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  • How do I query SQLite Database in Android?

    - by kunjaan
    I successfully created the Database and inserted a row however I cannot Query it for some reason. My Droid crashes everytime. String DATABASE_NAME = "myDatabase.db"; String DATABASE_TABLE = "mainTable"; String DATABASE_CREATE = "create table if not exists " + DATABASE_TABLE + " ( value VARCHAR not null);"; SQLiteDatabase myDatabase = null; myDatabase = openOrCreateDatabase(DATABASE_NAME, Context.MODE_PRIVATE, null); myDatabase.execSQL(DATABASE_CREATE); // Create a new row of values to insert. ContentValues newValues = new ContentValues(); // Assign values for each row. newValues.put("value", "kunjan"); // Insert the row into your table myDatabase.insert(DATABASE_TABLE, null, newValues); String[] result_columns = new String[] { "value" }; Cursor allRows = myDatabase.query(true, DATABASE_TABLE, result_columns, null, null, null, null, null, null); if (allRows.moveToFirst()) { String value = allRows.getString(1); TextView foo = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.TextView01); foo.setText(value); } allRows.close(); myDatabase.close();

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  • how to store/model users/faceboook users/linkedin users, etc, with ActiveRecord?

    - by crankharder
    My app has "normal" users: those which come through a typical signup page facebook(FB) users: those which come from Facebook connect "FB-normal" users: a user that can log with both email/password * FB connect Further, there's the a slew of other openID-ish login methods (I don't think openID itself will be acceptable since it doesn't link up the accounts and allow the 3rd party specific features (posting to twitter, adding a FB post, etc etc)) So, how do I model this? Right now we have User class with #facebook_user? defined -- but it gets messy with the "FB-normal" users - plus all the validations become very tricky and hard to interpret. Also, there are methods like #deliver_password_reset! which make no sense in the context for facebook-only users. (this is lame) I've thought out STI (User::Facebook, User::Normal, User::FBNormal, etc.) This makes validations super slick, but it doesn't scale to other connection types, and all the permutations between them... User::FacebookLinkedInNormal(wtf?) Doing this with a bunch of modules I think would suck a lot. Any other ideas?

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  • Xcode "Build and Archive" from command line

    - by Dan Fabulich
    Xcode 3.2 provides an awesome new feature under the Build menu, "Build and Archive" which generates an .ipa file suitable for Ad Hoc distribution. You can also open the Organizer, go to "Archived Applications," and "Submit Application to iTunesConnect." Is there a way to use "Build and Archive" from the command line (as part of a build script)? I'd assume that xcodebuild would be involved somehow, but the man page doesn't seem to say anything about this. UPDATE Michael Grinich requested clarification; here's what exactly you can't do with command-line builds, features you can ONLY do with Xcode's Organizer after you "Build and Archive." You can click "Share Application..." to share your IPA with beta testers. As Guillaume points out below, due to some Xcode magic, this IPA file does not require a separately distributed .mobileprovision file that beta testers need to install; that's magical. No command-line script can do it. For example, Arrix's script (submitted May 1) does not meet that requirement. More importantly, after you've beta tested a build, you can click "Submit Application to iTunes Connect" to submit that EXACT same build to Apple, the very binary you tested, without rebuilding it. That's impossible from the command line, because signing the app is part of the build process; you can sign bits for Ad Hoc beta testing OR you can sign them for submission to the App Store, but not both. No IPA built on the command-line can be beta tested on phones and then submitted directly to Apple. I'd love for someone to come along and prove me wrong: both of these features work great in the Xcode GUI and cannot be replicated from the command line.

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  • Printing to different printers using mozilla.

    - by Nick-ACNB
    I am currently creating a web application that will be deployed in an intranet environment. I chose firefox to be the browser that will run it. However, in the application I am building, I need to be able to print to different printers quickly since they use different paper size depending on what client is coming. To avoid many time-wasting mistakes that could occur, for instance someone choosing the wrong printer and wasting paper. Also, the time used to find the right printer for the job and then pressing print is considered too long in the current context. Is there any solution to this problem? I understand the potential security flaw behind this, but please be aware that this is solely an intranet project and that I can reduce the browser's security to the lowest since they don't access internet. I know there could be something doable behind IE (ActiveX or VBScript) but I am using firefox. Also, I guess there could also be something rather tricky that when you press print on the browser, it saves what needs to be printed to a DB and then there is an exe app that runs and fetch that DB every set ammount of time and print to the right printer. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. I doubt I am the only one to ever face this issue! :) Thank you very much.

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  • what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

    - by Michael Mao
    This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

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  • Spring can't find a lib and webapp doesn't start up in tomcat 6

    - by gotch4
    I've this problem using STS: I'm building a simple Spring app, just to try out features like MVC and persistence. Now I've created something very simple, out of a bunch of tutorials for Spring 3, that I'm using. The application fails with this, during server startup: Code: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0': Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.CannotLoadBeanClassException: Cannot find class [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean] for bean with name 'mySessionFactory' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml]; nested exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean but I've org.springframework.orm in web-inf/classes folder (I even tried putting it in web-inf/lib). As I copied these libs there, the came out in Web App Libraries folder. Building this project in STS works fine as this dependency is set up in build path throught project properties, but how do I transfer the libs to the web app? (I'm using Tomcat 6 as it is the server I'm going to use sometime in the future for production). Is this a config problem of my XML? Or am I just missing the right way to put this lib? (I encountered the same problem before, but adding the needed lib in classes worked it out). More than this I that if I browse inside my workspace to the folder where the working folder of tomcat should be, I can't find any work directory and any commo

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  • How to view shell commands used by eclipse "run configurations"

    - by gmale
    Given a "run configuration" in Eclipse, I want to print out the associated shell command that would be used to run it. For example: Right now, in Eclipse, if I click "play" it will run: mvn assembly:directory -Dmaven.test.skip=true I don't see that command, I just know that's what the IDE must run, at some point. However, some of the other run configurations are far more complex with long classpaths and virtual machine options and, frankly, sometimes I have no idea what the equivalent shell command would be (particularly when it comes to Flex). There must be some way to access the shell command that would be associated with a "Run Configuration" in Eclipse/Flex Builder. This information must be available, which leads me to believe someone has written a plugin to display it. Or maybe there's already an option built into Eclipse for accessing this. So is there a way to, essentially, convert an Eclipse run configuration into a shell command? (for context only: I'm asking because I'm writing a bash script that automates everything I do, during development--from populating the Database all the way to opening Firefox and clearing the cache before running the web app. So every command I run from the IDE needs to exist in the script. Some are tricky to figure out.)

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  • Problem with sending cookies with file_get_contents

    - by Ikke
    Hi, i'm trying to get the contents from another file with file_get_contents (don't ask why). I have two files: test1.php and test2.php. Test1.php returns a string, bases on the user that is logged in. Test2.php tries to get the contents of test1.php and is being executed by the browser, thus getting the cookies. To send the cookies with file_get_contents, i create a streaming context: $opts = array('http' => array('header'=> 'Cookie: ' . $_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE']."\r\n"))`; I'm retreiving the contents with: $contents = file_get_contents("http://www.domain.com/test1.php", false, $opts); But now I get the error: Warning: file_get_contents(http://www.domain.com/test1.php) [function.file-get-contents]: failed to open stream: HTTP request failed! HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found Does somebody knows what i'm doing wroing here? edit: forgot to mention: Without the streaming_context, the page just loads. But withouth the cookies I don't get the info I need.

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  • Properly maintain sorted state of Array/Set

    - by Jeff
    I'm trying to get data out of my MOC and then create some new objects based on those objects, and put it all back together, while keeping my sort state. The securities come out of the MOC in proper order. And everything seems to be fine until I do the assignment to the game at the bottom from setWithArray. The documentation says that setWithArray removed the duplicate objects, if there are any. I'm wonder if that's messing up my data, but I don't see a good alternative. The data is ultimately being pulled out into a UITableView. When I add items to the game manually, then they stay sorted, so I don't think the breaking of the sort is beyond the scope of what I've included here. NSError *error; NSArray *allTheSecurities = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; if (allTheSecurities == nil) { // Handle the error. } [request release]; /**/ NSLog( @"Enumerate..." ); NSEnumerator *enumerator = [allTheSecurities objectEnumerator]; id anObject; NSMutableArray *portfolioStocks = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; while (anObject = [enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog( @"Iteration... %@", [anObject name] ); NSLog( @"Build a stock..." ); PortfolioStocks *this_stock = (PortfolioStocks *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"PortfolioStocks" inManagedObjectContext:context]; NSLog( @"Set a value..." ); [this_stock setSecurity:(Security *)anObject]; [this_stock setQuantity:[NSNumber numberWithInt:0]]; NSLog( @"Add to portfolioStocks..." ); [portfolioStocks addObject:this_stock]; } //Sorted properly up to here! NSLog( @"Add to portfolio..." ); [game setPortfolio:[NSSet setWithArray:portfolioStocks]]; // <-- This is where it's not sorted anymore.

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  • How to scale JPEG images with a non-standard sampling factor in Java?

    - by HRJ
    I am using Java AWT for scaling a JPEG image, to create thumbnails. The code works fine when the image has a normal sampling factor ( 2x2,1x1,1x1 ) However, an image which has this sampling factor ( 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ) creates problem when scaled. The colors get corrupted though the features are recognizable. The original and the thumbnail: The code I am using is roughly equivalent to: static BufferedImage awtScaleImage(BufferedImage image, int maxSize, int hint) { // We use AWT Image scaling because it has far superior quality // compared to JAI scaling. It also performs better (speed)! System.out.println("AWT Scaling image to: " + maxSize); int w = image.getWidth(); int h = image.getHeight(); float scaleFactor = 1.0f; if (w > h) scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) w); else scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) h); w = (int)(w * scaleFactor); h = (int)(h * scaleFactor); // since this code can run both headless and in a graphics context // we will just create a standard rgb image here and take the // performance hit in a non-compatible image format if any Image i = image.getScaledInstance(w, h, hint); image = new BufferedImage(w, h, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_RGB); Graphics2D g = image.createGraphics(); g.drawImage(i, null, null); g.dispose(); i.flush(); return image; } (Code courtesy of this page ) Is there a better way to do this? Here's a test image with sampling factor of [ 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ].

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  • Get a selected radio button value after POST to set other fields enabled/disabled

    - by Redeemed1
    I have an MVC application with a simple control to all selection of All Dates or selecting a Date Range. The radio buttons have an onclick handler to enable/disable the dat pickers. All work well so far. When I try to set the correct context state for the datepickers after doing a POST I cannot get the jQuery selector to return the radio buttons checked value. The code is as follows: <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "AllDates", Model.AllDates == "AllDates", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>ALL Dates&nbsp; <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "Selection", Model.AllDates == "Selection", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>Selection <%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.startdate", Model.StartDate, "", "") %> &nbsp;To&nbsp;<%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.enddate", Model.EndDate, "", "") %><br /> The javascript is as follows: <script type="text/jscript" > function setReadOnly(obj) { if (obj.value == "Selection") { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); } else { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); } } <script type="text/jscript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#DateSelection_startdate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); $('#DateSelection_enddate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); setReadOnly(selected); }); The javascript line that is causing the problem is var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); which will NOT return the checked radio button. Using var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates'); will return the first radio button value as expected i.e. applying the ':checked' filter ALWAYS returns undefined. Can anyone see anything wrong here?

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  • C# custom control to get internal text as string

    - by Ed Woodcock
    ok, I'm working on a custom control that can contain some javascript, and read this out of the page into a string field. This is a workaround for dynamic javascript inside an updatepanel. At the moment, I've got it working, but if I try to put a server tag inside the block: <custom:control ID="Custom" runat="server"> <%= ControlName.ClientID %> </custom:control> The compiler does not like it. I know these are generated at runtime, and so might not be compatible with what I'm doing, but does anyone have any idea how I can get that working? EDIT Error message is: Code blocks are not supported in this context EDIT 2 The control: [DataBindingHandler("System.Web.UI.Design.TextDataBindingHandler, System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"), ControlValueProperty("Text"), DefaultProperty("Text"), ParseChildren(true, "Text"), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal)] public class CustomControl : Control, ITextControl { [DefaultValue(""), Bindable(true), Localizable(true)] public string Text { get { return (string)(ViewState["Text"] ?? string.Empty); } set { ViewState["Text"] = value; } } }

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  • Animation is slow on iPhone

    - by Anthony Chan
    I'm developing an app that would display images and change them according to the user's action. I've created a subclass of UIView to contain an image, an index number and an array of image names. The code is like this: @interface CustomPic : UIView { UIImageView *pic; NSInteger index; NSMutableArray *picNames; //<-- an array of NSString } And in the implementation part, it has a method to change the image using a dissolve effect. - (void)nextPic { index++; if (index >= [picNames count]) { index = 0; } UIImageView *temp = pic; pic.image = [UIImage imageNamed:[picNames objectAtIndex:index]]; temp.alpha = 0; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseOut]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.25]; pic.alpha = 0; temp.alpha = 1; [UIView commitAnimations]; } In the viewController, there are several CustomPic which would change the images depends on users' choice. The images would change as expected with the fade in/out effect, but the animation performance is really bad. I've tested it on an iPhone 3G, the Instruments shows that the animation is only 2-3FPS! I tried many methods to simplify and modify the codes but with no hope. Is there something wrong in my code or in my concept? Thanks for any help. P.S. all the images are 320*480 PNGs with a max size of 15KB.

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  • JavaApplicationStub with SWT causing problems

    - by mystro
    I created an application in Eclipse that uses SWT for the GUI. I've attempted to deploy the application using the Eclipse deploy, but it seems that when I do that, LSUIElement is not respected, and I can't force the application to disappear from the dock. Nonwhistanding that issue, the application actually deploys ok and is runnable. I attempted to deploy the application using Jar Bundler, but when I try to run the application, I get the following errors: 2010-06-09 21:44:02.564 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10021f260 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.568 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10010a0a0 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.569 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x1001127a0 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.582 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x7fff70b7af70 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.583 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100123ea0 of class NSCFData autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.587 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225b90 of class NSCFDictionary autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.588 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225ee0 of class __NSFastEnumerationEnumerator autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking in a very, very, very, long list. The application launches and appears to hang with the icon constantly bouncing in the dock, and the first GUI menu only partially loaded (it looks like one of the text boxes is semi visible, and the overall rectangle is the right size, but the GUI is not showing properly. It is essentially hung.) I'm hoping someone has had experience with this problem, and may be able to help! Thanks!

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  • Node-webkit works on Mac, crashes and can't load module on Windows

    - by user756201
    I've created a full node-webkit app that works fine on the Mac OSX version of node-webkit. Everything works, it loads a key external nodeJS module (marked), and the world is good. However, when I try to run the app on the Windows version of Node-webkit as described in the Wiki, the app crashes immediately (in fact, it crashes immediately when I try all the options: dragging a folder onto nw.exe, dragging an app.nw compressed folder, and running both from the command line). The only thing that gets me closer is opening nw.exe and then pointing the node-webkit location bar to the index file. Then I get this error: Uncaught node.js Error Error: Cannot find module 'marked' I tried commenting out the code that requires marked: var marked = require('marked'); That returns the app to crashing immediately. I assumed it was because of context issues between node.js and the node-webkit browser, but those seem to not be at fault since I tried this suggestion to make sure it finds the correct file for the marked module...went right back to immediate crashing. I'm out of ideas because the crashes don't seem to leave me any way of knowing what the error was.

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  • Setting the default stack size on Linux globally for the program

    - by wowus
    So I've noticed that the default stack size for threads on linux is 8MB (if I'm wrong, PLEASE correct me), and, incidentally, 1MB on Windows. This is quite bad for my application, as on a 4-core processor that means 64 MB is space is used JUST for threads! The worst part is, I'm never using more than 100kb of stack per thread (I abuse the heap a LOT ;)). My solution right now is to limit the stack size of threads. However, I have no idea how to do this portably. Just for context, I'm using Boost.Thread for my threading needs. I'm okay with a little bit of #ifdef hell, but I'd like to know how to do it easily first. Basically, I want something like this (where windows_* is linked on windows builds, and posix_* is linked under linux builds) // windows_stack_limiter.c int limit_stack_size() { // Windows impl. return 0; } // posix_stack_limiter.c int limit_stack_size() { // Linux impl. return 0; } // stack_limiter.cpp int limit_stack_size(); static volatile int placeholder = limit_stack_size(); How do I flesh out those functions? Or, alternatively, am I just doing this entirely wrong? Remember I have no control over the actual thread creation (no new params to CreateThread on Windows), as I'm using Boost.Thread.

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  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

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  • Application design question, best approach?

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I am in the process of designing an application that will allow you to find pictures (screen shots) made from certain programs. I will provide the locations of a few of the program in the application itself to get the user started. I was wondering how I should go about adding new locations as the time goes on, my first thought was simply hard coding it into the application but this will mean the user has to reinstall it to make the changes take affect. My second idea was to use an XML file to contain all the locations as well as other data, such as the name of the application. This also means the user can add their own locations if they wish as well as sharing them over the internet. The second option seemed the best approach but then I had to think how would it be managed on the users computer. Ideally I'd like just a single .exe without the reliance on any external files such as the XML but this would bring me back to point one. Would it be best to simply use the ClickOnce deployment to create an entry in the start menu and create a folder containing the .exe and the file names? Thanks for the feedback, I don't want to start implementing the application until the design is nailed.

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  • Access 2007 not allowing user to delete record in subform

    - by Todd McDermid
    Good day... The root of my issue is that there's no context menu allowing the user to delete a row from a form. The "delete" button on the ribbon is also disabled. In Access 2003, apparently this function was available, but since our recent "upgrade" to 2007 (file is still in MDB format) it's no longer there. Please keep in mind I'm not an Access dev, nor did I create this app - I inherited support for it. ;) Now for the details, and what I've tried. The form in question is a subform on a larger form. I've tried turning "AllowDeletes" on on both forms. I've checked the toolbar and ribbon properties on the forms to see if they loaded some custom stuff, but no. I've tried changing the "record locks" to "on edit", no joy. I examined the query to see if it was "too complicated" to permit a delete - as far as I can tell, it's a very simple two (linked) table join. Compared to another form in this app that does permit row deletes, it has a much more complicated (multi-join, built on queries) query. Is there a resource that would describe the required conditions for allowing deletes? Thanks in advance...

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  • Android - overlay small check icon over specific image in gridview or change border

    - by oscar
    I've just asked a question about an hour ago, while waiting for replies, I've thought maybe I can achieve what I want differently. I was thinking of changing the image but it would be better if I could perhaps overlay something over the top of complete levels in the gridview i.e a small tick icon At the moment, when a level has been completed I am storing that with sharedpreferences So I have a gridView layout to display images that represent levels. Let's just say for this example I have 20 levels. When one level is complete is it possible to overlay the tick icon or somehow highlight the level image. Maybe change the border of the image?? Here are the image arrays I use int[] imageIDs = { R.drawable.one, R.drawable.two, R.drawable.three, R.drawable.four, R.drawable.five, R.drawable.six etc....... and then I have my code to set the images in gridView. Obviously there is more code in between. public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ImageView imageView; if (convertView == null) { imageView = new ImageView(context); imageView.setLayoutParams(new GridView.LayoutParams(140, 140)); imageView.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); imageView.setPadding(5, 5, 5, 5); } else { imageView = (ImageView) convertView; } imageView.setImageResource(imageIDs[position]); return imageView; would it be possible to do any of the above, even the border method would be fine. Thanks for any help

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  • How memset initializes an array of integers by -1?

    - by haccks
    The manpage says about memset: #include <string.h> void *memset(void *s, int c, size_t n) The memset() function fills the first n bytes of the memory area pointed to by s with the constant byte c. It is clear that memset can't be used to initialize int array as shown below: int a[10]; memset(a, 1, sizeof(a)); it is because int is represented by 4 bytes (say) and one can not get the desired value for the integers in array a. But I often see the programmers use memset to set the int array elements to either 0 or -1. int a[10]; int b[10]; memset(a, 0, sizeof(a)); memset(b, -1, sizeof(b)); As per my understanding, initializing with integer 0 is OK because 0 can be represented in 1 byte (may be I am wrong in this context). But how it is possible to initialize b with -1 (a 4 bytes value)?

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  • How to generate lots of redundant ajax elements like checkboxes and pulldowns in Django?

    - by iJames
    Hello folks. I've been getting lots of answers from stackoverflow now that I'm in Django just be searching. Now I hope my question will also create some value for everybody. In choosing Django, I was hoping there was some similar mechanism to the way you can do partials in ROR. This was going to help me in two ways. One was in generating repeating indexed forms or form elements, and also in rendering only a piece of the page on the round trip. I've done a little bit of that by using taconite with a simple URL click but now I'm trying to get more advanced. This will focus on the form issue which boils down to how to iterate over a secondary object. If I have a list of photo instances, each of which has a couple of parameters, let's say a size and a quantity. I want to generate form elements for each photo instance separately. But then I have two lists I want to iterate on at the same time. Context: photos : Photo.objects.all() and forms = {} for photo in photos: forms[photo.id] = PhotoForm() In other words we've got a list of photo objects and a dict of forms based on the photo.id. Here's an abstraction of the template: {% for photo in photos %} {% include "photoview.html" %} {% comment %} So here I want to use the photo.id as an index to get the correct form. So that each photo has its own form. I would want to have a different action and each form field would be unique. Is that possible? How can I iterate on that? Thanks! {% endcomment %} Quantity: {{ oi.quantity }} {{ form.quantity }} Dimensions: {{ oi.size }} {{ form.size }} {% endfor %} What can I do about this simple case. And how can I make it where every control is automatically updating the server instead of using a form at all? Thanks! James

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  • What does the windbg command "kd" do?

    - by Oskar
    I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

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  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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  • getting CS1502 compiler error on dev environment but not production.

    - by nw
    When I try to run my ASP.NET app from my development environment I get the following error message: Compiler Error Message: CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'mmars.Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(mmars.contextInfo, ref mmars.Printing.printObjSummary)' has some invalid arguments. When I publish and run on our production server I don't get this error. It seems to compile fine when I build from the build menu (in fact if I change the second argument of the bolded function call below, i get a compiler error in visual studio), but now i've suddenly started getting this error message at runtime. So another question I have in addition to getting rid of the error is why is the .NET development server even trying to do JIT compilation on my project if it is already compiled into a DLL? Printing.printObjSummary myPrintObj = new Printing.printObjSummary(); Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(ci, ref myPrintObj); printObjects.Add(myPrintObj); This seems to have just suddenly appeared from nowhere today and it's extremely frustrating. Also, though there are no warnings at compile-time, when I get redirected to the page with that first compilation error there are many warnings like the following: Warning: CS0436: The type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs' conflicts with the imported type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\assembly\dl3\7179c19a\345f948c_ece7ca01\mmars.DLL'. Using the type defined in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs'. What's the deal with that? Is the webserver complaining about name conflicts in the source file and dll resulting from the source file?

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