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  • Prgramming jquery slider

    - by Mirage
    I want to program the jquery slider myself rather than using any plugin. But i want to know the basic idea. e.g I have <ul> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> </ul> I want to show horzontally only three items at one time and there will be arroes left and right end. I know jquery basics. But i don't know how should i do in steps. I mean when click on right arrow The left div should slide left and new div com right should come left ANy ideas in sequence what i need to do

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  • Consolidate multiple site files into single location

    - by seengee
    We have a custom PHP/MySQL CMS running on Linux/Apache thats rolled out to multiple sites (20+) on the same server. Each site uses exactly the same CMS files with a few files for each site being customised. The customised files for each site are: /library/mysql_connect.php /public_html/css/* /public_html/ftparea/* /public_html/images/* There's also a couple of other random files inside /public_html/includes/ that are unique to each site. Other than this each site on the server uses the exact same files. Each site sitting within /home/username/. There is obviously a massive amount of replication here as each time we want to deploy a system update we need to update to each user account. Given the common site files are all stored in SVN it would make far more sense if we were able to simply commit to SVN and deploy to a single location direct from there. Unfortunately, making a major architecture change at this stage could be problematic. In my mind the ideal scenario would mean creating an account like /home/commonfiles/ and each site using these common files unless an account specific file exists, for example a request is made to /home/user/public_html/index.php but as this file doesnt exist the request is then redirected to /home/commonfiles/public_html/index.php. I know that generally this approach is possible, similar to how Zend Framework (and probably others) redirect all requests that dont match a specific file to index.php. I'm just not sure about how exactly to go about implementing it and whether its actually advisable. Would really welcome any input/ideas people have got. Thanks.

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  • C++ - passing references to boost::shared_ptr

    - by abigagli
    If I have a function that needs to work with a shared_ptr, wouldn't it be more efficient to pass it a reference to it (so to avoid copying the shared_ptr object)? What are the possible bad side effects? I envision two possible cases: 1) inside the function a copy is made of the argument, like in ClassA::take_copy_of_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) { ... m_sp_member=sp; //This will copy the object, incrementing refcount ... } 2) inside the function the argument is only used, like in Class::only_work_with_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) //Again, no copy here { ... sp->do_something(); ... } I can't see in both cases a good reason to pass the boost::shared_ptr by value instead of by reference. Passing by value would only "temporarily" increment the reference count due to the copying, and then decrement it when exiting the function scope. Am I overlooking something? Andrea. EDIT: Just to clarify, after reading several answers : I perfectly agree on the premature-optimization concerns, and I alwasy try to first-profile-then-work-on-the-hotspots. My question was more from a purely technical code-point-of-view, if you know what I mean.

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  • How to pass data from selected rows using checkboxes from JSP to the server

    - by eddy
    Hi, I'd like to know if there's any way to send data to the server for the selected rows using the checkboxes I've put on those rows? I mean , how can I send only the data (in this case mileage ) of those selected rows (selected with the checkboxes) to the server ? see the image Here's the html code I use: <table> <thead> <tr class="tableheader"> <td width="10%"></td> <td width="30%">Vehicle</td> <td width="40%">Driver</td> <td width="10%">Mileage</td> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <c:forEach items="${list}" var="item"> <tr> <td align="center"> <input type="checkbox" name="selectedItems" value="c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>"/> </td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/></td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.driver.fullName}" /></td> <td align="left"><input type="text" name="mileage" value="" /></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </tbody> </table> I really hope you can give some guidance on this. Thanks in beforehand.

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  • Where to master HTML, CSS ans Javascript?

    - by Shahensha
    I got interested in web-development lately. I am still a student. I learnt basics of HTML, CSS and JavaScript! Then I thought I should improve my server side scripting. So I am learning Struts2 and I am doing better there. Now I have decided I should finally put my skill to some use. So I and my friend have decided to come up with a fun website for our class. But now I am realizing that, though I know server-side scripting to a good extent (not great, just good considering I am a beginner), I am nowhere near good in the basic elements viz. HTML, CSS and JavaScript! I mean, I can't do cool stuff with it. I am aware of w3schools, but it would be great if you can point out a more intuitive place where I can learn to do all the cool stuff in a short time. Some of the problems I am facing are: 1) How should I design the basic layout of my website? 2) How can I use 3rd party APIs like that of Facebook graph? regards shahensha

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  • Application design question, best approach?

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I am in the process of designing an application that will allow you to find pictures (screen shots) made from certain programs. I will provide the locations of a few of the program in the application itself to get the user started. I was wondering how I should go about adding new locations as the time goes on, my first thought was simply hard coding it into the application but this will mean the user has to reinstall it to make the changes take affect. My second idea was to use an XML file to contain all the locations as well as other data, such as the name of the application. This also means the user can add their own locations if they wish as well as sharing them over the internet. The second option seemed the best approach but then I had to think how would it be managed on the users computer. Ideally I'd like just a single .exe without the reliance on any external files such as the XML but this would bring me back to point one. Would it be best to simply use the ClickOnce deployment to create an entry in the start menu and create a folder containing the .exe and the file names? Thanks for the feedback, I don't want to start implementing the application until the design is nailed.

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  • Got Hacked. Want to understand how.

    - by gaoshan88
    Someone has, for the second time, appended a chunk of javascript to a site I help run. This javascript hijacks Google adsense, inserting their own account number, and sticking ads all over. The code is always appended, always in one specific directory (one used by a third party ad program), affects a number of files in a number of directories inside this one ad dir (20 or so) and is inserted at roughly the same overnight time. The adsense account belongs to a Chinese website (located in a town not an hour from where I will be in China next month. Maybe I should go bust heads... kidding, sort of), btw. So, how could they append text to these files? Is it related to the permissions set on the files (ranging from 755 to 644)? To the webserver user (it's on MediaTemple so it should be secure, yes?)? I mean, if you have a file that has permissions set to 777 I still can't just add code to it at will... how might they be doing this?

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  • Few Basic Questions in Overriding

    - by Dahlia
    I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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  • How to handle checkboxes in ASP.NET MVC forms?

    - by Will
    This seems a bit bizarre to me, but as far as I can tell, this is how you do it. I have a collection of objects, and I want users to select one or more of them. This says to me "form with checkboxes." My objects don't have any concept of "selected" (they're rudimentary POCO's formed by deserializing a wcf call). So, I do the following: public class SampleObject{ public Guid Id {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} } In the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%foreach (var o in ViewData.Model) {%> <%=Html.CheckBox(o.Id)%>&nbsp;<%= o.Name %> <%}%> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <%}%> And, in the controller, this is the only way I can see to figure out what objects the user checked: public ActionResult ThisLooksWeird(FormCollection result) { var winnars = from x in result.AllKeys where result[x] != "false" select x; // yadda } Its freaky in the first place, and secondly, for those items the user checked, the FormCollection lists its value as "true false" rather than just true. Obviously, I'm missing something. I think this is built with the idea in mind that the objects in the collection that are acted upon within the html form are updated using UpdateModel() or through a ModelBinder. But my objects aren't set up for this; does that mean that this is the only way? Is there another way to do it?

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  • I get this error: "glibc detected"

    - by AKGMA
    Hi I just wrote a piece of CPP code and I compiled it using G++ in ubuntu. When I run my code everything is fine, the code runs well and gives output but doesn't exit and it gives this error: *** glibc detected *** ./a.out: free(): invalid next size (fast): 0x09f931f0 *** ======= Backtrace: ========= /lib/libc.so.6(+0x6c501)[0x3de501] /lib/libc.so.6(+0x6dd70)[0x3dfd70] /lib/libc.so.6(cfree+0x6d)[0x3e2e5d] /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.6(_ZdlPv+0x21)[0x6e2441] ./a.out[0x8049ce6] /lib/libc.so.6(+0x2f69e)[0x3a169e] /lib/libc.so.6(+0x2f70f)[0x3a170f] /lib/libc.so.6(__libc_start_main+0xef)[0x388cef] ./a.out[0x8048a61] ======= Memory map: ======== 00219000-0021a000 r-xp 00000000 00:00 0 [vdso] 00354000-00370000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 8781845 /lib/ld-2.12.1.so 00370000-00371000 r--p 0001b000 08:01 8781845 /lib/ld-2.12.1.so 00371000-00372000 rw-p 0001c000 08:01 8781845 /lib/ld-2.12.1.so 00372000-004c9000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 8781869 /lib/libc-2.12.1.so 004c9000-004ca000 ---p 00157000 08:01 8781869 /lib/libc-2.12.1.so 004ca000-004cc000 r--p 00157000 08:01 8781869 /lib/libc-2.12.1.so 004cc000-004cd000 rw-p 00159000 08:01 8781869 /lib/libc-2.12.1.so 004cd000-004d0000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 00638000-00717000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 3935829 /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.6.0.14 00717000-0071b000 r--p 000de000 08:01 3935829 /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.6.0.14 0071b000-0071c000 rw-p 000e2000 08:01 3935829 /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.6.0.14 0071c000-00723000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 00909000-0092d000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 8781918 /lib/libm-2.12.1.so 0092d000-0092e000 r--p 00023000 08:01 8781918 /lib/libm-2.12.1.so 0092e000-0092f000 rw-p 00024000 08:01 8781918 /lib/libm-2.12.1.so 00fdb000-00ff5000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 8781903 /lib/libgcc_s.so.1 00ff5000-00ff6000 r--p 00019000 08:01 8781903 /lib/libgcc_s.so.1 00ff6000-00ff7000 rw-p 0001a000 08:01 8781903 /lib/libgcc_s.so.1 08048000-0804b000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 8652645 /home/akg/Desktop/contest/a.out 0804b000-0804c000 r--p 00002000 08:01 8652645 /home/akg/Desktop/contest/a.out 0804c000-0804d000 rw-p 00003000 08:01 8652645 /home/akg/Desktop/contest/a.out 09f93000-09fb4000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 [heap] b7600000-b7621000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 b7621000-b7700000 ---p 00000000 00:00 0 b7765000-b7768000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 b7775000-b7779000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 bf9a7000-bf9c8000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 [stack] Aborted What does this mean? How can i get rid of it? I'm not using malloc or free , I'm just using vector!

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  • P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical

    - by Bobrovsky
    My code imports following native methods: DeleteObject, GetFontData and SelectObject from gdi32.dll GetDC and ReleaseDC from user32.dll I want to run the code in full trust and medium trust environments (I am fine with exceptions being thrown when these imported methods are indirectly used in medium trust environments). When I run Code Analysis on the code I get warnings like: CA5122 P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical. P/Invoke method 'GdiFont.DeleteObject(IntPtr)' is marked safe-critical. Since P/Invokes may only be called by critical code, this declaration should either be marked as security critical, or have its annotation removed entirely to avoid being misleading. Could someone explain me (in layman terms) what does this warning really mean? I tried putting these imports in static SafeNativeMethods class as internal static methods but this doesn't make the warnings go away. I didn't try to put them in NativeMethods because after reading this article I am unsure that it's the right way to go because I don't want my code to be completely unusable in medium trust environments (I think this will be the consequence of moving imports to NativeMethods). Honestly, I am pretty much confused about the real meaning of the warning and consequences of different options to suppressing it. Could someone shed some light on all this? EDIT: My code target .NET 2.0 framework. Assembly is marked with [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] Methods are declared like this: [DllImport("gdi32")] internal static extern int DeleteObject(HANDLE hObject);

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  • JSmooth question on bundling a JRE

    - by chama
    I'm trying to bundle a JRE with my jar file so that I can run my application on any windows computer, regardless of if it has Java or not. The jsmooth manual says: For the option to work correctly, you have to put a JRE in a directory near the EXE (generally in a subdirectory called "jre" or whatever). Once the exe is generated, it will FIRST try to locate the JRE at the location mentioned. If it can't be found there, then it will fallback in the normal jre look-up mode (search for a jre or a jdk in the Windows registry or in commonly-used environment variables). There is no JVM-version check when using a bundled JRE, as the packager is supposed to bundle a suitable JVM for the application. Does this mean that the jre subfolder should be included in the jar, be its own separate jar, or put in the folder that comes along with the exe? If it is supposed to be in a folder with the exe, how can I specify the relative path to the jre subfolder? My directories are as follows: setup/ -jre/ -myprogram.exe I tried using ..\jre, .\jre, ..\setup\jre in the GUI screen, but none of them worked. Any ideas or leads would be greatly appreciated. Thanks so much! EDIT: when I tried jre (and ..\jre I think), I got the following error message from windows when I tried running it "MyProgram.exe has stopped running." When I look at the problem details, it says APPCRASH and the fault module name is jvm.dll

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  • Thread Safety of C# List<T> for readers

    - by ILIA BROUDNO
    I am planning to create the list once in a static constructor and then have multiple instances of that class read it (and enumerate through it) concurrently without doing any locking. In this article http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/6sh2ey19.aspx MS describes the issue of thread safety as follows: Public static (Shared in Visual Basic) members of this type are thread safe. Any instance members are not guaranteed to be thread safe. A List can support multiple readers concurrently, as long as the collection is not modified. Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure. In the rare case where an enumeration contends with one or more write accesses, the only way to ensure thread safety is to lock the collection during the entire enumeration. To allow the collection to be accessed by multiple threads for reading and writing, you must implement your own synchronization. The "Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure." Statement is what worries me. Does this mean that it is thread safe for readers only scenario, but as long as you do not use enumeration? Or is it safe for my scenario?

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  • Is the Java classpath final after JVM startup?

    - by Jens
    Hi, I have read a lot about the Java class loading process lately. Often I came across texts that claimed that it is not possible to add classes to the classpath during runtime and load them without class loader hackery (URLClassLoaders etc.) As far as I know classes are loaded dynamically. That means their bytecode representation is only loaded and transformed to a java.lang.Class object when needed. So shouldn't it be possible to add a JAR or *.class file to the classpath after the JVM started and load those classes, provided they haven't been loaded yet? (To be clear: In this case the classpath is simple folder on the filesystem. "Adding a JAR or *.class file" simply means dropping them in this folder.) And if not, does that mean that the classpath is searched on JVM startup and all fully qualified names of the found classes are cached in an internal "list"? It would be nice of you if you could point me to some sources in your answers. Preferably the offical SUN documentation: Sun JVM Spec. I have read the spec but could not find anything about the classpath and if it's finalized on JVM startup. P.s. This is a theoretical question. I just want to know if it is possible. There is nothing practical I want to achieve. There is just my thirst for knowledge :)

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  • Dropping not working on Chrome Mac version

    - by user600641
    I tried to work with html5 drag&drop api, and it works very well on my chrome 20.0.1132 on windows machine, but most fun - that the same version of chrome on mac os lion is not working. I mean dragstart is working, but drop event, dragleave, dragover is not fired. Here is html: <form id="fake_form" action="#" > <div id="canvas_wrapper" style="overflow: hidden;width: 600px; position: relative;border: 1px solid black; margin-left: 30px;"> <canvas width="600" height="300" > </canvas> </div> </form> Here is javascript: var canvas = $('canvas')[0]; canvas.addEventListener('dragenter', function(e){ console.log('dragenter'); }, false); canvas.addEventListener('dragleave', function(){ console.log('dragleave'); }, false) canvas.addEventListener('dragover', function(e){ console.log('dragover'); if(e.preventDefault){ e.preventDefault(); } return false; }, false); canvas.ondrop = function(e){ console.log('ondrop'); /** OTHER CODE **/ If it helps: on safari on the same mac - it works, i`m dragging image tags some of them have draggable attribute, some of them - not. Just checked - on canary mac version 22 it works. UPDATE: i figured out that there is some magic with dragstart event, if i delete line with this e.dataTransfer.setData('src', src_var) everythings become working

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  • Proper way of naming your Java Google App Engine Project

    - by Saif Bechan
    I am starting out with Google's App Engine in Java. I have seen the tutorial video but I do not understand the naming of the project package. It is going to be a guestbook, that's why the name is guestbook, I understand that part. But after that I see package name. 1)Is that something you import into the project, or is is something you create. I have seen this a lot in projects, something like com.xxx.xxx. 2)How do you name this type of thing or is this an import. I have looked at another tutorial there they take the naming to a whole new level. The name of both the project and the package is de.vogella.gae.java.todo. 3)What does this mean in java terms. 4)Maybe one of you can help me with this specific project I want to start. I want to create a Google App project that for now only serves static files. I will leave the project empty and just put all my static files in the war directory of the project. I want the domain name to be mydomainstatic

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  • Retrieve only the superclass from a class hierarchy

    - by user1792724
    I have an scenario as the following: @Entity @Table(name = "ANIMAL") @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED) public class Animal implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "S_ANIMAL") @SequenceGenerator(name = "S_ANIMAL", sequenceName = "S_ANIMAL", allocationSize = 1) public int getNumero() { return numero; } public void setNumero(int numero) { this.numero = numero; } . . . } and as the subclass: @Entity @Table(name = "DOG") public class Dog extends Animal { private static final long serialVersionUID = -7341592543130659641L; . . . } I have a JPA Select statement like this: SELECT a FROM Animal a; I'm using Hibernate 3.3.1 As I can see the framework retrieves instances of Animal and also of Dog using a left outer join. Is there a way to Select only the "part" Animal? I mean, the previous Select will get all the Animals, those that are only Animals but not Dogs and those that are Dogs. I want them all, but in the case of Dogs I want to only retrieve the "Animal part" of them. I found the @org.hibernate.annotations.Entity(polymorphism = PolymorphismType.EXPLICIT) but as I could see this only works if Animal isn't an @Entity. Thanks a lot.

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  • PDO using singleton stored as class properity

    - by Misiur
    Hi again. OOP drives me crazy. I can't move PDO to work. Here's my DB class: class DB extends PDO { public function &instance($dsn, $username = null, $password = null, $driver_options = array()) { static $instance = null; if($instance === null) { try { $instance = new self($dsn, $username, $password, $driver_options); } catch(PDOException $e) { throw new DBException($e->getMessage()); } } return $instance; } } It's okay when i do something like this: try { $db = new DB(DB_TYPE.':host='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } catch(DBException $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } But this: try { $db = DB::instance(DB_TYPE.':host='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } catch(DBException $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } Does nothing. I mean, even when I use wrong password/username, I don't get any exception. Second thing - I have class which is "heart" of my site: class Core { static private $instance; public $db; public function __construct() { if(!self::$instance) { $this->db = DB::instance(DB_TYPE.':hpost='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } return self::$instance; } private function __clone() { } } I've tried to use "new DB" inside class, but this: $r = $core->db->query("SELECT * FROM me_config"); print_r($r->fetch()); Return nothing. $sql = "SELECT * FROM me_config"; print_r($core->db->query($sql)); I get: PDOStatement Object ( [queryString] => SELECT * FROM me_config ) I'm really confused, what am I doing wrong?

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  • Eclipse PDT "tips" ?

    - by Pascal MARTIN
    Hi ! (Yes, this is a quite opened and general and subjective question -- it's by design, cause I want tips you think are great !) I'm using Eclipse PDT 2.1 to work in PHP, either for small and/or big projects -- I've been doing so for quite some times, now, actually (since before 1.0 stable, if I remember well)... I was wondering if any of you did know "tips" to be more efficient. Let met explain more in details : I know about things like plugins like Aptana (better editor for JS/CSS), Subversive (for SVN access), RSE, Filesync, integrating Xdebug's debugger, ... What I mean by "tips" is more some little things you discovered one day and since use all the time -- and allow you to be more efficient in your PHP projects. Some examples of "tips" that come to my mind, and that already know and use : ctrl+space to open the list of suggestions for functions / variables names ctrl+shift+R (navigate > open resource) to open a popup which show only files which names contain what you type ; ie, quick opening of files this one might be the perfect example : I know this one is not often known by coworkers and they find it as useful as I do ; so, I guess there might be lots of other things like this one I don't know myself ^^ ctrl+M to switch to full-screen view for the editor (instead of double-click on tabs bar) shift+F2 while on a function name, to open it's page if the PHP manual in a browser Attention Mac Users use Command instead Control. I guess you get the point ; but I'm really open to any suggestion (be it eclipse-related in general, of more PHP/PDT-specific) that can help be be more efficient :-) Anyway, thanks in advance for your help !

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  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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  • After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

    - by Brandi
    I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

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  • data transmission between two sites

    - by SaMSa
    I'm use Asp.Net Mvc 4 www.hostname.com to my site from my report.hostname2.com send and receive data to move directly to that address by the string bi codebehind. querysstring not, because sending a very long string I mean rapor.coskunoglu.net/Pdf address to send string data to move directly to that address PDF of the screen to make it appear so. How can I do this? Thank you, take it easy. I'm sorry, my english is not good. EDIT: I want to use POST. sb - my StringBuilder. byte[] bytt = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(sb.ToString()); WebRequest wr = WebRequest.Create("http://report.hostname2.com/Pdf"); wr.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; wr.ContentLength = bytt.Length; wr.Method = "POST"; Stream st = wr.GetRequestStream(); st.Write(bytt, 0, bytt.Length); st.Close(); After you send the POST I want to go to report.hostname2.com. Did you see this my job?

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  • Python CGI Premature end of script error depending on script parameters.

    - by nickengland
    I have a python script which should parse a file and produce some output to disk, as well as returning a webpage linking to the outputted files. When run with a file posted from the HTML form I get no HTML output back, just a 500 error page and the error_log contains the line: [Mon Apr 19 15:03:23 2010] [error] [client xxx.xxx.121.79] Premature end of script headers: uploadcml.py, referer: http://xxx.ch.cam.ac.uk:9000/ However, the files which the script should be saving are indeed saved to disk. If I run it without any arguments, the script returns the correct HTML indicating no file was parsed. All the information I have found on the web about Premature end of script headers implies it is due to either a missing header, or lack of permissions on the python script but neither can apply to me. The first lines of the script are: #!/home/nwe23/bin/bin/python import cgitb; cgitb.enable() import cgi import pybel,openbabel import random print "Content-Type: text/html" print so when run, I can see no way for it to fail to output the header, and it DOES output the header when run without a file to parse, but when given a file produces the error(but still parsed the file and saves the output to disk!). Does anyone know how this is happening and what can be done to fix it? I have tried adding wrongly-indented gibberish (such as foobar) at various points in the file, and this results in adding an indent error to the error_log wherever it is, even if its the very last line in the script. The Premature script headers error remains though. Does this mean the script is executing all the way through?

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  • Mapping Vectors

    - by Dan Snyder
    Is there a good way to map vectors? Here's an example of what I mean: vec0 = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0] vec1 = [1,4,2,7,3,2] vec2 = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0] vec2 = [7,2,7,9,9,6,1,0,4] vec4 = [0,0,0,0,0,0] mainvec = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,4,2,7,3,2,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,7,2,7,9,9,6,1,0,4,0,0,0,0,0,0] Lets say mainvec doesn't exist (I'm just showing it to you so you can see the general data structure in mind. Now say I want mainvec(12) which would be 4. Is there a good way to map the call of these vectors without just stitching them together into a mainvec? I realize I could make a bunch of if statements that test the index of mainvec and I can then offset each call depending on where the call is within one of the vectors, so for instance: mainvec(12) = vec1(1) which I could do by: mainvec(index) if (index >=13) vect1(index-11); I wonder if there's a concise way of doing this without if statements. Any Ideas?

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  • Technique for selectively formatting data in a PowerShell pipeline and output as HTML

    - by halr9000
    Say that you want to do some fancy formatting of some tabular output from powershell, and the destination is to be html (either for a webserver, or to be sent in an email). Let's say for example that you want certain numeric values to have a different background color. Whatever. I can think of two solid programmatic ways to accomplish this: output XML and transform with XSLT, or output HTML and decorate with CSS. XSLT is probably the harder of the two (I say that because I don't know it), but from what little I recall, it has the benefit of bring able to embed the selection criteria (xpath?) for aforementioned fancy formatting. CSS on the other hand needs a helping hand. If you wanted a certain cell to be treated specially, then you would need to distinguish it from its siblings with a class, id, or something along those lines. PowerShell doesn't really have a way to do that natively, so that would mean parsing the HTML as it leaves convertto-html and adding, for example, a "emphasis" class: <td class="emphasis">32MB</td> I don't like the idea of the required text parsing, especially given that I would rather be able to somehow emphasize what needs emphasizing in Powershell before it hits HTML. Is XSLT the best way? Have suggestions for how to markup the HTML after it leaves convertto-html or ideas of a different way?

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