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  • is it right to call ejb bean from thread by ThreadPoolExecutor?

    - by kislo_metal
    I trying to call some ejb bean method from tread. and getting error : (as is glassfish v3) Log Level SEVERE Logger javax.enterprise.system.std.com.sun.enterprise.v3.services.impl Name-Value Pairs {_ThreadName=Thread-1, _ThreadID=42} Record Number 928 Message ID java.lang.NullPointerException at ua.co.rufous.server.broker.TempLicService.run(TempLicService.java Complete Message 35) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:886) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:908) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:637) here is tread public class TempLicService implements Runnable { String hash; //it`s Stateful bean @EJB private LicActivatorLocal lActivator; public TempLicService(String hash) { this.hash= hash; } @Override public void run() { lActivator.proccessActivation(hash); } } my ThreadPoolExecutor public class RequestThreadPoolExecutor extends ThreadPoolExecutor { private boolean isPaused; private ReentrantLock pauseLock = new ReentrantLock(); private Condition unpaused = pauseLock.newCondition(); private static RequestThreadPoolExecutor threadPool; private RequestThreadPoolExecutor() { super(1, Integer.MAX_VALUE, 10, TimeUnit.SECONDS, new LinkedBlockingQueue<Runnable>()); System.out.println("RequestThreadPoolExecutor created"); } public static RequestThreadPoolExecutor getInstance() { if (threadPool == null) threadPool = new RequestThreadPoolExecutor(); return threadPool; } public void runService(Runnable task) { threadPool.execute(task); } protected void beforeExecute(Thread t, Runnable r) { super.beforeExecute(t, r); pauseLock.lock(); try { while (isPaused) unpaused.await(); } catch (InterruptedException ie) { t.interrupt(); } finally { pauseLock.unlock(); } } public void pause() { pauseLock.lock(); try { isPaused = true; } finally { pauseLock.unlock(); } } public void resume() { pauseLock.lock(); try { isPaused = false; unpaused.signalAll(); } finally { pauseLock.unlock(); } } public void shutDown() { threadPool.shutdown(); } //<<<<<< creating thread here public void runByHash(String hash) { Runnable service = new TempLicService(hash); threadPool.runService(service); } } and method where i call it (it is gwt servlet, but there is no proble to call thread that not contain ejb) : @Override public Boolean submitHash(String hash) { System.out.println("submiting hash"); try { if (tBoxService.getTempLicStatus(hash) == 1) { //<<< here is the call RequestThreadPoolExecutor.getInstance().runByHash(hash); return true; } } catch (NoResultException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return false; } I need to organize some pool of submitting hash to server (calls of LicActivator bean), is ThreadPoolExecutor design good idea and why it is not working in my case? (as I know we can`t create thread inside bean, but could we call bean from different threads? ). If No, what is the bast practice for organize such request pool? Thanks. << Answer: I am using DI (EJB 3.1) soo i do not need any look up here. (application packed in ear and both modules in it (web module and ejb), it works perfect for me). But I can use it only in managed classes. So.. 2.Can I use manual look up in Tread ? Could I use Bean that extends ThreadPoolExecutor and calling another bean that implements Runnable ? Or it is not allowed ?

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  • Server being used to send spam mail. How do I investigate?

    - by split_account
    Problem I think my server is being used to send spam with sendmail, I'm getting a lot of mail being queued up that I don't recognize and my mail.log and syslog are getting huge. I've shutdown sendmail, so none of it is getting out but I can't work out where it's coming from. Investigation so far: I've tried the solution in the blog post below and also shown in this thread. It's meant to add a header from wherever the mail is being added and log all all mail to file, so I changed the following lines in my php.ini file: mail.add_x_header = On mail.log = /var/log/phpmail.log But nothing is appearing in the phpmail.log. I used the command here to investigate cron jobs for all users, but nothing is out of place. The only cron being run is the cron for the website. And then I brought up all php files which had been modified in the last 30 days but none of them look suspicious. What else can I do to find where this is coming from? Mail.log reports Turned sendmail back on for second. Here is a small sample of the reports: Jun 10 14:40:30 ubuntu12 sm-mta[13684]: s5ADeQdp013684: from=<>, size=2431, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, proto=ESMTP, daemon=MTA-v4, relay=localhost [127.0.0.1] Jun 10 14:40:30 ubuntu12 sm-msp-queue[13674]: s5ACK1cC011438: to=www-data, delay=01:20:14, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=571670, relay=[127.0.0.1] [127.0.0.1], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (s5ADeQdp013684 Message accepted for delivery) Jun 10 14:40:30 ubuntu12 sm-mta[13719]: s5ADeQdp013684: to=<[email protected]>, delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=local, pri=32683, dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent Jun 10 14:40:30 ubuntu12 sm-mta[13684]: s5ADeQdr013684: from=<[email protected]>, size=677, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, proto=ESMTP, daemon=MTA-v4, relay=localhost [127.0.0.1] Jun 10 14:40:31 ubuntu12 sm-msp-queue[13674]: s5AC0gpi011125: to=www-data, ctladdr=www-data (33/33), delay=01:39:49, xdelay=00:00:01, mailer=relay, pri=660349, relay=[127.0.0.1] [127.0.0.1], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (s5ADeQdr013684 Message accepted for delivery) Jun 10 14:40:31 ubuntu12 sm-mta[13721]: s5ADeQdr013684: to=<[email protected]>, ctladdr=<[email protected]> (33/33), delay=00:00:01, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=local, pri=30946, dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent Jun 10 14:40:31 ubuntu12 sm-mta[13684]: s5ADeQdt013684: from=<[email protected]>, size=677, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, proto=ESMTP, daemon=MTA-v4, relay=localhost [127.0.0.1] Jun 10 14:40:31 ubuntu12 sm-msp-queue[13674]: s5ACF2Nq011240: to=www-data, ctladdr=www-data (33/33), delay=01:25:29, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=660349, relay=[127.0.0.1] [127.0.0.1], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (s5ADeQdt013684 Message accepted for delivery) Jun 10 14:40:31 ubuntu12 sm-mta[13723]: s5ADeQdt013684: to=<[email protected]>, ctladdr=<[email protected]> (33/33), delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=local, pri=30946, dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent Ju Further Investigation Spotted 4 spam accounts registered in the past day, which is suspicious however all have normal user privileges. There are no contact forms on the site, there are a number of forms and they take either filtered text input or plain text input. Mail is still being queued up having switched the website to maintenance mode, which blocks out everyone but the admin. Ok more investigation, it looks like the email is being send by my websites cron which runs every 5 minutes. However there are no cron jobs I've set-up which run more than once an hour and show on the website log so presumably someone has managed to edit my cron somehow. Copy of email: V8 T1402410301 K1402411201 N2 P120349 I253/1/369045 MDeferred: Connection refused by [127.0.0.1] Fbs $_www-data@localhost ${daemon_flags}c u Swww-data [email protected] MDeferred: Connection refused by [127.0.0.1] C:www-data rRFC822; [email protected] RPFD:www-data H?P?Return-Path: <?g> H??Received: (from www-data@localhost) by ubuntu12.pcsmarthosting.co.uk (8.14.4/8.14.4/Submit) id s5AEP13T015507 for www-data; Tue, 10 Jun 2014 15:25:01 +0100 H?D?Date: Tue, 10 Jun 2014 15:25:01 +0100 H?x?Full-Name: CronDaemon H?M?Message-Id: <[email protected]> H??From: root (Cron Daemon) H??To: www-data H??Subject: Cron <www-data@ubuntu12> /usr/bin/drush @main elysia-cron H??Content-Type: text/plain; charset=ANSI_X3.4-1968 H??X-Cron-Env: <PATH=/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin:/sbin:/bin> H??X-Cron-Env: <COLUMNS=80> H??X-Cron-Env: <SHELL=/bin/sh> H??X-Cron-Env: <HOME=/var/www> H??X-Cron-Env: <LOGNAME=www-data>

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  • Getting my string value from my form into my class( not another form)

    - by jovany
    Hello all, I have a question regarding the some data which is being transfered from one form to my class. It's not going quite the way i'd like to , so I figured maybe there is someone who could help me. This is my code in my class Public Class DrawableTextBox Inherits Drawable Dim i_testString As Integer Private s_InsertLabel As String Private drawFont As Font Public Sub New(ByVal fore_color As Color, ByVal fill_color As Color, Optional ByVal line_width As Integer = 0, Optional ByVal new_x1 As Integer = 0, Optional ByVal new_y1 As Integer = 0, Optional ByVal new_x2 As Integer = 1, Optional ByVal new_y2 As Integer = 1) MyBase.New(fore_color, fill_color, line_width) X1 = new_x1 Y1 = new_y1 X2 = new_x2 Y2 = new_y2 Trace.WriteLine(s_InsertLabel) End Sub Friend WriteOnly Property _textBox() As String Set(ByVal Value As String) s_InsertLabel = Value Trace.WriteLine(s_InsertLabel) End Set End Property ' Draw the object on this Graphics surface. Public Overrides Sub Draw(ByVal gr As System.Drawing.Graphics) ' Make a Rectangle representing this rectangle. Dim rect As Rectangle = GetBounds() ' Fill the rectangle as usual. Dim fill_brush As New SolidBrush(FillColor) gr.FillRectangle(fill_brush, rect) fill_brush.Dispose() ' See if we're selected. If IsSelected Then ' Draw the rectangle highlighted. Dim highlight_pen As New Pen(Color.Yellow, LineWidth) gr.DrawRectangle(highlight_pen, rect) highlight_pen.Dispose() ' Draw grab handles. Trace.WriteLine("drawing the lines for my textbox") DrawGrabHandle(gr, X1, Y1) DrawGrabHandle(gr, X1, Y2) DrawGrabHandle(gr, X2, Y2) DrawGrabHandle(gr, X2, Y1) Else 'TextBox() Dim fg_pen As New Pen(Color.Red, LineWidth) 'Dim fontSize As Single = 0.1 + ((Y2 - Y1) / 2) Dim fontSize As Single = 20 Try Dim drawFont As New Font("Arial", fontSize, FontStyle.Bold) Trace.WriteLine(s_InsertLabel) gr.DrawString(s_InsertLabel, drawFont, Brushes.Brown, X1, Y1) Catch ex As ArgumentException End Try gr.DrawRectangle(Pens.Azure, rect) ' gr.DrawRectangle(fg_pen, rect) fg_pen.Dispose() End If End Sub Public Function GetValueString(ByVal ValueType As String) Return ValueType End Function ' Return the object's bounding rectangle. Public Overrides Function GetBounds() As System.Drawing.Rectangle Return New Rectangle( _ Min(X1, X2), _ Min(Y1, Y2), _ Abs(100), _ Abs(30)) Trace.WriteLine("don't forget to make variables in GetBounds DrawableTextbox") End Function ' Return True if this point is on the object. Public Overrides Function IsAt(ByVal x As Integer, ByVal y As Integer) As Boolean Return (x >= Min(X1, X2)) AndAlso _ (x <= Max(X1, X2)) AndAlso _ (y >= Min(Y1, Y2)) AndAlso _ (y <= Max(Y1, Y2)) End Function ' Move the second point. Public Overrides Sub NewPoint(ByVal x As Integer, ByVal y As Integer) X2 = x Y2 = y End Sub ' Return True if the object is empty (e.g. a zero-length line). Public Overrides Function IsEmpty() As Boolean Return (X1 = X2) AndAlso (Y1 = Y2) End Function End Class I've got a form with a textbox( form1) in which the text is being inserted and passed through a buttonclick (al via properties). As you can see I've placed several traces and in the property of the class my trace works fine , however if I look in my Draw function it is already gone. And I get a blank trace. Does anyone know what's happening here. thanks in advance. (forgive me I'm new )

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  • Cluster failover and strange gratuitous arp behavior

    - by lazerpld
    I am experiencing a strange Windows 2008R2 cluster related issue that is bothering me. I feel that I have come close as to what the issue is, but still don't fully understand what is happening. I have a two node exchange 2007 cluster running on two 2008R2 servers. The exchange cluster application works fine when running on the "primary" cluster node. The problem occurs when failing over the cluster ressource to the secondary node. When failing over the cluster to the "secondary" node, which for instance is on the same subnet as the "primary", the failover initially works ok and the cluster ressource continues to work for a couple of minutes on the new node. Which means that the recieving node does send out a gratuitous arp reply packet that updated the arp tables on the network. But after x amount of time (typically within 5 minutes time) something updates the arp-tables again because all of a sudden the cluster service does not answer to pings. So basically I start a ping to the exchange cluster address when its running on the "primary node". It works just great. I failover the cluster ressource group to the "secondary node" and I only have loss of one ping which is acceptable. The cluster ressource still answers for some time after being failed over and all of a sudden the ping starts timing out. This is telling me that the arp table initially is updated by the secondary node, but then something (which I haven't found out yet) wrongfully updates it again, probably with the primary node's MAC. Why does this happen - has anyone experienced the same problem? The cluster is NOT running NLB and the problem stops immidiately after failing over back to the primary node where there are no problems. Each node is using NIC teaming (intel) with ALB. Each node is on the same subnet and has gateway and so on entered correctly as far as I am concerned. Edit: I was wondering if it could be related to network binding order maybe? Because I have noticed that the only difference I can see from node to node is when showing the local arp table. On the "primary" node the arp table is generated on the cluster address as the source. While on the "secondary" its generated from the nodes own network card. Any input on this? Edit: Ok here is the connection layout. Cluster address: A.B.6.208/25 Exchange application address: A.B.6.212/25 Node A: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.210/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.138/24 Node B: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.211/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.139/24 Each node sits in a seperate datacenter connected together. End switches being cisco in DC1 and NEXUS 5000/2000 in DC2. Edit: I have been testing a little more. I have now created an empty application on the same cluster, and given it another ip address on the same subnet as the exchange application. After failing this empty application over, I see the exact same problem occuring. After one or two minutes clients on other subnets cannot ping the virtual ip of the application. But while clients on other subnets cannot, another server from another cluster on the same subnet has no trouble pinging. But if i then make another failover to the original state, then the situation is the opposite. So now clients on same subnet cannot, and on other they can. We have another cluster set up the same way and on the same subnet, with the same intel network cards, the same drivers and same teaming settings. Here we are not seeing this. So its somewhat confusing. Edit: OK done some more research. Removed the NIC teaming of the secondary node, since it didnt work anyway. After some standard problems following that, I finally managed to get it up and running again with the old NIC teaming settings on one single physical network card. Now I am not able to reproduce the problem described above. So it is somehow related to the teaming - maybe some kind of bug? Edit: Did some more failing over without being able to make it fail. So removing the NIC team looks like it was a workaround. Now I tried to reestablish the intel NIC teaming with ALB (as it was before) and i still cannot make it fail. This is annoying due to the fact that now i actually cannot pinpoint the root of the problem. Now it just seems to be some kind of MS/intel hick-up - which is hard to accept because what if the problem reoccurs in 14 days? There is a strange thing that happened though. After recreating the NIC team I was not able to rename the team to "PUBLIC" which the old team was called. So something has not been cleaned up in windows - although the server HAS been restarted! Edit: OK after restablishing the ALB teaming the error came back. So I am now going to do some thorough testing and i will get back with my observations. One thing is for sure. It is related to Intel 82575EB NICS, ALB and Gratuitous Arp.

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  • Understanding CLR 2.0 Memory Model

    - by Eloff
    Joe Duffy, gives 6 rules that describe the CLR 2.0+ memory model (it's actual implementation, not any ECMA standard) I'm writing down my attempt at figuring this out, mostly as a way of rubber ducking, but if I make a mistake in my logic, at least someone here will be able to catch it before it causes me grief. Rule 1: Data dependence among loads and stores is never violated. Rule 2: All stores have release semantics, i.e. no load or store may move after one. Rule 3: All volatile loads are acquire, i.e. no load or store may move before one. Rule 4: No loads and stores may ever cross a full-barrier (e.g. Thread.MemoryBarrier, lock acquire, Interlocked.Exchange, Interlocked.CompareExchange, etc.). Rule 5: Loads and stores to the heap may never be introduced. Rule 6: Loads and stores may only be deleted when coalescing adjacent loads and stores from/to the same location. I'm attempting to understand these rules. x = y y = 0 // Cannot move before the previous line according to Rule 1. x = y z = 0 // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load 0 store z Looking at this, it appears that the load 0 can be moved up to before load y, but the stores may not be re-ordered at all. Therefore, if a thread sees z == 0, then it also will see x == y. If y was volatile, then load 0 could not move before load y, otherwise it may. Volatile stores don't seem to have any special properties, no stores can be re-ordered with respect to each other (which is a very strong guarantee!) Full barriers are like a line in the sand which loads and stores can not be moved over. No idea what rule 5 means. I guess rule 6 means if you do: x = y x = z Then it is possible for the CLR to delete both the load to y and the first store to x. x = y z = y // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load y store z // could be re-ordered like this load y load y store x store z // rule 6 applied means this is possible? load y store x // but don't pop y from stack (or first duplicate item on top of stack) store z What if y was volatile? I don't see anything in the rules that prohibits the above optimization from being carried out. This does not violate double-checked locking, because the lock() between the two identical conditions prevents the loads from being moved into adjacent positions, and according to rule 6, that's the only time they can be eliminated. So I think I understand all but rule 5, here. Anyone want to enlighten me (or correct me or add something to any of the above?)

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  • Someone please help google create instuctions that windows users understand. googles "instructions"

    - by nathan
    Below are the only instructions i managed to find from google on how to install the android NDK, it is written as if we all run Linux and presumes we all understand what these obscure tools are. My comments and questions appear in Italics if somone who knows unix and windows would translate for google that would be great! Android NDK Installation Introduction: Please read docs/OVERVIEW.TXT to understand what the Android NDK is and is not. This file gives instructions on how to properly setup your NDK. I. Requirements: The Android NDK currently requires a Linux, OS X or Windows host operating system. Windows users will need to install Cygwin (http://www.cygwin.com) to use it. Note that running the NDK under MSys is not supported. You will need to have the Android SDK and its dependencies installed. The NDK cannot generate final application packages (.apk files), only the shared library files that can go into them. IMPORTANT: The Android NDK can only be used to target system images using the Cupcake (1.5) or later releases of the platform. This is due to subtle toolchain and ABI related changed that make it incompatible with 1.0 and 1.1 system images. The NDK requires GNU Make 3.81 or later being available on your development system. Earlier versions of GNU Make might work but have not been tested. You can check this by running 'make -v' from the command-line. The output should look like: GNU Make 3.81 Copyright (C) 2006 Free Software Foundation, Inc. ... On certain systems, GNU Make might be available through a different command like 'gmake' or 'gnumake'. For these systems, replace 'make' by the appropriate command when invoking the NDK build system as described in the documentation. Great some strange thing called gnu make.. if your not going to tell me what it does maybe you then at least you could give me a URL to it? The NDK also requires a Nawk or GNU Awk executable being available on your development system. Note that the original 'awk' program doesn't implement the 'match' and 'substr' functions used by the NDK build system. Ok another tool, with 1 of 2 possible names, but not the third... and again where should i download this?? On Windows, you will need to install a recent release of Cygwin to use the NDK. See http://www.cygwin.com for instructions. Woohoo a URL! download took about a day because these install instructions do not specify what parts to download. II. Preparing your installation prebuilt cross-toolchain binaries: After installing and unarchiving the NDK, you will need to run the following command from the root folder: build/host-setup.sh hello? windows dont run nothing but .exe .com or .dll, just tell me how you want me to run it.. This will test your setup and make sure the NDK can work properly. Nothing is said about where any of these things need to be installed to (what directory)

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  • IE8 web slice - CSS problem

    - by rjovic
    Again me with IE8 web slice :) This time i have following problem. I created web slice for IE8 and created button for users where they can choice to add it to their browsers. Code is : <input class="add" type="button" value="Dodaj Xica web slice u IE8!" onclick='window.external.AddToFavoritesBar("http://localhost:51914/Home/GetWebSlice", "xica.rjovic.com", "slice");' /> There is everything fine, and web slice is added to IE8 and web page is displayed correct. But I have problem with CSS in web slice. I defined css in it, but when web slice i rendered there are only black fonts without any css properties. My web slice is defined as : <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>GetWebSlice</title> <style type="text/css"> p {color: white; } body {background-color: blue; } .container {background-color: red;} </style> </head> <body> <div class="hslice container" id="xica"> <h2 class="entry-title container">Xica web slice</h2> <div class="entry-content"> <h2>Saldo : <b><%= ViewData["total"] %></b></h2> <p><%= ViewData["cardNumber"] %></p> <p>Status : <%= ViewData["status"] %></p> </div> </div> </body> </html> When I try to see web slice directly in my browser then everything is ok, and css is show as expected. Thank you...! EDIT : here is the picture of problem : http://www.deviantpics.com/share-2F10_4BD73E25.html

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  • Last Grid Column Not Auto Resizing With Grid

    - by photo_tom
    I'm having a problem with my TextBoxs not "Auto" resizing. I'm trying to create a form that behaves and looks like the Properties Editor in Visual Studio. What appears to be happening is that the third column is not expanding to fill all of the available remaining space in the grid. Image below is how my form looks on startup. The width of the textboxs is determined by the MinWidth setting on the third ColumnDefinition statement. Also, the Width is set to "*". With any other setting, the resizing done with the GridSplitter doesn't work correctly. <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical" VerticalAlignment="Top" x:Name="Stacker" Grid.IsSharedSizeScope="True"> <Expander x:Name="Expand" IsExpanded="True" Header="This is a test of a Second Panel" Width="{Binding Width, ElementName=Stacker}"> <Grid x:Name="EditGrid1" Margin="3" > <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" MinWidth="50" SharedSizeGroup="SharedSize1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="SharedSize2" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" MinWidth="50" x:Name="ValueCol" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <GridSplitter Grid.Column="1" x:Name="ToolBoxSplitter1" Grid.Row="1" Grid.RowSpan="6" Panel.ZIndex="1" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" ResizeBehavior="PreviousAndNext" Width="3"/> <TextBlock MaxHeight="40" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Text="{x:Static lex:DoSomeThingView.Name}" /> <TextBlock MaxHeight="40" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="2" Text="{x:Static lex:DoSomeThingView.Address}" /> <TextBlock MaxHeight="40" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="3" Text="{x:Static lex:DoSomeThingView.Zip}" /> <TextBlock MaxHeight="40" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="4" Text="{x:Static lex:DoSomeThingView.NumberOfDoors}" TextTrimming="CharacterEllipsis" Grid.IsSharedSizeScope="True" /> <TextBlock MaxHeight="40" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="5" Text="{x:Static lex:DoSomeThingView.DoubleNumber}" /> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" x:Name="UserName1" MaxHeight="50" TextWrapping="Wrap" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" SpellCheck.IsEnabled="True" /> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="2" x:Name="Address1" /> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="3" x:Name="Zip1" /> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="4" x:Name="NumberOfDoors1" /> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="5" x:Name="DoubleNumber1" /> </Grid> </Expander> </StackPanel> Any suggestions on how to correct this?

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  • Why does Keychain Services return the wrong keychain content?

    - by Graham Lee
    I've been trying to use persistent keychain references in an iPhone application. I found that if I created two different keychain items, I would get a different persistent reference each time (they look like 'genp.......1', 'genp.......2', …). However, attempts to look up the items by persistent reference always returned the content of the first item. Why should this be? I confirmed that my keychain-saving code was definitely creating new items in each case (rather than updating existing items), and was not getting any errors. And as I say, Keychain Services is giving a different persistent reference for each item. I've managed to solve my immediate problem by searching for keychain items by attribute rather than persistent references, but it would be easier to use persistent references so I'd appreciate solving this problem. Here's my code: - (NSString *)keychainItemWithName: (NSString *)name { NSString *path = [GLApplicationSupportFolder() stringByAppendingPathComponent: name]; NSData *persistentRef = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile: path]; if (!persistentRef) { NSLog(@"no persistent reference for name: %@", name); return nil; } NSArray *refs = [NSArray arrayWithObject: persistentRef]; //get the data CFMutableDictionaryRef params = CFDictionaryCreateMutable(NULL, 0, &kCFTypeDictionaryKeyCallBacks, &kCFTypeDictionaryValueCallBacks); CFDictionaryAddValue(params, kSecMatchItemList, refs); CFDictionaryAddValue(params, kSecClass, kSecClassGenericPassword); CFDictionaryAddValue(params, kSecReturnData, kCFBooleanTrue); CFDataRef item = NULL; OSStatus result = SecItemCopyMatching(params, (CFTypeRef *)&item); CFRelease(params); if (result != errSecSuccess) { NSLog(@"error %d retrieving keychain reference for name: %@", result, name); return nil; } NSString *token = [[NSString alloc] initWithData: (NSData *)item encoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; CFRelease(item); return [token autorelease]; } - (void)setKeychainItem: (NSString *)newToken forName: (NSString *)name { NSData *tokenData = [newToken dataUsingEncoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; //firstly, find out whether the item already exists NSDictionary *searchAttributes = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: name, kSecAttrAccount, kCFBooleanTrue, kSecReturnAttributes, nil]; NSDictionary *foundAttrs = nil; OSStatus searchResult = SecItemCopyMatching((CFDictionaryRef)searchAttributes, (CFTypeRef *)&foundAttrs); if (noErr == searchResult) { NSMutableDictionary *toStore = [foundAttrs mutableCopy]; [toStore setObject: tokenData forKey: (id)kSecValueData]; OSStatus result = SecItemUpdate((CFDictionaryRef)foundAttrs, (CFDictionaryRef)toStore); if (result != errSecSuccess) { NSLog(@"error %d updating keychain", result); } [toStore release]; return; } //need to create the item. CFMutableDictionaryRef params = CFDictionaryCreateMutable(NULL, 0, &kCFTypeDictionaryKeyCallBacks, &kCFTypeDictionaryValueCallBacks); CFDictionaryAddValue(params, kSecClass, kSecClassGenericPassword); CFDictionaryAddValue(params, kSecAttrAccount, name); CFDictionaryAddValue(params, kSecReturnPersistentRef, kCFBooleanTrue); CFDictionaryAddValue(params, kSecValueData, tokenData); NSData *persistentRef = nil; OSStatus result = SecItemAdd(params, (CFTypeRef *)&persistentRef); CFRelease(params); if (result != errSecSuccess) { NSLog(@"error %d from keychain services", result); return; } NSString *path = [GLApplicationSupportFolder() stringByAppendingPathComponent: name]; [persistentRef writeToFile: path atomically: NO]; [persistentRef release]; }

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  • PHP MVC Principles

    - by George
    I'm not using an off-the-shelf framework and don't particularly want to (nor d I want to go into the reasons why...). Anyway, onto my question(s), I hope it make sense.... I'm trying to get my head around what should go in the model and what should go in the controller. Originally I had the impression that a model class should represent an actual object (eg - a car from the cars table of a database) and model properties should mirror the database fields. However I'm now getting the feeling that I've got the wrong idea - should an instance of a model class represent an actual item, or should it contain a number of methods for doing stuff - sometimes to one car or sometimes to multiple cars based on my example earlier. For example I want to get all the cars from a the database and show them in the view. Am I right in think it should be along the lines of this? Controller File function list() { $cars = $this->model->get_all(); $this->view->add($cars); $this->view->render('cars-list'); } Model File function get_all() { // Use a database interaction class that I've written $cars = Database::select(); return $cars; } Now, if the car had a "status" field that was stored as an integer in the database and I wanted to change that to a string, where should that be done? By looping the SQL results array in the get_all() method in the model? Also, where should form validation live? I have written a validation class that works a little like this: $validator = new Validator(); $validator->check('field_name', 'required'); If the check fails, it adds an error message to the array in the Validator. This array of error messages would then get passed to the view. Should the use of my validator class go in model or the controller? Thanks in advance for for any help anyone can offer. If you know of any links to a simple MVC example / open source application that deals with basic CRUD, they would be much appreciated.

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  • NHibernate FetchMode.Lazy

    - by RyanFetz
    I have an object which has a property on it that has then has collections which i would like to not load in a couple situations. 98% of the time i want those collections fetched but in the one instance i do not. Here is the code I have... Why does it not set the fetch mode on the properties collections? [DataContract(Name = "ThemingJob", Namespace = "")] [Serializable] public class ThemingJob : ServiceJob { [DataMember] public virtual Query Query { get; set; } [DataMember] public string Results { get; set; } } [DataContract(Name = "Query", Namespace = "")] [Serializable] public class Query : LookupEntity<Query>, DAC.US.Search.Models.IQueryEntity { [DataMember] public string QueryResult { get; set; } private IList<Asset> _Assets = new List<Asset>(); [IgnoreDataMember] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnore] public IList<Asset> Assets { get { return _Assets; } set { _Assets = value; } } private IList<Theme> _Themes = new List<Theme>(); [IgnoreDataMember] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnore] public IList<Theme> Themes { get { return _Themes; } set { _Themes = value; } } private IList<Affinity> _Affinity = new List<Affinity>(); [IgnoreDataMember] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnore] public IList<Affinity> Affinity { get { return _Affinity; } set { _Affinity = value; } } private IList<Word> _Words = new List<Word>(); [IgnoreDataMember] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnore] public IList<Word> Words { get { return _Words; } set { _Words = value; } } } using (global::NHibernate.ISession session = NHibernateApplication.GetCurrentSession()) { global::NHibernate.ICriteria criteria = session.CreateCriteria(typeof(ThemingJob)); global::NHibernate.ICriteria countCriteria = session.CreateCriteria(typeof(ThemingJob)); criteria.AddOrder(global::NHibernate.Criterion.Order.Desc("Id")); var qc = criteria.CreateCriteria("Query"); qc.SetFetchMode("Assets", global::NHibernate.FetchMode.Lazy); qc.SetFetchMode("Themes", global::NHibernate.FetchMode.Lazy); qc.SetFetchMode("Affinity", global::NHibernate.FetchMode.Lazy); qc.SetFetchMode("Words", global::NHibernate.FetchMode.Lazy); pageIndex = Convert.ToInt32(pageIndex) - 1; // convert to 0 based paging index criteria.SetMaxResults(pageSize); criteria.SetFirstResult(pageIndex * pageSize); countCriteria.SetProjection(global::NHibernate.Criterion.Projections.RowCount()); int totalRecords = (int)countCriteria.List()[0]; return criteria.List<ThemingJob>().ToPagedList<ThemingJob>(pageIndex, pageSize, totalRecords); }

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  • ASP.NET MVC null ViewResult

    - by David Neale
    How should one deal with an MVC controller returning a null ViewResult? As an example I am creating a simple edit view: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var person = (from p in context.SWLiftShare_Persons where p.id == id select p).SingleOrDefault(); if (person != null) { return View(person); } else return View(); } I guess in reality there's no point in checking for a null result in the controller because the view picks out properties from the model: <h2>Edit - <%= Html.Encode(Model.Name) %></h2> <%= Html.ValidationSummary("Edit was unsuccessful. Please correct the errors and try again.") %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> <label for="id">id: <%= Html.Encode(Model.id) %></label> </p> <p> <label for="CollarNumber">CollarNumber:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("CollarNumber", Model.CollarNumber)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("CollarNumber", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="Name">Name:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Name", Model.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Name", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="EmailAddress">EmailAddress:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("EmailAddress", Model.EmailAddress, new { style = "width:300px" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("EmailAddress", "*") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> I could just wrap everything in a <% if(Model != null) { //render edit markup... etc. but that seems rather unelegant. Is there a better way to deal with this?

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  • Grails validateable not work for non-persistent domain class

    - by Hoàng Long
    I followed the instruction here: http://www.grails.org/doc/latest/guide/7.%20Validation.html and added into config.groovy: grails.validateable.classes = [liningtest.Warm'] Then added in src/groovy/Warm.groovy (it's a non-persistent domain class): package liningtest import org.codehaus.groovy.grails.validation.Validateable class Warm { String name; int happyCite; Warm(String n, int h) { this.name = n; this.happyCite = h; } static constraints = { name(size: 1..50) happyCite(min: 100) } } But it just doesn't work (both "blank false" & "size: 0..25") for the "hasErrors" function. It always returns false, even when the name is 25. Is this a Grails bug, if yes, is there any work-around? I'm using Grails 1.3.3 UPDATE: I have updated the simplified code. And now I know that constraint "size" can't be used with "blank", but still does not work. My test class in test/unit/liningtest/WarmTests.groovy package liningtest import grails.test.* class WarmTests extends GrailsUnitTestCase { protected void setUp() { super.setUp() } protected void tearDown() { super.tearDown() } void testSomething() { def w = new Warm('Hihi', 3) assert (w.happyCite == 3) assert (w.hasErrors() == true) } } And the error I got: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <testsuite errors="1" failures="0" hostname="evolus-50b0002c" name="liningtest.WarmTests" tests="1" time="0.062" timestamp="2010-12-16T04:07:47"> <properties /> <testcase classname="liningtest.WarmTests" name="testSomething" time="0.062"> <error message="No signature of method: liningtest.Warm.hasErrors() is applicable for argument types: () values: [] Possible solutions: hashCode()" type="groovy.lang.MissingMethodException">groovy.lang.MissingMethodException: No signature of method: liningtest.Warm.hasErrors() is applicable for argument types: () values: [] Possible solutions: hashCode() at liningtest.WarmTests.testSomething(WarmTests.groovy:18) </error> </testcase> <system-out><![CDATA[--Output from testSomething-- ]]></system-out> <system-err><![CDATA[--Output from testSomething-- ]]></system-err> </testsuite> UPDATE 2: When I don't use Unit test, but try to call hasErrors in the controller, it runs but return false value. (hasErrors return false with Warm('Hihi', 3) ). Does anyone has a clue?

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  • Error Serializing a CLR object for use in a WCF service

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have written a custom exception object. The reason for this is I want to track additional information when an error occurs. My CLR object is defined as follows: public class MyException : Exception { public override string StackTrace { get { return base.StackTrace; } } private readonly string stackTrace; public override string Message { get { return base.Message; } } private readonly string message; public string Element { get { return element; } } private readonly string element; public string ErrorType { get { return errorType; } } private readonly string errorType; public string Misc { get { return misc; } } private readonly string misc; #endregion Properties #region Constructors public MyException() {} public MyException(string message) : base(message) { } public MyException(string message, Exception inner) : base(message, inner) { } public MyException(string message, string stackTrace) : base() { this.message = message; this.stackTrace = stackTrace; } public MyException(string message, string stackTrace, string element, string errorType, string misc) : base() { this.message = message; this.stackTrace = stackTrace; this.element = element; this.errorType = errorType; this.misc = misc; } protected MyException(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) : base(info, context) { element = info.GetString("element"); errorType = info.GetString("errorType"); misc = info.GetString("misc"); } public override void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { base.GetObjectData(info, context); info.AddValue("element", element); info.AddValue("errorType", errorType); info.AddValue("misc", misc); } } I have created a copy of this custom xception in a WP7 application. The only difference is, I do not have the GetObjectData method defined or the constructor with SerializationInfo defined. If I run the application as is, I receive an error that says: Type 'My.MyException' cannot be serialized. Consider marking it with the DataContractAttribute attribute, and marking all of its members you want serialized with the DataMemberAttribute attribute. If the type is a collection, consider marking it with the CollectionDataContractAttribute. If I add the DataContract / DataMember attributes to the class and its appropriate members on the server-side, I receive an error that says: Type cannot be ISerializable and have DataContractAttribute attribute. How do I serialize MyException so that I can pass an instance of it to my WCF service. Please note, I want to use my service from an Android app. Because of this, I don't want to do anything too Microsoft centric. That was my fear with DataContract / DataMember stuff. Thank you so much for your help!

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  • Is it possible to gzip and upload this string to Amazon S3 without ever being written to disk?

    - by BigJoe714
    I know this is probably possible using Streams, but I wasn't sure the correct syntax. I would like to pass a string to the Save method and have it gzip the string and upload it to Amazon S3 without ever being written to disk. The current method inefficiently reads/writes to disk in between. The S3 PutObjectRequest has a constructor with InputStream input as an option. import java.io.*; import java.util.zip.GZIPOutputStream; import com.amazonaws.auth.PropertiesCredentials; import com.amazonaws.services.s3.AmazonS3; import com.amazonaws.services.s3.AmazonS3Client; import com.amazonaws.services.s3.model.PutObjectRequest; public class FileStore { public static void Save(String data) throws IOException { File file = File.createTempFile("filemaster-", ".htm"); file.deleteOnExit(); Writer writer = new OutputStreamWriter(new FileOutputStream(file)); writer.write(data); writer.flush(); writer.close(); String zippedFilename = gzipFile(file.getAbsolutePath()); File zippedFile = new File(zippedFilename); zippedFile.deleteOnExit(); AmazonS3 s3 = new AmazonS3Client(new PropertiesCredentials( new FileInputStream("AwsCredentials.properties"))); String bucketName = "mybucket"; String key = "test/" + zippedFile.getName(); s3.putObject(new PutObjectRequest(bucketName, key, zippedFile)); } public static String gzipFile(String filename) throws IOException { try { // Create the GZIP output stream String outFilename = filename + ".gz"; GZIPOutputStream out = new GZIPOutputStream(new FileOutputStream(outFilename)); // Open the input file FileInputStream in = new FileInputStream(filename); // Transfer bytes from the input file to the GZIP output stream byte[] buf = new byte[1024]; int len; while ((len = in.read(buf)) > 0) { out.write(buf, 0, len); } in.close(); // Complete the GZIP file out.finish(); out.close(); return outFilename; } catch (IOException e) { throw e; } } }

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  • One-to-many relationship with JDO in Google App Engine

    - by Marvin
    I've followed the GAE docs on setting up one-to-many relationship in JDO but I'm still having trouble in retrieving the collection data back. I have no problem getting the other non-collection fields back. Here are my classes: @PersistenceCapable public class User{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key key; @Persistent private String uniqueId; @Persistent private String email; @Persistent private List<Address> addresses = new ArrayList<Address>() ; ... } @PersistenceCapable public class Phone{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key key; @Persistent private String number; ... } public class UserDaoImpl implements UserDao { public void insertUser(User user) { if(user.getKey() == null) { com.google.appengine.api.datastore.Key key = KeyFactory.createKey(User.class.getSimpleName(), user.getEmail()); user.setKey(key); } PersistenceManager pm = PersistenceManagerWrapper.getPersistenceManager(); notNull(user); try { pm.makePersistent(user); } finally { pm.close(); } } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public User getUser(String uniqueId) { PersistenceManager pm = PersistenceManagerWrapper.getPersistenceManager(); Query query = pm.newQuery(User.class); query.setFilter("uniqueId == uniqueIdParam"); query.declareParameters("String uniqueIdParam"); User user = null; try { List<User> users = (List<User>)(query.execute(uniqueId)); //TODO abstract this if(users.size() > 0) user = users.get(0); } finally { pm.close(); } return user; } } public class UserDaoImplTest { @Test public void getUserTest() { User user = createTestUser(); assertNotNull("The user object should not be null", user); userDao.insertUser(user); User returnedUser = userDao.getUser(TEST_USER_ID); assertNotNull("The returnedUser object should not be null", returnedUser); Assert.assertPropertyEqualsExcludeProperties("User Object", user, returnedUser, ""); } } When I run the test, all the properties for User is populated but the list of Phone if I get is empty.

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  • How best to store Subversion version information in EAR's?

    - by Rene
    When receiving a bug report or an it-doesnt-work message one of my initials questions is always what version? With a different builds being at many stages of testing, planning and deploying this is often a non-trivial question. I the case of releasing Java JAR (ear, jar, rar, war) files I would like to be able to look in/at the JAR and switch to the same branch, version or tag that was the source of the released JAR. How can I best adjust the ant build process so that the version information in the svn checkout remains in the created build? I was thinking along the lines of: adding a VERSION file, but with what content? storing information in the META-INF file, but under what property with which content? copying sources into the result archive added svn:properties to all sources with keywords in places the compiler leaves them be I ended up using the svnversion approach (the accepted anwser), because it scans the entire subtree as opposed to svn info which just looks at the current file / directory. For this I defined the SVN task in the ant file to make it more portable. <taskdef name="svn" classname="org.tigris.subversion.svnant.SvnTask"> <classpath> <pathelement location="${dir.lib}/ant/svnant.jar"/> <pathelement location="${dir.lib}/ant/svnClientAdapter.jar"/> <pathelement location="${dir.lib}/ant/svnkit.jar"/> <pathelement location="${dir.lib}/ant/svnjavahl.jar"/> </classpath> </taskdef> Not all builds result in webservices. The ear file before deployment must remain the same name because of updating in the application server. Making the file executable is still an option, but until then I just include a version information file. <target name="version"> <svn><wcVersion path="${dir.source}"/></svn> <echo file="${dir.build}/VERSION">${revision.range}</echo> </target> Refs: svnrevision: http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.1/re57.html svn info http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.1/re13.html subclipse svn task: http://subclipse.tigris.org/svnant/svn.html svn client: http://svnkit.com/

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  • Inference engine to calculate matching set according to internal rules

    - by Zecrates
    I have a set of objects with attributes and a bunch of rules that, when applied to the set of objects, provides a subset of those objects. To make this easier to understand I'll provide a concrete example. My objects are persons and each has three attributes: country of origin, gender and age group (all attributes are discrete). I have a bunch of rules, like "all males from the US", which correspond with subsets of this larger set of objects. I'm looking for either an existing Java "inference engine" or something similar, which will be able to map from the rules to a subset of persons, or advice on how to go about creating my own. I have read up on rule engines, but that term seems to be exclusively used for expert systems that externalize the business rules, and usually doesn't include any advanced form of inferencing. Here are some examples of the more complex scenarios I have to deal with: I need the conjunction of rules. So when presented with both "include all males" and "exclude all US persons in the 10 - 20 age group," I'm only interested in the males outside of the US, and the males within the US that are outside the 10 - 20 age group. Rules may have different priorities (explicitly defined). So a rule saying "exclude all males" will override a rule saying "include all US males." Rules may be conflicting. So I could have both an "include all males" and an "exclude all males" in which case the priorities will have to settle the issue. Rules are symmetric. So "include all males" is equivalent to "exclude all females." Rules (or rather subsets) may have meta rules (explicitly defined) associated with them. These meta rules will have to be applied in any case that the original rule is applied, or if the subset is reached via inferencing. So if a meta rule of "exclude the US" is attached to the rule "include all males", and I provide the engine with the rule "exclude all females," it should be able to inference that the "exclude all females" subset is equivalent to the "include all males" subset and as such apply the "exclude the US" rule additionally. I can in all likelihood live without item 5, but I do need all the other properties mentioned. Both my rules and objects are stored in a database and may be updated at any stage, so I'd need to instantiate the 'inference engine' when needed and destroy it afterward.

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  • vertical navigation that shows hidden submenu on click using JQuery

    - by user346602
    Hi, I am trying to make a menu that works like the one on this flash site: http://elevensix.de/ When I click "portfolio", only then to the subnavigation links reveal themselves. Right now I have only managed to get a typical vertical "reveal subnavigation on hover menu" working. What is required is that once the appropriate menu item it cicked, its submenu shows. This submenu remains revealed as the submenu items are hovered over then selected. When the submenu item is selected, the content shows, and both the menu and submenu remain visible (the selected menu and submenu item are given a distinct colour to show the navigation path). Whew. Here is my html: <div id="nav"> <ul> <li><a href="#">about</a></li> <li><a href="#">testimonials</a> <ul> <li><a href="#">testimonial1</a></li> <li><a href="#">testimonial2</a></li> <li><a href="#">testimonial3</a></li> <li><a href="#">testimonial4</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#">Services</a> <ul> <li><a href="#">services1</a></li> <li><a href="#">services2</a></li> <li><a href="#">services3</a></li> <li><a href="#">services4</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#">Gallery</a></li> <li><a href="#">Contact</a></li> </ul> </div><!--end #nav--> and here is my css: #nav { width:160px; position: relative; top: 250px; left: 20px; } #nav ul { margin:0px; padding:0px; } #nav ul li { line-height:24px; list-style:none; } #nav a { text-decoration: none; color: #9d9fa2; } #nav ul li a:hover { position:relative; color: #00aeef; } #nav ul ul { display:none; position:absolute; left:160px; top:4px; } #nav ul li:hover ul { display:block; color: #00aeef; } #nav ul ul li { width:160px; float:left; display:inline; line-height:16px; } .selected { color: #00aeef !important; } Should I be giving the submenus a class so that I can hide then show them? And where would the class be applied? To the ul? could I use the same class for both submenus? Am I wrong in how I am applying the display:none values for this purpose? Many thanks to all the clever people on here.

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  • Injection of an EJB into a web java class under JBoss 7.1.1

    - by Dobbo
    I am trying to build a website using JBoss 7.1.1 and RESTeasy. I have managed to constructed and deploy and EAR with a both a WAR and an EJB-JAR contained within: voyager-app.ear META-INF/MANIFEST.MF META-INF/application.xml META-INF/jboss-app.xml lib/voyager-lib.jar voyager-adm.war voyager-ejb.jar voyager-web.war So far things are very simple. voyager-adm.war & voyager-lib.jar are empty (just the manifest file) but I know that I'm going to have code for them shortly. There is just one Stateful EJB - HarbourMasterBean (with just a local interface) and a few Database Entity Beans in the EJB jar file: voyager-ejb.jar META-INF/MANIFEST.MF META-INF/persistence.xml com/nutrastat/voyager/db/HarbourMasterBean.class com/nutrastat/voyager/db/HarbourMasterLocal.class com/nutrastat/voyager/db/PortEntity.class com/nutrastat/voyager/db/ShipEntity.class As far as I can tell the EJBs deploy correctly because the database units are created and the log shows that the publication of some HarbourMaster references: java:global/voyager-app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master!com.nutrastat.voyager.db.HarbourMasterLocal java:app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master!com.nutrastat.voyager.db.HarbourMasterLocal java:module/harbour-master!com.nutrastat.voyager.db.HarbourMasterLocal java:global/voyager-app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master java:app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master java:module/harbour-master The problem lies in getting the HarbourMaster EJB injected into my web bean. The reference to it is alway NULL no matter what I try. voyager-web.war META-INF/MANIFEST.MF WEB-INF/web.xml WEB-INF/classes/com/nutrastat/voyager/web/ WEB-INF/classes/com/nutrastat/voyager/web/Ships.class WEB-INF/classes/com/nutrastat/voyager/web/VoyagerApplication.class Ships.java: @Path("fleet") public class Ships { protected transient final Logger log; @EJB private HarbourMasterLocal harbourMaster; public Ships() { log = LoggerFactory.getLogger(getClass()); } @GET @Path("ships") @Produces({"text/plain"}) public String listShips() { if (log.isDebugEnabled()) log.debug("Harbour master value: " + harbourMaster); return "Harbour Master: " + harbourMaster; } } &lt;web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_3_0.xsd" version="3.0" &gt; <display-name>Voyager Web Application</display-name> <listener> <listener-class> org.jboss.resteasy.plugins.server.servlet.ResteasyBootstrap </listener-class> </listener> <servlet> <servlet-name>Resteasy</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.jboss.resteasy.plugins.server.servlet.HttpServletDispatcher </servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name> javax.ws.rs.Application </param-name> <param-value> com.nutrastat.voyager.web.VoyagerApplication </param-value> </init-param> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Resteasy</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> &lt;/web-app&gt; I have been searching the web for an answer and read a number of places, both on StackOverflow and elsewhere that suggests is can be done, and that the problems lies with configuration. But they post only snippets and I'm never sure if I'm doing things correctly. Many thanks for any help you can provide. Dobbo

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  • log4j performance

    - by Bob
    Hi, I'm developing a web app, and I'd like to log some information to help me improve and observe the app. (I'm using Tomcat6) First I thought I would use StringBuilders, append the logs to them and a task would persist them into the database like every 2 minutes. Because I was worried about the out-of-the-box logging system's performance. Then I made some test. Especially with log4j. Here is my code: Main.java public static void main(String[] args) { Thread[] threads = new Thread[LoggerThread.threadsNumber]; for(int i = 0; i < LoggerThread.threadsNumber; ++i){ threads[i] = new Thread(new LoggerThread("name - " + i)); } LoggerThread.startTimestamp = System.currentTimeMillis(); for(int i = 0; i < LoggerThread.threadsNumber; ++i){ threads[i].start(); } LoggerThread.java public class LoggerThread implements Runnable{ public static int threadsNumber = 10; public static long startTimestamp; private static int counter = 0; private String name; public LoggerThread(String name) { this.name = name; } private Logger log = Logger.getLogger(this.getClass()); @Override public void run() { for(int i=0; i<10000; ++i){ log.info(name + ": " + i); if(i == 9999){ int c = increaseCounter(); if(c == threadsNumber){ System.out.println("Elapsed time: " + (System.currentTimeMillis() - startTimestamp)); } } } } private synchronized int increaseCounter(){ return ++counter; } } } log4j.properties log4j.logger.main.LoggerThread=debug, f log4j.appender.f=org.apache.log4j.RollingFileAppender log4j.appender.f.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.f.layout.ConversionPattern=%d{ABSOLUTE} %5p %c{1}:%L - %m%n log4j.appender.f.File=c:/logs/logging.log log4j.appender.f.MaxFileSize=15000KB log4j.appender.f.MaxBackupIndex=50 I think this is a very common configuration for log4j. First I used log4j 1.2.14 then I realized there was a newer version, so I switched to 1.2.16 Here are the figures (all in millisec) LoggerThread.threadsNumber = 10 1.2.14: 4235, 4267, 4328, 4282 1.2.16: 2780, 2781, 2797, 2781 LoggerThread.threadsNumber = 100 1.2.14: 41312, 41014, 42251 1.2.16: 25606, 25729, 25922 I think this is very fast. Don't forget that: in every cycle the run method not just log into the file, it has to concatenate strings (name + ": " + i), and check an if test (i == 9999). When threadsNumber is 10, there are 100.000 loggings and if tests and concatenations. When it is 100, there are 1.000.000 loggings and if tests and concatenations. (I've read somewhere JVM uses StringBuilder's append for concatenation, not simple concatenation). Did I missed something? Am I doing something wrong? Did I forget any factor that could decrease the performance? If these figures are correct I think, I don't have to worry about log4j's performance even if I heavily log, do I?

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  • Proper way to use Linq with WPF

    - by Ingó Vals
    I'm looking for a good guide into the right method of using Linq to Sql together with WPF. Most guides only go into the bare basics like how to show data from a database but noone I found goes into how to save back to the database. Can you answer or point out to me a guide that can answer these questions. I have a separate Data project because the same data will also be used in a web page so I have the repository method. That means I have a seperate class that uses the DataContext and there are methods like GetAllCompanies() and GetCompanyById ( int id ). 1) Where there are collections is it best to return as a IQueryable or should I return a list? Inside the WPF project I have seen reccomendations to wrap the collection in a ObservabgleCollection. 2) Why should I use ObservableCollection and should I use it even with Linq / IQueryable Some properties of the linq entities should be editable in the app so I set them to two-way mode. That would change the object in the observableCollection. 3) Is the object in the ObservableCollection still a instance of the original linq entity and so is the change reflected in the database ( when submitchanges is called ) I should have somekind of save method in the repository. But when should I call it? What happens if someone edits a field but decides not to save it, goes to another object and edits it and then press save. Doesn't the original change also save? When does it not remember the changes to a linq entity object anymore. Should I instance the Datacontext class in each method so it loses scope when done. 4) When and how to call the SubmitChanges method 5) Should I have the DataContext as a member variable of the repository class or a method variable To add a new row I should create a new object in a event ( "new" button push ) and then add it to the database using a repo method. 6) When I add the object to the database there will be no new object in the ObservableCollection. Do I refresh somehow. 7) I wan't to reuse the edit window when creating new but not sure how to dynamically changing from referencing selected item from a listview to this new object. Any examples you can point out.

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  • Detecting Acceleration in a car (iPhone Accelerometer)

    - by TheGazzardian
    Hello, I am working on an iPhone app where we are trying to calculate the acceleration of a moving car. Similar apps have accomplished this (Dynolicious), but the difference is that this app is designed to be used during general city driving, not on a drag strip. This leads us to one big concern that Dynolicious was luckily able to avoid: hills. Yes, hills. There are two important stages to this: calibration, and actual driving. Our initial run was simple and suffered the consequences. During the calibration stage, I took the average force on the phone, and during running, I just subtracted the average force from the current force to get the current acceleration this frame. The problem with this is that the typical car receives much more force than just the forward force - everything from turning to potholes was causing the values to go out of sync with what was really happening. The next run was to add the condition that the iPhone must be oriented in such a way that the screen was facing toward the back of the car. Using this method, I attempted to follow only force on the z-axis, but this obviously lead to problems unless the iPhone was oriented directly upright, because of gravity. Some trigonometry later, and I had managed to work gravity out of the equation, so that the car was actually being read very, very well by the iPhone. Until I hit a slope. As soon as the angle of the car changed, suddenly I was receiving accelerations and decelerations that didn't make sense, and we were once again going out of sync. Talking with someone a lot smarter than me at math lead to a solution that I have been trying to implement for longer than I would like to admit. It's steps are as follows: 1) During calibration, measure gravity as a vector instead of a size. Store that vector. 2) When the car initially moves forward, take the vector of motion and subtract gravity. Use this as the forward momentum. (Ignore, for now, the user cases where this will be difficult and let's concentrate on the math :) 3) From the forward vector and the gravity vector, construct a plane. 4) Whenever a force is received, project it onto said plane to get rid of sideways force/etc. 5) Then, use that force, the known magnitude of gravity, and the known direction of forward motion to essentially solve a triangle to get the forward vector. The problem that is causing the most difficulty in this new system is not step 5, which I have gotten to the point where all the numbers look as they should. The difficult part is actually the detection of the forward vector. I am selecting vectors whose magnitude exceeds gravity, and from there, averaging them and subtracting gravity. (I am doing some error checking to make sure that I am not using a force just because the iPhone accelerometer was off by a bit, which happens more frequently than I would like). But if I plot these vectors that I am using, they actually vary by an angle of about 20-30 degrees, which can lead to some strong inaccuracies. The end result is that the app is even more inaccurate now than before. So basically - all you math and iPhone brains out there - any glaring errors? Any potentially better solutions? Any experience that could be useful at all? Award: offering a bounty of $250 to the first answer that leads to a solution.

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  • MVVM Binding Orthogonal Aspects in Views e.g. Application Settings

    - by chibacity
    I have an application which I am developing using WPF\Prism\MVVM. All is going well and I have some pleasing MVVM implementations. However, in some of my views I would like to be able to bind application settings e.g. when a user reloads an application, the checkbox for auto-scrolling a grid should be checked in the state it was last time the user used the application. My view needs to bind to something that holds the "auto-scroll" setting state. I could put this on the view-model, but applications settings are orthogonal to the purpose of the view-model. The "auto-scroll" setting is controlling an aspect of the view. This setting is just an example. There will be quite a number of them and splattering my view-models with properties to represent application settings (so I can bind them) feels decidedly yucky. One view-model per view seems to be de rigeuer... What is best\usual practice here? Splatter my view-models with application settings? Have multiple view-models per view so settings can be represented in their own right? Split views so that controls can bind to an ApplicationSettingsViewModel? = too many views? Something else? Edit 1 To add a little more context, I am developing a UI with a tabbed interface. Each tab will host a single widget and there a variety of widgets. Each widget is a Prism composition of individual views. Some views are common amongst widgets e.g. a file picker view. Whilst each widget is composed of several views, as a whole, conceptually a widget has a single set of user settings e.g. last file selected, auto-scroll enabled, etc. These need to be persisted and retrieved\applied when the application starts again, and the widget views are created. My question is focused on the fact that conceptually a widget has a single set of user settings which is at right-angles to the fact that a widget consists of many views. Each view in the widget has it's own view-model (which works nicely and logically) but if I stick to a one view-model per view, I would have to splatter each view-model with user settings appropriate to it. This doesn't sound right ?!?

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  • Log a user in to an ASP.net application using Windows Authentication without using Windows Authentic

    - by Rising Star
    I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work? Update To those who have responded so far, I apologize for the confusion I have caused. The responses I've received indicate that you've misunderstood the question, so please allow me to clarify. I have no control over the requirement that users must perform network operations (such as SQL queries) using Active Directory accounts. I've been told several times (online and in meat-space) that this is an unusual requirement and possibly bad practice. I also have no control over the requirement that users must log in using the existing cookie-based log on application. I understand that in an ideal MS ecosystem, I would simply dis-allow anonymous access in my IIS settings and users would log in using Windows Authentication. This is not the case. The current system is that as far as IIS is concerned, the user logs in anonymously (even though they supply credentials which result in the issuance of a cookie) and we must programmatically check the cookie to see if the user has access to any restricted resources. In times past, we have simply used a single SQL account to perform all queries. My direct supervisor (who has many years of experience with this sort of thing) wants to change this. He says that if each user has his own AD account to perform SQL queries, it gives us more of a trail to follow if someone tries to do something wrong. The closest thing I've managed to come up with is using WIF to give the user a claim to a specific Active Directory account, but I still have to use impersonation because even still, the ASP.net process presents anonymous credentials to the SQL server. It boils down to this: Can I log users in with Active Directory accounts in my ASP.net application without having the users manually enter their AD credentials? (Windows Authentication)

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