seen many database designs having following audit columns on all the tables... Created By Create DateTime Updated By Upldated DateTime From one perspective I see tables from the following view... Entity Tables: Good candidate for Audit columns) Reference Tables: Audit columns may or may not required. In some case last update information is not at all required because record is never going to be modified.) Reference Data Tables Like Country Names, Entity State etc... Audit columns may not required because these information is created only during system installation time, and never going to be changed. I have seen many designers blindly put all audit columns to all tables, is this practice good, if yes what could be the reason... I just want to know because to me it seems illogical. It is difficult for me to figure out why do they design their db this way? I am not saying they are wrong or right, just want to know the WHY? You can also suggest me, if there is an alternative auditing patter or solution available... Thanks and Regards

    Read the article

  • Creating a C++ DLL and then using it in C#

    - by Major
    Ok I'm trying to make a C++ DLL that I can then call and reference in a c# App. I've already made a simple dll using the numberous guides out there, however when I try to reference it in the C# app I get the error Unable to load DLL 'SDES.dll': The specified module could not be found. The code for the program is as follows (bear with me I'm going to include all the files) //These are the DLL Files. ifndef TestDLL_H define TestDLL_H extern "C" { // Returns a + b __declspec(dllexport) double Add(double a, double b); // Returns a - b __declspec(dllexport) double Subtract(double a, double b); // Returns a * b __declspec(dllexport) double Multiply(double a, double b); // Returns a / b // Throws DivideByZeroException if b is 0 __declspec(dllexport) double Divide(double a, double b); } endif //.cpp include "test.h" include using namespace std; extern double __cdecl Add(double a, double b) { return a + b; } extern double __cdecl Subtract(double a, double b) { return a - b; } extern double __cdecl Multiply(double a, double b) { return a * b; } extern double __cdecl Divide(double a, double b) { if (b == 0) { throw new invalid_argument("b cannot be zero!"); } return a / b; } //C# Program using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { [DllImport("SDES.dll")] public static extern void SimulateGameDLL(int a, int b); static void Main(string[] args) { SimulateGameDLL(1, 2); //Error here... } } } Anyone have any idea's what I may be missing in my program? Let me know if I missed some code or if you have any questions.

    Read the article

  • Python: why can't descriptors be instance variables?

    - by Continuation
    Say I define this descriptor: class MyDescriptor(object): def __get__(self, instance, owner): return self._value def __set__(self, instance, value): self._value = value def __delete__(self, instance): del(self._value) And I use it in this: class MyClass1(object): value = MyDescriptor() >>> m1 = MyClass1() >>> m1.value = 1 >>> m2 = MyClass1() >>> m2.value = 2 >>> m1.value 2 So value is a class attribute and is shared by all instances. Now if I define this: class MyClass2(object) value = 1 >>> y1 = MyClass2() >>> y1.value=1 >>> y2 = MyClass2() >>> y2.value=2 >>> y1.value 1 In this case value is an instance attribute and is not shared by the instances. Why is it that when value is a descriptor it can only be a class attribute, but when value is a simple integer it becomes an instance attribute?

    Read the article

  • Dynamcally resising an open Accordion

    - by alavers
    I have an Accordion and the height of its content can be dynamically resized. I would like to see the Accordion dynamically respond to the child item's height, but I'm having trouble doing this. <lt:Accordion Name="MyAccordion" SelectionMode="ZeroOrOne" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <lt:AccordionItem Name="MyAccordionItem" Header="MyAccordion" IsSelected="True" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <StackPanel> <Button Content="Grow" Click="Grow"/> <Button Content="Shrink" Click="Shrink"/> <TextBox Name="GrowTextBox" Text="GrowTextBox" Height="400" Background="Green" SizeChanged="GrowTextBox_SizeChanged"/> </StackPanel> </lt:AccordionItem> </lt:Accordion> private void Grow(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height += 100; } private void Shrink(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height -= 100; } private void GrowTextBox_SizeChanged(object sender, System.Windows.SizeChangedEventArgs e) { MyAccordion.UpdateLayout(); MyAccordionItem.UpdateLayout(); } Mind you, if I collapse and then re-open the accordion, it takes shape just the way I want, but I'd like this resizing to occur immediately when the child resizes. I feebly attempted to fix this by adding a SizeChanged event handler that calls UpdateLayout() on the Accordion and AccordionItem, but this doesn't have any visual effect. I can't figure out where proper resizing takes place inside the Accordion control. Does anyone have an idea?

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

    - by Randolpho
    The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • Random number generation in MVC applications

    - by SlimShaggy
    What is the correct way of generating random numbers in an ASP.NET MVC application if I need exactly one number per request? According to MSDN, in order to get randomness of sufficient quality, it is necessary to generate multiple numbers using a single System.Random object, created once. Since a new instance of a controller class is created for each request in MVC, I cannot use a private field initialized in the controller's constructor for the Random object. So in what part of the MVC app should I create and store the Random object? Currently I store it in a static field of the controller class and lazily initialize it in the action method that uses it: public class HomeController : Controller { ... private static Random random; ... public ActionResult Download() { ... if (random == null) random = new Random(); ... } } Since the "random" field can be accessed by multiple instances of the controller class, is it possible for its value to become corrupted if two instances attempt to initialize it simultaneously? And one more question: I know that the lifetime of statics is the lifetime of the application, but in case of an MVC app what is it? Is it from IIS startup till IIS shutdown?

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

    - by Dougc
    I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

    Read the article

  • WCF data services - Limiting related objects returned based on critera

    - by Mike Morley
    I have an object graph consisting of a base employee object, and a set of related message objects. I am able to return the employee objects based on search criteria on the employee properties (eg team) etc. However, if I expand on the messages, I get the full collection of messages back. I would like to be able to either take the top n messages (i.e. restrict to 10 most recent) or ideally use a date range on the message objects to limit how many are brought back. So far I have not been able to figure out a way of doing this: I get an error if I attempt to filter on properties on the message (&$filter=employee/message/StartDate gives an error "No property 'StartDate' exists in type 'System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityCollection`1). Attempting to use Top on the message related object doesn't work either. I have also tried using a WebGet extension that takes a string list of employee IDs. That works until the list gets too long, and then fails due to the URL getting too long (it might be possible to setup a paging mechanism on this approach)... Unfortunately the UI control I am using requires the data to be in a fairly specific hierarchical shape, so I can't easily come at this from starting on the message side and working backwards. Outside of making multiple calls does anyone know of a method to accomplish this with wcf data services? Thanks! M.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate class referencing discriminator based subclass

    - by Rich
    I have a generic class Lookup which contains code/value properties. The table PK is category/code. There are subclasses for each category of lookup, and I've set the discriminator column in the base class and its value in the subclass. See example below (only key pieces shown): public class Lookup { public string Category; public string Code; public string Description; } public class LookupClassMap { CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x = x.Category, "CATEGORY_ID") .KeyProperty(x = x.Code, "CODE_ID"); DiscriminateSubclassesBasedOnColumn("CATEGORY_ID"); } public class MaritalStatus: Lookup {} public class MartialStatusClassMap: SubclassMap { DiscriminatorValue(13); } This all works. Here's the problem. When a class has a property of type MaritalStatus, I create a reference based on the contained code ID column ("MARITAL_STATUS_CODE_ID"). NHibernate doesn't like it because I didn't map both primary key columns (Category ID & Code ID). But with the Reference being of type MaritalStatus, NHibernate should already know what the value of the category ID is going to be, because of the discriminator value. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Java and Jasper

    - by bhargava
    Hey Guys, I have integrated Jasper Reports on my netbeans platform and i am able to generate reports using the following code. Map<String, Object> params = new HashMap<String, Object>(); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection("databaseUrl", "userid","password"); JasperReport jasperReport = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportSource); JasperPrint jasperPrint = JasperFillManager.fillReport(jasperReport, params, conn); JasperExportManager.exportReportToHtmlFile(jasperPrint, reportDest); JasperViewer.viewReport(jasperPrint); This stuff works perfect. But not i am trying to integrate Jasper with GWT.I have my server as glass fish server. I am getting the Connection object using the followind code. public static Connection getConnection() { try { String JNDI = "JNDI name"; InitialContext initCtx = new InitialContext(); javax.sql.DataSource ds = (javax.sql.DataSource) initCtx.lookup(JNDI); Connection conn = (Connection) ds.getConnection(); return conn; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } return null; } and then Map params = new HashMap(); JasperReport jasperReport = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportSource); JasperPrint jasperPrint = JasperFillManager.fillReport(jasperReport, params, getConnection()); JasperExportManager.exportReportToHtmlFile(jasperPrint, reportDest); JasperViewer.viewReport(jasperPrint); but i always get Error.I am implementing this on Server.I am having RPC calls to get this method to work when a button is clicked. Can you please help me how to work on this.(That is to integrate Jasper reports with GWT). I would highly appreciate any explanation with some code as i am just a beginner. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

    Read the article

  • friend declaration in C++

    - by Happy Mittal
    In Thinking in C++ by Bruce eckel, there is an example given regarding friend functions as // Declaration (incomplete type specification): struct X; struct Y { void f(X*); }; struct X { // Definition private: int i; public: friend void Y::f(X*); // Struct member friend }; void Y::f(X* x) { x->i = 47; } Now he explained this: Notice that Y::f(X*) takes the address of an X object. This is critical because the compiler always knows how to pass an address, which is of a fixed size regardless of the object being passed, even if it doesn’t have full information about the size of the type. If you try to pass the whole object, however, the compiler must see the entire structure definition of X, to know the size and how to pass it, before it allows you to declare a function such as Y::g(X). But when I tried void f(X); as declaration in struct Y, it shows no error. Please explain why?

    Read the article

  • VB.net/Excel- "Backwards" tab index For Each iteration with textboxes.

    - by MSD
    Hi there, I have a form with 3 textboxes and 1 button. textbox1 has tab index 0, and it's text = 1 textbox2 has tab index 1, and it's text = 2 textbox3 has tab index 2, and it's text = 3 I want to iterate thru the textboxes and place their values into cells so that... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "1") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "3") but what I am getting is... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "3") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "1") I have tried reversing the tab index for the text boxes, but it doesn't change the "backwards iteration". Is there something I can do to change this so that the loop runs from lowest tab index to highest? Thanks! Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click_1(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim objExcel As New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application 'Declaring the object. objExcel.Visible = True 'Setting Excel to visible. Dim cntrl As Control With objExcel .Workbooks.Add() 'Adding a workbook. .Range("A1").Select() 'Selecting cell A1. End With 'Form contains 3 text boxes, with one number in each (1,2,3), and one button to fire the code in this sub. For Each cntrl In Me.Controls 'For every control on the form... If TypeOf (cntrl) Is TextBox Then 'If the control is a textbox, then... With objExcel .ActiveCell.Value = cntrl.Text 'place the control's text in the active cell and... .ActiveCell.Offset(1, 0).Activate() 'offset down one row. End With End If 'If the control is not a textbox (if it's the button), do nothing. Next 'Go to the next control. objExcel = Nothing 'Release the object. GC.Collect() 'Clean up. End Sub End Class

    Read the article

  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532  | Next Page >