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  • How do I loop through elements inside a div?

    - by crosenblum
    I have to make a custom function for search/replace text, because firefox counts text nodes differently than IE, Google Chrome, etc.. I am trying to use this code, that I saw at Firefox WhiteSpace Issue since in my other function, I am looping numerically through nodes, which serves my functional needs perfectly, in other browsers. But refuses to work, as part of a search/replace function that takes place after some ajax content is loaded. Here is the code, that I have tried to get to work, but I must be missing the correct understanding of the context of how to loop thru elements inside a div. // get all childnodes inside div function div_translate(divid) { // list child nodes of parent if (divid != null) { // var children = parent.childNodes, child; var parentNode = divid; // start loop thru child nodes for(var node=parentNode.firstChild;node!=null;node=node.nextSibling){ // begin check nodeType if(node.nodeType == 1){ // get value of this node var value = content(node); // get class of this node var myclass = node.attr('class'); console.log(myclass); // begin check if value undefined if (typeof(value) != 'undefined' && value != null) { console.log(value); // it is a text node. do magic. for (var x = en_count; x > 0; x--) { // get current english phrase var from = en_lang[x]; // get current other language phrase var to = other_lang[x]; if (value.match(from)) { content(node, value.replace(from, to)); } } } // end check if value undefined } // end check nodeType } // end loop thru child nodes } }

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  • Windows Server 2008 R2 File Permissions

    - by Fly_Trap
    I’m having some problems understanding some particular file permissions behaviour. Here are the steps to reproduce: Log into the server using the default Administrator account Create a text file (testfile.txt) in C:\ProgramData containing some arbitrary text Create a new user account and make it a member of the Administrators group Log in using new account and open C:\ProgramData\testfile.txt Edit the text and try to save Upon clicking save I’m presented with the save as dialog, which indicates that i do not have the necessary permissions to edit the file. This seems odd considering that the new user account is a member of Administrators. When I view the permissions of the file I can see the there are three groups listed, System, Administrators and Users. SYSTEM and Administrators have full permissions, however, Users only has the Read & Execute and Read permissions checked. It would appear that when I open the testfile.txt from the new users account, it opens in the context of the Users group, despite being a member of Administrators, is this correct? It would certainly explain the behaviour. The reason that this is an issue for me is that if I deploy an application via 'Run as Administrator', will normal users be able to edit the text files I install to ProgramData. Is this behaviour confined to Windows server or is it the same in Vista and Win7.

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  • Decompiling an old Program

    - by Pedro Laranjeiro
    Hi. I have been asked to update a program written in 1987 in Delphi (I guess). I have no documentation about this program only a few side notes the programmer took that don't make too much sense to make. The cd show this files: Size | Filename - 19956 VP.DTA - 142300 VP.LEX - 404 VP.NDX - 126502 VP.RCS - 131016 VP.SCR - 150067 VP.XEL - 101791 vp.exe Is anyone of this files a database? If so can I access it's data? I tried several code decompilers but they show a message saying it was not a Win32 compatible application. The program run in MS-DOS. Is it possible to obtain the source code? Can I use this code in any way to build a new application? Thanks Update01: I can run the program in MSDOS. The program conjugate verbs and shows an example sentence where the verb can be used. The GUI is a little bit confusing and there is no help menu so I can't see all the capabilities of the program.

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  • Divs, flash and doctype :(

    - by nick
    I have a web-site, that uses colorbox, it also has flash header. Everything works fine in both ff and ie. Before ive started to use colorbox, i had little div that covered small part of flash header for menu purposes. Now, since im using colorbox, i had to declare doctype, and set wmode on flash to 'opaque', in order everything to work right way.But now i cant get that little div, to appear on top of my flash header. If anyone can help me with this, please do so.... or atleast tell me what should i read : ( im will be very gratefull for any solution. current html document structure: ... all the js and css files ... heres that div's style from corresponding css file: .cell_r0_c0{position: absolute;left: 61%;width:260;height:69; background-color: #000000; vertical-align: bottom;} I think i've allready tried all the combinations of position attribute, also tried diff z-index values, and i can't get it work the way i want. Maybe ive missed something idk. Please help me :(

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  • How to associate application with existing file types using WiX installer?

    - by Marek
    related to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138550/how-to-register-file-types-extensions-with-a-wix-installer but not a duplicate. I need to handle existing file types (.jpg files). I do not want to be the default handler for .jpg, I would just like to extend the "Open with" menu with a link to my app. I see HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithList\ and HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithProgIds\ in the registry but I am not sure whether to write to these and how to do it correctly with WiX. Should I use something like this? <ProgId Id='??what here?' Description='Jpeg handled by my App'> <Extension Id='jpg' ContentType='image/jpeg'> <Verb Id='openwithmyapp' Sequence='10' Command='OpenWithMyApp' Target='[!FileId]' Argument='"%1"' /> </Extension> </ProgId> There are many ways how to fail here (like Photo Mechanics did, the HKCR for image file types is a real mess after I have installed this software) How to do this correctly with WiX?

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  • SQL connection to database repeating

    - by user175084
    ok now i am using the SQL database to get the values from different tables... so i make the connection and get the values like this: DataTable dt = new DataTable(); SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["XYZConnectionString"].ConnectionString; connection.Open(); SqlCommand sqlCmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM Machines", connection); SqlDataAdapter sqlDa = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCmd); sqlCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@node", node); sqlDa.Fill(dt); connection.Close(); so this is one query on the page and i am calling many other queries on the page. So do i need to open and close the connection everytime...??? also if not this portion is common in all: DataTable dt = new DataTable(); SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["XYZConnectionString"].ConnectionString; connection.Open(); can i like put it in one function and call it instead.. the code would look cleaner... i tried doing that but i get errors like: Connection does not exist in the current context. any suggestions??? thanks

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  • Have to click twice to submit the form

    - by phil
    Intended function: require user to select an option from the drop down menu. After user clicks submit button, validate if an option is selected. Display error message and not submit the form if user fails to select. Otherwise submit the form. Problem: After select an option, button has to be clicked twice to submit the form. I have no clue at all.. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <style> p{display: none;} </style> </head> <script> $(function(){ // language as an array var language=['Arabic','Cantonese','Chinese','English','French','German','Greek','Hebrew','Hindi','Italian','Japanese','Korean','Malay','Polish','Portuguese','Russian','Spanish','Thai','Turkish','Urdu','Vietnamese']; $('#muyu').append('<option value=0>Select</option>'); //loop through array for (i in language) //js unique statement for iterate array { $('#muyu').append($('<option>',{id:'muyu'+i,val:language[i], html:language[i]})) } $('form').submit(function(){ alert('I am being called!'); // check if submit event is triggered if ( $('#muyu').val()==0 ) {$('#muyu_error').show(); } else {$('#muyu_error').hide(); return true;} return false; }) }) </script> <form method="post" action="match.php"> I am fluent in <select name='muyu' id='muyu'></select> <p id='muyu_error'>Tell us your native language</p> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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  • Using JQuery in an AJAX control and avoiding conflicts

    - by Rich Andrews
    Hi, I am using JQuery within a custom AJAX user control (part of a home grown toolkit) and I need to ensure that JQuery is present on the hosting page. There can be multiple instances of the control on a page and some controls may need to use different versions of JQuery. At the moment I am using the following code to load in JQuery when the control initializes... Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(Page.GetType(), "jquery-1.4.4.min.js", this.ResolveUrl("TextControlPlugin/lib/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")); This works because the scriptmanager handles not putting multiple copies of the same script into he page. Problems... I cannot use JQuery statically in the calling page (I may not have a control on the page but need to use JQuery) The scriptmanager appears to handle only duplicate URL's and I will need to deploy it from potentially 2 different URL's (the calling page's copy and the controls copy) So, is there a way to isolate a version of JQuery to the context of my control that doesnt interfear with any use of JQuery from the calling page? The developer writing the page may not have access to the internals of the control. I have looked at JQuery.noConflict() but cannot seem to get it to work correctly - I believe I'm having problems with the order in which the scripts are injected into the page - I keep getting JQuery is undefined errors. Any help would be much appreciated

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  • Java method help

    - by dalton conley
    Ok, so I'm working on a project for a class I'm taking.. simple music library. Now I'm having some issues, the main issue is I'm getting "non-static method cannot be referenced from a static context" Here is a function I have public void addSong() { Scanner scan = new Scanner(System.in); Song temp = new Song(); int index = countFileLines(Main.databaseFile); index = index + 2; temp.index = index; System.out.print("Enter the artist name: "); temp.artist.append(scan.next()); } Now thats in a class file called LibraryFunctions. So I can access it with LibraryFunctions.addSong(); Now I'm trying to run this in my main java file and its giving me the error, I know why the error is happening, but what do I do about it? If I make addSong() a static function then it throws errors at me with the Song temp = new Song() being static. Kind of ironic. Much help is appreciated on this!

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  • Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

    - by Yucel
    Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

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  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

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  • How to Create a Simple Dictation Pad in Delphi2009+Vista

    - by XBasic3000
    the code are not so complecated.. private { Private declarations } SpSharedRecoContext1 : TSpSharedRecoContext; fMyGrammar : ISpeechRecoGrammar; procedure SpSharedRecoContext1Recognition(ASender: TObject; StreamNumber: Integer; StreamPosition: OleVariant; RecognitionType: SpeechRecognitionType; const Result: ISpeechRecoResult); procedure SpSharedRecoContext1Hypothesis(ASender: TObject; StreamNumber: Integer; StreamPosition: OleVariant; const Result: ISpeechRecoResult); procedure TForm1.FormCreate(Sender: TObject); begin SpSharedRecoContext1 := TSpSharedRecoContext.Create(self); SpSharedRecoContext1.OnHypothesis := SpSharedRecoContext1Hypothesis; SpSharedRecoContext1.OnRecognition :=SpSharedRecoContext1Recognition; fMyGrammar := SpSharedRecoContext1.CreateGrammar(0); fMyGrammar.DictationSetState(SGDSActive); end; procedure TForm1.SpSharedRecoContext1Recognition(ASender: TObject; StreamNumber: Integer; StreamPosition: OleVariant; RecognitionType: SpeechRecognitionType; const Result: ISpeechRecoResult); begin Memo1.Text := Result.PhraseInfo.GetText(0,-1,true); end; procedure TForm1.SpSharedRecoContext1Hypothesis(ASender: TObject; StreamNumber: Integer; StreamPosition: OleVariant; const Result: ISpeechRecoResult); begin Memo1.Text := Result.PhraseInfo.GetText(0,-1,true); end; My Problem, was the vista-OS voice command will intercept on my program. if i say "START", instead of writing start on memo1 it press the start menu on my desktop. or what ever command like START CANCEL EDIT DELETE SELECT etc. please help..... sorry for my english

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  • QSqlQuery UPDATE/INSERT DateTime with server's time (eg CURRENT_TIMESTAMP)

    - by Skinniest Man
    I am using QSqlQuery to insert data into a MySQL database. Currently all I care about is getting this to work with MySQL, but ideally I'd like to keep this as platform-independent as possible. What I'm after, in the context of MySQL, is to end up with code that effectively executes something like the following query: UPDATE table SET time_field=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP() WHERE id='5' The following code is what I have attempted, but it fails: QSqlQuery query; query.prepare("INSERT INTO table SET time_field=? WHERE id=?"); query.addBindValue("CURRENT_TIMESTAMP()"); query.addBindValue(5); query.exec(); The error I get is: Incorrect datetime value: 'CURRENT_TIMESTAMP()' for column 'time_field' at row 1 QMYSQL3: Unable to execute statement. I am not surprised as I assume Qt is doing some type checking when it binds values. I have dug through the Qt documentation as well as I know how, but I can't find anything in the API designed specifically for supporting MySQL's CURRENT_TIMESTAMP() function, or that of any other DBMS. Any suggestions?

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  • How to use libavformat for a separate encoder?

    - by Brendon Tsai
    I've build a encoder based on the sample of QUALCOMM, which captures the video and compresses it into h264 file. I am using Android 4.2.2. Now I want to add a mp4 muxer into this encoder(actually, just video will be fine, I don't need audio). I want to use FFMpeg. But after I read the example, I found out that the muxer was using the encoder of FFMpeg. I don't know how to use the muxer part for another encoder. I've read this post, but I don't understand how the code provide video stream to the muxer. I think that mainly because I don't understand these code: AVCodecContext * strmCodec = oFmtCtx->streams[0]->codec; // Fill the required properties for codec context. // *from the documentation: // *The user sets codec information, the muxer writes it to the output. // *Mandatory fields as specified in AVCodecContext // *documentation must be set even if this AVCodecContext is // *not actually used for encoding. my_tune_codec(strmCodec); Can anyone give me a hint? Thank you!

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  • Angularjs throws TypeError: Cannot read property 'indexOf' of undefined

    - by Ali
    I'm trying to debug the above code which I feel like this is very useful .< I can't even find what is wrong in my code and don't really know where to start since Angularjs still very new to me. I'm trying to localize Angularjs app. I know this is missing a lot of context in order to get a help, but I'm trying to see what information that I should give that would help on this debugging. I've gone through any indexOf in angularjs file and I can see few things is undefined but don't know if that would be helpful. So I've traced the problem here and this is what I have figured is the problem, but still counldn't figure out why... config(['$routeProvider', '$locationProvider', function ($routeProvider, $locationProvider) { $routeProvider.when('/:locale?/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/teaching-resources', { templateUrl: '_partials/teaching-resources.html', controller: 'teachingResources' }) .when('/:username/makes', { templateUrl: '_partials/makes.html', controller: 'makes' }) .when('/:username/likes', { templateUrl: '_partials/likes.html', controller: 'likes' }) .when('/:username/events', { templateUrl: '_partials/events.html', controller: 'events' }) .when('/:username', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }); $routeProvider.otherwise({ redirectTo: '/error/404' }); The URL that I'm visiting for default page is: This will fail and throw the error. http://localhost:1969/en-US/user/someUserName This will work fine http://localhost:1969/user/someUserName UPDATE I figured out! This is the problem: $locationProvider.html5Mode(true); But why!?

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  • Using sigprocmask to implement locks

    - by EpsilonVector
    I'm implementing user threads in Linux kernel 2.4, and I'm using ualarm to invoke context switches between the threads. We have a requirement that our thread library's functions should be uninterruptable, so I looked into blocking signals and learned that using sigprocmask is the standard way to do this. However, it looks like I need to do quite a lot to implement this: sigset_t new_set, old_set; sigemptyset(&new_set); sigaddset(&new_set, SIGALRM); sigprocmask(SIG_BLOCK, &new_set, &old_set); This blocks SIGALARM but it does this with 3 function invocations! A lot can happen in the time it takes for these functions to run, including the signal being sent. The best idea I had to mitigate this was temporarily disabling ualarm, like this: sigset_t new_set, old_set; time=ualarm(0,0); sigemptyset(&new_set); sigaddset(&new_set, SIGALRM); sigprocmask(SIG_BLOCK, &new_set, &old_set); ualarm(time, 0); Which is fine except that this feels verbose. Isn't there a better way to do this?

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  • You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity

    - by ProNeticas
    I have a function that shows a map page so I can get the user to choose their current location. But if you run this function twice it crashes the App with the Single MapView in a MapActivity error (i.e. opening that settings view again). public void showMapSetterPage(View v) { Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "Settings screen, set map center launched"); // Set which view object we fired off from set_pv(v); // Show Map Settings Screen setContentView(R.layout.set_map_center); // Initiate the center point map if (mapView == null) { mapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); } mapView.setLongClickable(true); mapView.setStreetView(true); mapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(false); mapView.setSatellite(false); mapController = mapView.getController(); mapController.setZoom(18); LocationManager lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Location location = lm .getLastKnownLocation(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER); int lat = (int) (location.getLatitude() * 1E6); int lng = (int) (location.getLongitude() * 1E6); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "The LAT and LONG is: " + lat + " == " + lng); point = new GeoPoint(lat, lng); // mapController.setCenter(point); mapController.animateTo(point); } So I have a button that shows this View and onClick="showMapSetterPage". But if you go back to the settings screen out of the map and click the button again I get this error: 03-06 20:55:54.091: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(28014): Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity How can I delete the MapView and recreate it?

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  • How to remove erroneous dependency from tycho build?

    - by sfinnie
    Context: Have built an eclipse update site using tycho but trying to install into target IDE fails. The update site builds fine; I can see it from a target eclipse installation and select the feature for installation. However, the dependency check fails at start of install as it can't find a declared dependency (org.eclipselabs.xtext.utils.unittesting). This shouldn't be a dependency: it was erroneously included in MANIFEST.MF for one of my eclipse plugin projects. I removed the dependency from the manifest and run mvn clean install. Build reported success. However when I try to use the newly built update site it still complains that the dependency to org.eclipselabs.xtext.utils.unittesting (a) exists and (b) can't be satisfied. So the question is: what else do I need to do to remove the dependency from the generated update site? Thanks for any pointers. PS: I know I could add the site for o.e.x.u.unittesting in the target eclipse installation so it can satisfy the dependency. However I don't want to do that; it's not needed for the feature to work and I don't want other users to have to add an unnecessary dependency.

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  • How to encapsulate a WinAPI application into a C++ class

    - by Semen Semenych
    There is a simple WinAPI application. All it does currently is this: register a window class register a tray icon with a menu create a value in the registry in order to autostart and finally, it checks if it's unique using a mutex As I'm used to writing code mainly in C++, and no MFC is allowed, I'm forced to encapsulate this into C++ classes somehow. So far I've come up with such a design: there is a class that represents the application it keeps all the wndclass, hinstance, etc variables, where the hinstance is passed as a constructor parameter as well as the icmdshow and others (see WinMain prototype) it has functions for registering the window class, tray icon, reigstry information it encapsulates the message loop in a function In WinMain, the following is done: Application app(hInstance, szCmdLIne, iCmdShow); return app.exec(); and the constructor does the following: registerClass(); registerTray(); registerAutostart(); So far so good. Now the question is : how do I create the window procedure (must be static, as it's a c-style pointer to a function) AND keep track of what the application object is, that is, keep a pointer to an Application around. The main question is : is this how it's usually done? Am I complicating things too much? Is it fine to pass hInstance as a parameter to the Application constructor? And where's the WndProc? Maybe WndProc should be outside of class and the Application pointer be global? Then WndProc invokes Application methods in response to various events.

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  • Why initialize an object to empty

    - by ProgEnthu
    I am learning windows programming with the help of MSDN.Why would somebody initialize an object like the following? WNDCLASS wc = { }; Will this zero all the memory of the object? Whole source code is following: #ifndef UNICODE #define UNICODE #endif #include <windows.h> LRESULT CALLBACK WindowProc(HWND hwnd, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam); int WINAPI wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE, PWSTR pCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { // Register the window class. const wchar_t CLASS_NAME[] = L"Sample Window Class"; WNDCLASS wc = { }; wc.lpfnWndProc = WindowProc; wc.hInstance = hInstance; wc.lpszClassName = CLASS_NAME; RegisterClass(&wc); // Create the window. HWND hwnd = CreateWindowEx( 0, // Optional window styles. CLASS_NAME, // Window class L"Learn to Program Windows", // Window text WS_OVERLAPPEDWINDOW, // Window style // Size and position CW_USEDEFAULT, CW_USEDEFAULT, CW_USEDEFAULT, CW_USEDEFAULT, NULL, // Parent window NULL, // Menu hInstance, // Instance handle NULL // Additional application data ); if (hwnd == NULL) { return 0; } ShowWindow(hwnd, nCmdShow); // Run the message loop. MSG msg = { }; while (GetMessage(&msg, NULL, 0, 0)) { TranslateMessage(&msg); DispatchMessage(&msg); } return 0; } LRESULT CALLBACK WindowProc(HWND hwnd, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) { switch (uMsg) { case WM_DESTROY: PostQuitMessage(0); return 0; case WM_PAINT: { PAINTSTRUCT ps; HDC hdc = BeginPaint(hwnd, &ps); FillRect(hdc, &ps.rcPaint, (HBRUSH) (COLOR_WINDOW+1)); EndPaint(hwnd, &ps); } return 0; } return DefWindowProc(hwnd, uMsg, wParam, lParam); }

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  • Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

    - by Tyrel Van Niekerk
    I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

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  • Calling a WPF Application and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the application (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the application. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is there a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Application Dim e_key as new WpfApplication("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style application. ''work with events and response 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my keyboard and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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  • Why does the '#weight' property sometimes not have any effect in Drupal forms?

    - by Adrian
    Hello, I'm trying to create a node form for a custom type. I have organic groups and taxonomy both enabled, but want their elements to come out in a non-standard order. So I've implemented hook_form_alter and set the #weight property of the og_nodeapi subarray to -1000, but it still goes after taxonomy and menu. I even tried changing the subarray to a fieldset (to force it to actually be rendered), but no dice. I also tried setting $form['taxonomy']['#weight'] = 1000 (I have two vocabs so it's already being rendered as a fieldset) but that didn't work either. I set the weight of my module very high and confirmed in the system table that it is indeed the highest module on the site - so I'm all out of ideas. Any suggestions? Update: While I'm not exactly sure how, I did manage to get the taxonomy fieldset to sink below everything else, but now I have a related problem that's hopefully more manageable to understand. Within the taxonomy fieldset, I have two items (a tags and a multi-select), and I wanted to add some instructions in hook_form_alter as follows: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); You guessed it, this appears after the terms inserted by the taxonomy module. However, if I change this to a fieldset: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#type' => 'fieldset', // <-- here '#title' => 'Instructions', // <-- and here for good measure '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); then it magically floats to the top as I'd intended. I also tried textarea (this also worked) and explicitly saying markup (this did not). So basically, changing the type from "markup" (the default IIRC) to "fieldset" has the effect of no longer ignoring its weight.

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  • Set Renderbuffer Width and Height (Open GL ES)

    - by Josh Elsasser
    I'm currently experiencing an issue with an Open GL ES renderbuffer where the backing and width are are both set to 15. Is there any way to set them to the width of 320 and 480? My project is built up on Apple's EAGLView class and ES1Renderer, but I've moved it from the app delegate to a controller. I also moved the CADisplayLink outside of it (I update my game logic with the timestamp from this) Any help would be greatly appreciated. I add the glview to the window as follows: CGRect applicationFrame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]; [window addSubview:gameController.glview]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; I synthesize the controller and the glview within it. The EAGLView and Renderer are otherwise unmodified. Renderer Initialization: // Get the layer CAEAGLLayer *eaglLayer = (CAEAGLLayer *)self.layer; eaglLayer.opaque = TRUE; eaglLayer.drawableProperties = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:FALSE], kEAGLDrawablePropertyRetainedBacking, kEAGLColorFormatRGBA8, kEAGLDrawablePropertyColorFormat, nil]; renderer = [[ES1Renderer alloc] init]; Render "resize from layer" Method - (BOOL)resizeFromLayer:(CAEAGLLayer *)layer { // Allocate color buffer backing based on the current layer size glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context renderbufferStorage:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES fromDrawable:layer]; glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_WIDTH_OES, &backingWidth); glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_HEIGHT_OES, &backingHeight); NSLog(@"Backing Width:%i and Height: %i", backingWidth, backingHeight); if (glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES) != GL_FRAMEBUFFER_COMPLETE_OES) { NSLog(@"Failed to make complete framebuffer object %x", glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES)); return NO; } return YES; }

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  • How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

    - by Wion
    Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

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