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  • Readonly SiteMapNodes in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by BenN
    I'm using MVCSiteMap as a SiteMapProvider for my MVC site. I have a node set up like so.... <mvcSiteMapNode key="1" title="Product" controller="Product" action="Display" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id"> <mvcSiteMapNode key="11" title="More Details" controller="Product" action="MoreDetails" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id" /> </mvcSiteMapNode> ...Which means I can go to ~/Product/Display/12 and get a correct sitemap node for product id 12 (in this case just Product. And I can go to ~/Product/MoreDetails/12 and get the sitemap path for the MoreDetails (Product - More Details). The problem is that the link back to Product in this sitemap doesn't work - it skips the id off the end, instead linking to ~/Product/Display/. Which sucks. I've discovered I can edit the Title of a node using SiteMap.CurrentNode.Title = "My New Title"; But... SiteMap.CurrentNode.ParentNode.Url = "http://www.google.com"; Doesn't set the Url for the parent node; it gets the default link described before. Any ideas how I can set the URL of a SiteMapNode?

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  • How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

    - by räph
    I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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  • Can I force Apache 2.2 connection close from inside a C module?

    - by Amos Shapira
    Hello, We'd like to have a more fine-grained control on the connections we serve in a C++ Apache 2.2 module (on CentOS 5). One of the connections needs to stay alive for a few multiple requests, so we set "KeepAlive" to "On" and set a short keep-alive period. But for every such connection we have a few more connections from the browser which we don't need to leave behind and instead want to force them to close after a single request. Some of these connections are on different ports (so we can distinguish them by port, since KeepAlive can be set per virtual host) and some request a different URL (so we can tell from the path and parameters that we don't want to leave them behind). Also for the one we do want to keep alive, we know that after a certain request we'd like to close it too. But so far the only way we found to "cancel" the keep-alive is to send a polite "Connection: close" header to the client. If the client is not well behaved, or malicious, then they can keep it open and waste our resources. Is there a way to tell Apache to close the connection from the server side? The documentation advises against just plain close(2) call on the socket since Apache needs to do some clean up before that's done. But is there some API or a trick to "override" the static "KeepAlive On" configuration dynamically (and convince Apache to call close(2))? Thanks.

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  • Python Ephem / Datetime calculation

    - by dassouki
    the output should process the first date as "day" and second as "night". I've been playing with this for a few hours now and can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Any ideas? Edit I assume that the problem is due to my date comparison implementation Output: $ python time_of_day.py * should be day: event date: 2010/4/6 16:00:59 prev rising: 2010/4/6 09:24:24 prev setting: 2010/4/5 23:33:03 next rise: 2010/4/7 09:22:27 next set: 2010/4/6 23:34:27 day * should be night: event date: 2010/4/6 00:01:00 prev rising: 2010/4/5 09:26:22 prev setting: 2010/4/5 23:33:03 next rise: 2010/4/6 09:24:24 next set: 2010/4/6 23:34:27 day time_of_day.py import datetime import ephem # install from http://pypi.python.org/pypi/pyephem/ #event_time is just a date time corresponding to an sql timestamp def type_of_light(latitude, longitude, event_time, utc_time, horizon): o = ephem.Observer() o.lat, o.long, o.date, o.horizon = latitude, longitude, event_time, horizon print "event date ", o.date print "prev rising: ", o.previous_rising(ephem.Sun()) print "prev setting: ", o.previous_setting(ephem.Sun()) print "next rise: ", o.next_rising(ephem.Sun()) print "next set: ", o.next_setting(ephem.Sun()) if o.previous_rising(ephem.Sun()) <= o.date <= o.next_setting(ephem.Sun()): return "day" elif o.previous_setting(ephem.Sun()) <= o.date <= o.next_rising(ephem.Sun()): return "night" else: return "error" print "should be day: ", type_of_light('45.959','-66.6405','2010/4/6 16:01','-4', '-6') print "should be night: ", type_of_light('45.959','-66.6405','2010/4/6 00:01','-4', '-6')

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  • ModelState always valid

    - by Jaimal Chohan
    I've got something seemingly very simple not working. I have got a model public class Name: Entity { [StringLength(10), Required] public virtual string Title { get; set; } } public class Customer: Entity { public virtual Name Name { get; set; } } a view model public class CustomerViweModel { public Customer Customer { get; set; } } a view <% using(Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%= Html.LabelFor(m => m.Customer.Name.Title)%> <button type="submit">Submit</button> <% } %> and a controller [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index([Bind(Prefix = "Customer")] Customer customer) { if(ModelState.IsValid) Save else return View(); } No matter what I enter as the title (null, or a string 10 chars), ModelState.IsValid is always true. The Title field in the Customer object has a value, so the data is being passed around, but not being validated? Any clues?

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  • Creating XML problem using c#

    - by Pankaj
    I am searching a batter solution for creating xml through xml serialization. What i need, i have a given format like this <product Id="1"> <name>2 1/2 X 6 PVC NIPPLE TOE SCH 80</name> <notes> <note>!--note 1---</note> <note>!--note 2--</note> ...... </notes> </product> what i am doing here, i created a 2 classes like this public class product { [XmlElement("name")] public string Name { get; set; } [XmlArray("notes")] public List<notes> ListNotes { get; set; } } public class notes { [XmlIgnore] public string Note { get; set; } } when i am serializing this then i am getting xml in this formate <product Id="1"> <name>2 1/2 X 6 PVC NIPPLE TOE SCH 80</name> <notes> <notes> <note>!--note 1---</note> <note>!--note 2--</note> </notes> </notes> </product> i don't want extra . Any batter solution to solve this problem? Thanks

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  • Hibernate: deletes not cascading for self-referencing entities

    - by jwaddell
    I have the following (simplified) Hibernate entities: @Entity @Table(name = "package") public abstract class Package { protected Content content; @ManyToOne(cascade = {javax.persistence.CascadeType.ALL}) @JoinColumn(name = "content_id") @Fetch(value = FetchMode.JOIN) public Content getContent() { return content; } public void setContent(Content content) { this.content = content; } } @Entity @Table(name = "content") public class Content { private Set<Content> subContents = new HashSet<Content>(); @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable(name = "subcontents", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "content_id")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "elt")}) @Cascade(value = {org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE, org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.REPLICATE}) @Fetch(value = FetchMode.SUBSELECT) public Set<Content> getSubContents() { return subContents; } public void setSubContents(Set<Content> subContents) { this.subContents = subContents; } } So a Package has a Content, and a Content is self-referencing in that it has many sub-Contents (which may contain sub-Contents of their own etc). The relationships are required to be ManyToOne (Package to Content) and ManyToMany (Content to sub-Contents) but for the case I am currently testing each sub-Content only relates to one Package or Content. The problem is that when I delete a Package and flush the session, I get a Hibernate error stating that I'm violating a foreign key constraint on table subcontents, with a particular content_id still referenced from table subcontents. I've tried specifically (recursively) deleting the Contents before deleting the Package but I get the same error. Is there a reason why this entity tree is not being deleted properly?

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  • Building a CMS in PHP: Development tools

    - by TRiG
    I'm planning to build a CMS in PHP and MySQL, mainly for my own amusement and education. (Though who knows, I may come up with something useful and cool. Anything's possible.) I'll be asking questions about code architecture etc. later. For now, I'm more interested in development tools. So far, all my playing with code has been done on a web server, and I've edited over FTP. I was thinking it might be quicker to use a localhost. Also, that way, I could use version control (which I've never done before). So, A. How do I set up a localhost server with many subdomains on an Ubuntu 9.10 computer. Is XAMPP for Linux the way to go, or should I use a standard Apache distro? (Or another webserver altogether?) For that matter, is it possible to set up more than one webserver on the same computer, and to use them for different localhost subdomains? B. How do I set up a version control thingy covering all the code (which will be on several subdomains of localhost, and in a few shared folders)? I've read Joel Spolsky's HgInt tutorial, and it makes Mercurial look good. And simple, especially if you're working on your own. C. Should I continue to use gEdit to write HTML/CSS/JS/PHP, or is there a better free editor out there for these languages?

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  • Facebook new js api and cross-domain file

    - by vondip
    Hi all, I am building a simple facebook iframe application. I've decided since the code is separate from facebook none the less, I will also create a connect website as well. In my connect website I'm trying to figure out the following: I am using facebook's new api and I am calling the init function. I can't seem to figure out where I combine my cross-domain file. There's no mention of it in their documentation either. http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/javascript/FB.init I am referring to these lines of code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'your app id', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script>

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  • Facebook graph API post to user's wall

    - by Lance
    I'm using the FB graph api to post content to the user's wall. I orginally tried using this method: $wall_post = array(array('message' => 'predicted the', 'name' => 'predicted the'), array('message' => $winning_team, 'name' => $winning_team, 'link' => 'http://www.sportannica.com/teams.php?team='.$winning_team.'&amp;year=2012'), array('message' => 'to beat the', 'name' => 'to beat the',), array('message' => $losing_team, 'name' => $losing_team, 'link' => 'http://www.sportannica.com/teams.php?team='.$losing_team.'&amp;year=2012'), array('message' => 'on '.$game_date.'', 'name' => 'on '.$game_date.''), array('picture' => 'http://www.sportannica.com/img/team_icons/current_season_logos/large/'.$winning_team.'.png')); $res = $facebook->api('/me/feed/', 'post', '$wall_post'); But, much to my surprise, you can't post multiple links to a users wall. So, now I'm using the graph api to post content to a user's wall much like the way spotify does. So, now I've figured out that I need to create custom actions and objects with the open graph dashboard. So, I've created the "predict" action and gave it permission to edit the object "game." So, now I have the code: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'appID', 'secret' => 'SECRET', 'cookie' => true )); $access_token = $facebook->getAccessToken(); $user = $facebook->getUser(); if($user != 0) { curl -F 'access_token='$.access_token.'' \ -F 'away_team=New York Yankees' \ -F 'home_team=New York Mets' \ -F 'match=http://samples.ogp.me/413385652011237' \ 'https://graph.facebook.com/me/predict-edit-add:predict' } I keep getting an error reading: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_CONSTANT_ENCAPSED_STRING Any ideas?

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  • Applet Not Loading In Java 1.6.0_16

    - by Wayne Hartman
    I am running a Java applet compiled in 1.5 and am experiencing odd behavior when running it on computers running 1.6.0_07 and 1.6.0_16. On the *_07 version, the applet initializes and loads in the browser perfectly fine. However, computers with the *_16 are not loading at all. Even more strange, there is nothing in the Java Console to indicate any problems will loading the applet in the browser. If I run the applet from as a standalone app on said machines, it loads up just fine. The compatibility mode in the JNLP is set to 1.5+. Firefox reports no errors attempting to load the applet. Even with full tracing and logging set to all, nothing is reported in the console window. Quick facts: The JAR is signed Compiled in 1.5 Works flawlessly in browsers (FF & IE) running *_07 Does not work in browsers (FF & IE) running *_16 Works running as stand alone app in *_16 JNLP set to 1.5+ Clients are mixed *_07, *_16, and other version of 1.6 Things I have tried: Forcing the JVM to use version 1.6.0_07. This requires the user to download *_07. In my situation this is not an option, unfortunately. Ran the app on *_16 as a standalone app. This works fine, but this needs to run as an applet. Ideas?

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  • How to take advantage of an auto-property when refactoring this .Net 1.1 sample?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I see a lot of legacy .Net 1.1-style code at work like in example below, which I would like to shrink with the help of an auto-property. This will help many classes shrink by 30-40%, which I think would be good. public int MyIntThingy { get { return _myIntThingy; } set { _myIntThingy = value; } } private int _myIntThingy = -1; This would become: public int MyIntThingy { get; set; } And the only question is - where do I set MyIntThingy = -1;? If I wrote the class from the start, then I would have a better idea, but I did not. An obvious answer would be: put it in the constructor. Trouble is: there are many constructors in this class. Watching the initialization to -1 in the debugger, I see it happen (I believe) before the constructor gets called. It is almost as if I need to use a static constructor as described here: http://www.c-sharpcorner.com/uploadfile/cupadhyay/staticconstructors11092005061428am/staticconstructors.aspx except that my variables are not static. Java's static initializer comes to mind, but again - my variables are not static. http://www.glenmccl.com/tip_003.htm I want to make stylistic but not functional changes to this class. As crappy as it is, it has been tested and working for a few years now. breaking the functionality would be bad. So ... I am looking for shorter, sweeter, cuter, and yet EQUIVALENT code. Let me know if you have questions.

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  • Server side form validation and POST data

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I have a user input form here: http://www.7bks.com/create (Google login required) When you first create a list you are asked to create a public username. Unfortuantely currently there is no constraint to make this unique. I'm working on the code to enforce unique usernames at the moment and would like to know the best way to do it. Tech details: appengine, python, webapp framework What I'm planning is something like this: first the /create form posts the data to /inputlist/ (this is the same as currently happens) /inputlist/ queries the datastore for the given username. If it already exists then redirect back to /create display the /create page with all the info previously but with an additional error message of "this username is already taken" My question is: Is this the best way of handling server side validation? What's the best way of storing the list details while I verify and modify the username? As I see it I have 3 options to store the list details but I'm not sure which is "best": Store the list details in the session cookie (I am using GAEsessions for cookies) Define a separate POST class for /create and post the list data back from /inputlist/ to the /create page (currently /create only has a GET class) Store the list in the datastore, even though the username is non-unique. Thank you very much for your help :) I'm pretty new to python and coding in general so if I've missed something obvious my apologies. Tom PS - I'm sure I can eventually figure it out but I can't find any documentation on POSTing data using the webapp appengine framework which I'd need in order to do solution 2 above :s maybe you could point me in the right direction for that too? Thanks! PPS - It's a little out of date now but you can see roughly how the /create and /inputlist/ code works at the moment here: 7bks.com Gist

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  • jQuery tabs - multiple sets on on page

    - by Jonny Wood
    This is kind of a follow on from a previous question I posted but I've not been able to get it to work.. I'm trying to use multiple sets of tabs (jQuery) on one page. This is the code I had for one set of tabs which works great: $('div.tabs div.tab').hide(); $('div.tabs div:first').show(); $('div.tabs ul.htabs li:first a').addClass('current'); $('div.tabs ul.htabs li a').click(function(){ $('div.tabs ul.htabs li a').removeClass('current'); $(this).addClass('current'); var currentTab = $(this).attr('href'); $('div.tabs div.tab').hide(); $(currentTab).show(); return false; }); To use more than one set on the page I assigned #id's to each tab-set and tried to impliment this with: $.each(['#tabs-1', '#tabs-2', '#tabs-3' ], function(id) { $(id + 'div.tab').hide(); $(id + 'div:first').show(); $(id + 'ul.htabs li:first a').addClass('current'); $(id + 'ul.htabs li a').click(function(){ $(id + 'ul.htabs li a').removeClass('current'); $(this).addClass('current'); var currentTab = $(this).attr('href'); $(id + 'div.tab').hide(); $(currentTab).show(); return false; }); }); Obviously I'm doing something wrong here but as a jQuery newcomer I'm stumped!

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  • How to prevent session hijacking with SID (CGI perl)

    - by Gnippots
    I have a web app used by a small number of people (internal only) and am using a randomised sessionID that is stored under the user record and placed in various links. I have had a problem where users are sending links to each other which is allowing them to hijack the sender's session. What are some ways of preventing this from happening while still letting users send links to one another? Edit: The session ID in the link (which also contains $username) is just compared to what is stored in the User table. &incorrectLogin just prints an error followed by die; if ($sid) { $sth = $dbh->prepare("SELECT * FROM tbl_User WHERE UserID = '$username'"); $sth->execute(); $ref = $sth->fetchrow_hashref(); $session_chk = $ref->{'usr_sessionID'}; unless ($sid eq $session_chk) {&incorrectLogin;} } The problem is that if someone uses a link that is created by someone else, the page will load as them. I am not using cookies, and I recall being told in the past that CGI perl cookie handling is quite poor.

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  • ASP.NET Bind to IEnumerable

    - by JFoulkes
    Hi, I'm passing a the type IEnumerable to my view, and for each item I output a html.textbox to enter the details into. When I post this back to my controller, the collection is empty and I can't see why. public class Item { public Order Order { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public double Price { get; set; } } My Get method: public ActionResult AddItems(Order order) { Item itemOne = new Item { Order = order }; Item itemTwo = new Item { Order = order, }; IList<Item> items = new List<Item> { itemOne, itemTwo }; return View(items); } The View: <% int i = 0; foreach (var item in Model) { %> <p> <label for="Title">Item Title:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("items[" + i + "].Title") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("items[" + i + "].Title", "*")%> </p> <p> <label for="Price">Item Price:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("items[" + i + "].Price") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("items[" + i + "].Price", "*")%> </p> <% i++; } %> The POST method: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult AddItems(IEnumerable<Item> items) { try { return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(); } } At the moment i just have a breakpoint on the post method to check what i'm gettin back.

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  • .NET Web Service hydrate custom class

    - by row1
    I am consuming an external C# Web Service method which returns a simple calculation result object like this: [Serializable] public class CalculationResult { public string Name { get; set; } public string Unit { get; set; } public decimal? Value { get; set; } } When I add a Web Reference to this service in my ASP .NET project Visual Studio is kind enough to generate a matching class so I can easily consume and work with it. I am using Castle Windsor and I may want to plug in other method of getting a calculation result object, so I want a common class CalculationResult (or ICalculationResult) in my solution which all my objects can work with, this will always match the object returned from the external Web Service 1:1. Is there anyway I can tell my Web Service client to hydrate a particular class instead of its generated one? I would rather not do it manually: foreach(var fromService in calcuationResultsFromService) { ICalculationResult calculationResult = new CalculationResult() { Name = fromService.Name }; yield return calculationResult; } Edit: I am happy to use a Service Reference type instead of the older Web Reference.

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  • Jsp static import

    - by folone
    I've created a Spring Roo project. Everything looks fine. Now I want to add a form with a text input and a button to my index.jspx. This form will change a static field currentUser in my ToDo class. So I'm adding: <form> <%@ page import="static com.mypack.domain.ToDo.*" %> <label for="_username_id">My name is:</label> <% currentUser = request.getParameter("username"); %> <input type="text" id="username" name="username" maxlength="30" path="username" size="0" value="<%= currentUser %>"/> <input type="submit"/> </form> somewhere in the middle of it. And now it won't work: This page contains the following errors: error on line 6 at column 20: StartTag: invalid element name Below is a rendering of the page up to the first error. function readCookie(name) { var nameEQ = name + '='; var ca = document.cookie.split(';'); for(var i=0;i If I comment the lines above, it works just fine. What is wrong? Is there a way to write a value to a static field of a class from a jsp page? How do I work around this?

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  • How can I pass a const array or a variable array to a function in C?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    I have a simple function Bar that uses a set of values from a data set that is passed in in the form of an Array of data structures. The data can come from two sources: a constant initialized array of default values, or a dynamically updated cache. The calling function determines which data is used and should be passed to Bar. Bar doesn't need to edit any of the data and in fact should never do so. How should I declare Bar's data parameter so that I can provide data from either set? union Foo { long _long; int _int; } static const Foo DEFAULTS[8] = {1,10,100,1000,10000,100000,1000000,10000000}; static Foo Cache[8] = {0}; void Bar(Foo* dataSet, int len);//example function prototype Note, this is C, NOT C++ if that makes a difference; Edit Oh, one more thing. When I use the example prototype I get a type qualifier mismatch warning, (because I'm passing a mutable reference to a const array?). What do I have to change for that?

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  • How to write a Criteria Query when there's an <any> association

    - by Bevan
    I'm having some trouble constructing the correct Criteria to do a particular query - after an afternoon of consultation with Professor Google, I'm hoping that someone can point me in the right direction. I have two entities of interest: OutputTsDef and NamedAttribute What I'm trying to do is to find all OutputTsDef that have a particular NamedAttribute value. I can write a detached Criteria to find all NamedAttributes that have a given name and value: var attributesCriteria = DetachedCriteria.For<INamedAttribute>() .Add(Expression.Eq("Name", "some name")) .Add(Expression.Eq("Value", "some value")); How do I inject this in to a query for OutputTsDef to restrict the results? var criteria = nHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(typeof(IOutputTsDefEntity)); // What do I write here? var results = criteria.List(); NamedAttribute looks like this - note the use of [Any] as we can have NamedAttributes on many kinds of entity. [AttributeIdentifier("DbKey", Name = "Id.Column", Value = "NamedAttributeID")] [Class(Table = "NamedAttributes")] public class NamedAttribute : BusinessEntity, INamedAttribute { [Any(0, Name = "Entity", MetaType = "System.String", IdType = "System.Int32")] [MetaValue(1, Class = "Sample.OutputTsDef, Sample.Entities", Value = "OTD")] [MetaValue(2, Class = "Sample.OutputTimeSeriesAttributesEntity, Sample.Entities", Value = "OTA")] [Column(3, Name = "OwnerType")] [Column(4, Name = "OwnerKey")] public virtual IBusinessEntity Entity { get; set; } [Property(Column = "Name")] public virtual string Name { get; set; } [Property(Column = "Value")] public virtual string Value { get; set; } ... omitted ... } In regular SQL, I'd just include an extra "where" clause like this: where OutputTsDefId in ( select distinct OwnerKey from NamedAttributes where Name = ? and Value = ? and OwnerType = 'OTD' ) What am I missing? (Question also posted to the NHUsers mailing list - I'll copy any useful information from there, here.)

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  • How do I remove the top margin in a web page?

    - by RoryG
    I have had this problem with every web page I have created. There is always a top margin above the 'main container' div I use to place my content in the center of the page. I am using a css style sheet and have set margins and padding in the body to 0px and set the margin and padding to 0 in the div: body{ margin-top: 0px; margin-bottom: 0px; margin-left: 0px; margin-right: 0px; padding: 0; color: black; font-size: 10pt; font-family: "Trebuchet MS", sans-serif; background-color: #E2E2E2;} div.mainContainer{ height: auto; width: 68em; background-color: #FFFFFF; margin: 0 auto; padding: 0;} I have looked online many times, but all I can see to do is set these margin and padding attributes. Is there something else I should be doing? The margin exists in IE and Firefox.

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  • LINQ Join on Dictionary<K,T> where only K is changed.

    - by Stacey
    Assuming type TModel, TKey, and TValue. In a dictionary where KeyValuePair is declared, I need to merge TKey into a separate model of KeyValuePair where TKey in the original dictionary refers to an identifier in a list of TModel that will replace the item in the Dictionary. public TModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } // ... } public Dictionary<Guid, TValue> contains the elements. TValue relates to the TModel. The serialized/stored object is like this.. public SerializedModel { public Dictionary<Guid,TValue> Items { get; set; } } So I need to construct a new model... KeyValueModel { public Dictionary<TModel, TValue> { get; set; } } KeyValueModel kvm = = (from tModels in controller.ModelRepository.List<Models.Models>() join matchingModels in storedInformation.Items on tModels.Id equals matchingModels select tModels).ToDictionary( c => c.Id, storedInformation.Items.Values ) This linq query isn't doing what I'm wanting, but I think I'm at least headed in the right direction. Can anyone assist with the query? The original object is stored as a KeyValuePair. I need to merge the Guid Keys in the Dictionary to their actual related objects in another object (List) so that the final result is KeyValuePair. And as for what the query is not doing for me... it isn't compiling or running. It just says that "Join is not valid".

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  • Windows batch - loop over folder string and parse out last folder name

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I need to grab the folder name of a currently executing batch file. I have been trying to loop over the current directory using the following syntax (which is wrong at present): set mydir = %~p0 for /F "delims=\" %i IN (%mydir%) DO @echo %i Couple of issues in that I cannot seem to pass the 'mydir' variable value in as the search string. It only seems to work if I pass in commands; I have the syntax wrong and cannot work out why. My thinking was to loop over the folder string with a '\' delimiter but this is causing problems too. If I set a variable on each loop then the last value set will be the current folder name. For example, given the following path: C:\Folder1\Folder2\Folder3\Archive.bat I would expect to parse out the value 'Folder3'. I need to parse that value out as its name will be part of another folder I am going to create further down in the batch file. Many thanks if anyone can help. I may be barking up the wrong tree completely so any other approaches would be greatly received also. Tim

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  • Merge Multple Worksheets From Multple Workbooks

    - by Droter
    Hi, I have found multiple posts on merging data but I am still running into some problems. I have multiple files with multiple sheets. Example 2007-01.xls...2007-12.xls in each of these files are daily data on sheets labeled 01, 02, 03 ..... There are other sheets in the file so I can't just loop through all worksheets. I need to combine the daily data into monthly data, then all of the monthly data points into yearly. On the monthly data I need it to be added to the bottom of the page. I have added the file open changes for Excel 2007 Here is what I have so far: Sub RunCodeOnAllXLSFiles() Dim lCount As Long Dim wbResults As Workbook Dim wbMaster As Workbook Application. ScreenUpdating = False Application.DisplayAlerts = False Application.EnableEvents = False On Error Resume Next Set wbMaster = ThisWorkbook Dim oWbk As Workbook Dim sFil As String Dim sPath As String sPath = "C:\Users\test\" 'location of files ChDir sPath sFil = Dir("*.xls") 'change or add formats Do While sFil <> "" 'will start LOOP until all files in folder sPath have been looped through Set oWbk = Workbooks.Open(sPath & "\" & sFil) 'opens the file Set oWbk = Workbooks.Open(sPath & "\" & sFil) Sheets("01").Select ' HARD CODED FIRST DAY Range("B6:F101").Select 'AREA I NEED TO COPY Range("B6:F101").Copy wbMaster.Activate Workbooks("wbMaster").ActiveSheet.Range("B65536").End(xlUp)(2).PasteSpecial Paste:=xlValues Application.CutCopyMode = False oWbk.Close True 'close the workbook, saving changes sFil = Dir Loop ' End of LOOP On Error Goto 0 Application.ScreenUpdating = True Application.DisplayAlerts = True Application.EnableEvents = True End Sub Right now it can find the files and open them up and get to the right worksheet but when it tries to copy the data nothing is copied over. Thanks for your help, Matt

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  • Automated testing for Facebook SDK wrapper

    - by Andree
    Hi there! In my Facebook application, I have one Facebook wrapper class to encapsulates some call to Facebook API. I want to to write a unit test for this wrapper class, but since it depends on a so called "access token", which we should get from Facebook dynamically, I'm not sure if it's possible to write one. But apparently the Facebook SDK itself has a PHPUnit test class. After studying the test code for a while, I know that involves a creation of dummy cookie-based session key. private static $VALID_EXPIRED_SESSION = array( 'access_token' => '254752073152|2.I_eTFkcTKSzX5no3jI4r1Q__.3600.1273359600-1677846385|uI7GwrmBUed8seZZ05JbdzGFUpk.', 'expires' => '1273359600', 'secret' => '0d9F7pxWjM_QakY_51VZqw__', 'session_key' => '2.I_eTFkcTKSzX5no3jI4r1Q__.3600.1273359600-1677846385', 'sig' => '9f6ae89510b30dddb3f864f3caf32fb3', 'uid' => '1677846385' ); . . . $cookieName = 'fbs_' . self::APP_ID; $session = self::$VALID_EXPIRED_SESSION; $_COOKIE[$cookieName] = '"' . http_build_query($session) . '"'; What I don't understand is, how do I get the "access_token", "sig", "session_key" etc? As far as I'm concerned, it should be dynamically exchanged from Facebook and involves user action (logging in).

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