Search Results

Search found 55738 results on 2230 pages for 'asp net mvc partialview'.

Page 527/2230 | < Previous Page | 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534  | Next Page >

  • Table Adaptor Error when trying update

    - by JasonMc92
    Hi, I have a rather perplexing issue. I am using VB.net and SQL for my project. I have a database, to which the connection works. I also have a data table and data adaptor, both of which I know work. I am trying to update something in the database, yet it isn't working. Assume everything listed is declared correctly. What am I doing wrong? teacher_control_table.Rows(0)("DATA_TeacherLockPasscode") = txtPasscode1.Text table_adaptor2.Update(teacher_control_table) That last line throws the following exception: InvalidOperationException was unhandled. update requires a valid UpdateCommand when passed DataRow collection with modified rows.

    Read the article

  • how to pass an integeter array from a asp.net mvc controller action back to javascript using jquery

    - by oo
    Here is my jQuery code: $.get('/Home/GetList', function(data) { debugger; $('#myMultiSelect').val(data); }); Here is my controller code: public ActionResult GetList(int id) { int[] bodyParts = _repository.GetList(id); //how do i return this as an array back to javascript ?? } if I have the GetList function return an array of integers, how do I return this to the jQuery function?

    Read the article

  • Where does the query language sit within the MVC pattern?

    - by weesilmania
    I'd assume that since the query language sits within the controller (typically) that it belongs to that component, but if I play devil's advocate I'd argue that the query language is execute within the domain of the model, and is tightly coupled to that component so it might also be a part of it. Anyone know the answer? Is there a straight answer or is it technology specific?

    Read the article

  • Does Spring MVC form submit data bind children objects automagically?

    - by predhme
    I have a data model that is something like this: public class Report { // report owner private User user; ... typical getter setter ... } public class User { ... omitted for clarity } What happens is when a report is created, the current user is set to the report user object. When the report is edited, the spring controller handling the POST request is receiving a report where the user object is null. Here is what my controller looks like: @Controller @RequestMapping("/report") public class ReportController { @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String editReport(@PathVariable Long id, Model model) { Report r = backend.getReport(id); // fully loads object model.addAttribute("report", report); return "report/edit"; } @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String process(@ModelAttribute("report") Report r) { backend.save(r); return "redirect:/report/show" + r.getId(); } } I ran things throw the debugger and it looks like in the editReport method the model object is storing the fully loaded report object (I can see the user inside the report). On the form jsp I can do the following: ${report.user.username} and the correct result is rendered. However, when I look at the debugger in the process method, the passed in Report r has a null user. I don't need to do any special data binding to ensure that information is retained do I?

    Read the article

  • Using a custom annotation on a Spring MVC controller method from an interceptor.

    - by Speck
    I have a custom annotation with which I've annotated a method in my Controller alongside a @ReqestMapping. The goal is to use the values set in the custom annotation from a HandlerInterceptor to perform a task. I have the interceptor (HandlerInterceptorAdaptor) mapped and it executes. If I set a breakpoint in my concrete Interceptor I can inspect the HttpServletRequest, HttpServletResponse, and handler Objects. However, I cannot see how to 1, obtain the method which the request is trying to access 2, obtain the Annotations on that method and 3, of course, obtain the values set by the annotation. Can anyone point me to good documentation for this? Please and Thank You.

    Read the article

  • Redirect to current view on error in asp.net mvc?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use TempData["message"] which internally uses session.... It works for me but when i do a return RedirectToAction("Create"); my other values are not restored because i am redirecting to Create view... Any suggestion how to retain the values of textboxes in the view..... if (!regrep.registerUser(reg)) { TempData["message"] = string.Format("{0} already exists", reg.EmailId); return RedirectToAction("Create"); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - Where do you put your .js files if you dont want to store them in /Scripts?

    - by Jimbo
    I have a number of .js files that I would like to be stored in the same directories as their views (they're specific to a view - its simply to keep the javascript separate from the view's HTML) However, adding them to the /Views/ControllerName/ directory wont work because when a request is made to the webserver for the .js file: <script type="text/javascript" src="/Views/ControllerName/myscript.js"></script> It would essentially be directed at the 'Views' controller which obviously doesnt exist. Thanks

    Read the article

  • In .NET MVC, is there an easy way to check if I'm on the home page?

    - by Hairgami_Master
    I need to take a particular action if a user logs in from the home page. In my LogOnModel, I have a hidden field: @Html.Hidden("returnUrl", Request.Url.AbsoluteUri) In my Controller, I need to check if that value is the Home page or not. In the example below, I'm checking to see if the user is on a particular page ("Account/ResetPassword"). Is there a way to check to see if they're on the home page without resorting to regular expressions? [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOnInt(LogOnModel model) { if (model.returnUrl.Contains("/Account/ResetPassword")) { return Json(new { redirectToUrl = @Url.Action("Index","Home")}); } Any ideas? A million thanks!

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC: Where to place validation and how to validation entity references.

    - by arrages
    Let's say I have the following command bean for creating a user: public class CreateUserCommand { private String userName; private String email; private Integer occupationId; pirvate Integer countryId; } occupationId and countryId are drop down selected values on the form. They map to an entity in the database (Occupation, Country). This command object is going to be fed to a service facade like so: userServiceFacade.createUser(CreateUserCommand command); This facade will construct a user entity to be sent to the actual service. So I suppose that in the facade layer I will have to make several dao calls to map all the lookup properties of the User entity. Based on this what is the best strategy to validate that occupationId and countryId map to real entities? Where is the best place to perform this validation? There is the spring validator but I am not sure this is the best place for this, for one I am wary of this method as validation is tied to the web tier, but also that means I would need to make the dao calls in the validator for validation but I would need to call the dao's in the facade layer again when the command - entity translation occurs. Is there anything I can do better? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to provide warnings during validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Alex
    Sometimes user input is not strictly invalid but can be considered problematic. For example: A user enters a long sentence in a single-line Name field. He probably should have used the Description field instead. A user enters a Name that is very similar to that of an existing entity. Perhaps he's inputting the same entity but didn't realize it already exists, or some concurrent user has just entered it. Some of these can easily be checked client-side, some require server-side checks. What's the best way, perhaps something similar to DataAnnotations validation, to provide warnings to the user in such cases? The key here is that the user has to be able to override the warning and still submit the form (or re-submit the form, depending on the implementation). The most viable solution that comes to mind is to create some attribute, similar to a CustomValidationAttribute, that may make an AJAX call and would display some warning text but doesn't affect the ModelState. The intended usage is this: [WarningOnFieldLength(MaxLength = 150)] [WarningOnPossibleDuplicate()] public string Name { get; set; } In the view: @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Name) @Html.WarningMessageFor(model => model.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name) So, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASPNET MVC what do you call this, a partial view? Or something else?

    - by JK
    I'm trying to google for info on a situation, but I dont know what it is called, so its hard to find results :) I have a model with say 10 fields. But only some of those are shown on a particular view, lets say 3 of them: id, name, date. What do you call this kind of view that does not display the whole model? A partial view? The problem is that because 7 fields are not sent to the view, when the Update action is called on the controller, those fields are null, and the DB gets updated with those 7 fields set to null.

    Read the article

  • How to access data binding object in aspx page in ASP.NET?

    - by weilin8
    I am trying to hide or show a certain section of my table depending on the value of a property in my binding object(s). public class Class1 { public bool Display { get; set; } } In ASP.NET MVC, I can just do the following (assuming that Class1 is the model that binds to the page.) <table> <tr>Row 1</tr> <tr>Row 2</tr> <% if(Model.Display) { %> <tr>Row 3</tr> <tr>Row 4</tr> <% } %> </table> How can I achieve the same behavior in transitional ASP.NET? That "Model" variable is not available. How do I retrieve the data binding object? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • asp.net impersonation identity: Where does it come from?

    - by Rising Star
    Here's a simple question I've been stuck on for a while. When I set < identity impersonate=true > in my web.config so that asp.net impersonates the logged on user automatically (or the anonymous account if not using Windows Authentication), where does the identity that asp.net impersonates come from? This document: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff649264.aspx shows three places you can retrieve information about the logged on user: Httpcontext.Current.user System.Threading.Thread.Current System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent It seems that none of these locations consistently match the identity that gets impersonated when I set < identity impersonate=true > in web.config. I would like to know where the impersonated identity comes from.

    Read the article

  • how to pass an array from a asp.net mvc controller action back to javascript using jquery / ajax

    - by oo
    Here is my jQuery code: $.get('/Home/GetList', function(data) { debugger; $('#myMultiSelect').val(values); }); Here is my controller code: public ActionResult GetList(int id) { int[] bodyParts = _repository.GetList(id); //how do i return this as an array back to javascript ?? } if I have the GetList function return an array of integers, how do I return this to the jQuery function?

    Read the article

  • SqlCeCommand ExecuteNonQuery performance issue

    - by Michael
    I've been asked to resolve an issue with a .Net/SqlServerCe application. Specifically, after repeated inserts against the db, performance becomes increasingly degraded. In one instance at ~200 rows, in another at ~1000 rows. In the latter case the code being used looks like this: Dim cm1 As System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeCommand = cn1.CreateCommand cm1.CommandText = "INSERT INTO Table1 Values(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)" For j = 0 To ds.Tables(0).Rows.Count - 1 'this is 3110 For i = 0 To 12 cm1.Parameters(tbl(i, 0)).Value = Vals(j,i) 'values taken from a different db Next cm1.ExecuteNonQuery() Next The specifics aren't super important (like what 'tbl' is, etc) but rather whether or not this code should be expected to handle this number of inserts, or if the crawl I'm witnessing is to be expected.

    Read the article

  • How do I obtain an HtmlHelper<TModel> instance for a model in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by DanM
    Let's say I have an Index view. The model I pass in is actually a collection of models, so the Html property is of type HtmlHelper<List<MyModel>>. If I want to call extension methods (e.g., Display() or DisplayFor() on the individual items in the list, however, I think I need to obtain an HtmlHelper<MyModel>. But how? I tried using the HtmlHelper<TModel> constructor, which looks like this: HtmlHelper<TModel>(ViewContext, IViewDataContainer) But I'm not having any luck with that. I don't know how to obtain the IViewDataContainer for the item, and the documentation on these things is very sparse. A lot of magic apparently happens when I do... return View(List<MyModel>); ...in my controller. How do I recreate that magic on individual items in a list/collection?

    Read the article

  • 'cross-referencing' DataTable's

    - by Lee
    I have a DataGridView that is being filled with data from a table. Inside this table is a column called 'group' that has the ID of an individual group in another table. What I would like to do, is when the DataGridView is filled, instead of showing the ID contained in 'group', I'd like it to display the name of the group. Is there some type of VB.net 'magic' that can do this, or do I need to cross-reference the data myself? Here is a breakdown of what the 2 tables look like: table1 id group (this holds the value of column id in table 2) weight last_update table2 id description (this is what I would like to be displayed in the DGV.) BTW - I am using Visual Studio Express.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534  | Next Page >