Search Results

Search found 25123 results on 1005 pages for 'domain model'.

Page 529/1005 | < Previous Page | 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536  | Next Page >

  • CodeIgniter: problem using foreach in view

    - by krike
    I have a model and controller who gets some data from my database and returns the following array Array ( [2010] => Array ( [year] => 2010 [months] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [sales] => 2 [month] => Apr ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [sales] => 1 [month] => Nov ) ) ) [2011] => Array ( [year] => 2011 [months] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [sales] => 1 [month] => Nov ) ) ) ) It shows exactly what it should show but the key's have different names so I have no idea on how to loop through the years using foreach in my view. Arrays is something I'm not that good at yet :( this is the controller if you need to know: function analytics() { $this->load->model('admin_model'); $analytics = $this->admin_model->Analytics(); foreach ($analytics as $a): $data[$a->year]['year'] = $a->year; $data[$a->year]['months'] = $this->admin_model->AnalyticsMonth($a->year); endforeach; echo"<pre style='text-align:left;'>"; print_r($data); echo"</pre>"; $data['main_content'] = 'analytics'; $this->load->view('template_admin', $data); }//end of function categories()

    Read the article

  • Prohibit ampersand in Rails form

    - by snlsn
    NOT a Rails 3 issue In a Contact model I have a company_name attribute. For reasons that don't matter to this question, I want to prohibit an ampersand character. We have a lot of clients with ampersands in their company name, and users forget they aren't allowed to use this character. This isn't an html sanitize issue. I don't care about whitespace or CDATA or anything. The entries in this field are plain text and I don't want an ampersand to be entered in this one field in any way, shape or form. I assume a validation on the model is the way to go. I have tried validates_exclusion_of. I have tried validates_format_of. No success. I'm unsophisticated when it comes to regex, so I might be doing things very wrong. But the bottom line is - I need to prevent a user from entering that "&" character in the company_name field. Thanks a million. Steve

    Read the article

  • MVVM: Do I need Inheritance with ViewModels A + B ?

    - by Lisa
    Hello guys my first post on SO because EE sucks in the meantime ;P I am using wpf and mvvm in my desktop application. Scenario: I have a calendar with week A and week B which are rotating by every X week depending on the user settings. But the UserControl "week B" is only visible when the user sets the option "rotating weeks"... The UserControl with week A has a DataGrid and for week B I want to use the same UserControl of course. What I want to achieve is that all data entered/choosen by the user in the Week A is saved/backed by a ViewModel A and Model C. When the user wants a rotating weekly calendar plan I need also a ViewModel B and again Model C. The reason why I need to know what data entered by the user belongs to week A or week B is because I have to write the entered data in a certain order into the database = db.Write(weekA),db.Write(weekB),db.Write(weekA),etc... I am unsure how a solution could look like... What would you do to identify a ViewModel A or B so you know the order of how to write the data in the proper order into database? Any other suggestions are also welcome of course, maybe I think in the wrong direction its late here :) I am new to mvvm so please be patient.

    Read the article

  • wordpress 500 - Internal server error

    - by asad
    Hello Folks , I installed the wordpress 2.9.2 a few days ago and it works correctly. today , i want to use permlink feature of wordpress. I know , must modify my .htaccess file on my site root. but on my sub-domain root there is no any .htaccess file . so i create my .htacess file with follow content on sub-domain root (near index.php file): <files .htaccess> order allow,deny deny from all </files> ServerSignature Off <files wp-config.php> order allow,deny deny from all </files> # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress Options All -Indexes AddType x-mapp-php5 .php AddHandler x-mapp-php5 .php But after save it , i missed my blog . And i get follow error : 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. after this i remove the .htaccess file , but this was not correct. What i can do for it? Cheers

    Read the article

  • NSFetchedResultsController on secondary UITableView - how to query data?

    - by Jason
    I am creating a core-data based Navigation iPhone app with multiple screens. Let's say it is a flash-card application. The data model is very simple, with only two entities: Language, and CardSet. There is a one-to-many relationship between the Language entity and the CardSet entities, so each Language may contain multiple CardSets. In other words, Language has a one-to-many relationship Language.cardSets which points to the list of CardSets, and CardSet has a relationship CardSet.language which points to the Language. There are two screens: (1) An initial TableView screen, which displays the list of languages; and (2) a secondary TableView screen, which displays the list of CardSets in the Language. In the initial screen, which lists the languages, I am using NSFetchedResultsController to keep the list of languages up-to-date. The screen passes the Language selected to the secondary screen. On the secondary screen, I am trying to figure out whether I should again use an NSFetchedResultsController to maintain the list of CardSets, or if I should work through Language.cardSets to simply pull the list out of the object model. The latter makes the most sense programatically because I already have the Language - but then it would not automatically be updated on changes. I have looked at the NSFetchedResultsController documentation, and it seems like I can easily create predicates based on attributes - but not relationships. I.e., I can create the following NSFetchedResultsController: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"name LIKE[c] 'Chuck Norris'"]; How can I access my data through the direct relationship - Language.cardSets - and also have the table auto-update using NSFetchedResultsController? Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • Accessing data entered into multiple Django forms and generating them onto a new URL

    - by pedjk
    I have a projects page where users can start up new projects. Each project has two forms. The two forms are: class ProjectForm(forms.Form): Title = forms.CharField(max_length=100, widget=_hfill) class SsdForm(forms.Form): Status = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset=P.ProjectStatus.objects.all()) With their respective models as follows: class Project(DeleteFlagModel): Title = models.CharField(max_length=100) class Ssd(models.Model): Status = models.ForeignKey(ProjectStatus) Now when a user fills out these two forms, the data is saved into the database. What I want to do is access this data and generate it onto a new URL. So I want to get the "Title" and the "Status" from these two forms and then show them on a new page for that one project. I don't want the "Title" and "Status" from all the projects to show up, just for one project at a time. If this makes sense, how would I do this? I'm very new to Django and Python (though I've read the Django tutorials) so I need as much help as possible. Thanks in advance Edit: The ProjectStatus code is (under models): class ProjectStatus(models.Model): Name = models.CharField(max_length=30) def __unicode__(self): return self.Name

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework POCO objects

    - by Dan
    I'm struggling with understanding Entity Framework and POCO objects. Here's what I'm trying to achieve. 1) Separate the DAL from the Business Layer by having my business layer use an interface to my DAL. Maybe use Unity to create my context. 2) Use Entity Framework inside my DAL. I have a Domain model with objects that reside in my business layer. I also have a database full of tables that doesn't really represent my domain model. I setup Entity Framework and generated POCO objects by using the ADO.NET POCO Generator extension. This gave me an object for each table in my database. Now I want to be able to say context.GetAll<User>(); and have it return a list of my User objects. The User object is in my business layer. Is that possible? Does that make sense or am I totally off and should start over? I'm guessing I need to use the repository pattern to achieve this, but I'm not sure. Can anyone help?

    Read the article

  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

    Read the article

  • Does new JUnit 4.8 @Category render test suites almost obsolete?

    - by grigory
    Given question 'How to run all tests belonging to a certain Category?' and the answer would the following approach be better for test organization? define master test suite that contains all tests (e.g. using ClasspathSuite) design sufficient set of JUnit categories (sufficient means that every desirable collection of sets is identifiable using one or more categories) define targeted test suites based on master test suite and set of categories For example: identify categories for speed (slow, fast), dependencies (mock, database, integration), function (), domain ( demand that each test is properly qualified (tagged) with relevant set of categories. create master test suite using ClasspathSuite (all tests found in classpath) create targeted suites by qualifying master test suite with categories, e.g. mock test suite, fast database test suite, slow integration for domain X test suite, etc. My question is more like soliciting approval rate for such approach vs. classic test suite approach. One unbeatable benefit is that every new test is immediately contained by relevant suites with no suite maintenance. One concern is proper categorization of each test.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Dropdownlist retain the selected value in the browser after post

    - by MLabib
    I build a drop down list in my aspx page as following <%= Html.DropDownList("SelectedRole", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.roles, "RoleId", "RoleName", Model.SelectedRole), "")%> it works fine for first Get and the first default value is selected; then I select item from the drop down list and submit the form. the controller bind the values correctly, public ActionResult About([Bind] Roles r) { //r.SelectedRole = the selected value in the page. //Roles r = new Roles(); r.roles = new List<Role>(); r.roles.Add(new Role(1, "one")); r.roles.Add(new Role(2, "two")); r.roles.Add(new Role(3, "three")); r.roles.Add(new Role(4, "four")); r.SelectedRole = null; return View(r) } Then I nullify the selected item and return my view, but still the previous selected Item is selected (although I did nullify it) Any Idea if I am doing something wrong or it is a bug in MVC? I am using ASP.NET MVC 1 Thanks

    Read the article

  • Resharper 5: How do I set the default formatting style for inline code blocks?

    - by nukefusion
    I've got a problem with the formatting of inline code blocks within the VS2010 text editor and wonder if anyone else has had similar problems and found the 'magic' setting I'm looking for. I'm working my way through tutorials in an MVC book. Whenever I add some inline code blocks to a view I want them formatted like so: <% foreach (var link in Model) { %> <a href="<%=Url.RouteUrl(link.RouteValues)%>"> <%=link.Text%> </a> <% } %> What I'm actually getting is this (auto-formatted by the IDE when I finish writing the code): <% foreach (var link in Model) { %> <a href="<%=Url.RouteUrl(link.RouteValues)%>"> <%=link.Text%> </a> <% } %> It's pretty irritating. Any ideas on how I can instruct the IDE to leave my <% % tags alone? I've been fiddling with options under "Tools - Options - Text Editor" for ages but alas am getting nowhere... Edit: I've just noticed that this is down to Resharper 5 (when I disable it the problem disappears), however I still don't know how to stop it. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Problem with ModelAndView and ModelMap in AnnotationController, Springframework

    - by saltfactory
    I have a question that is a point difference between ModelAndView and ModelMap. I want to maintain modelAndView when requestMethod is "GET" and requestMethod is "POST". My modelAndView saved others. So I made modelAndView return type to "GET", "POST" methods. But, Request lost commandObject, form:errors..., if request return showForm on "POST" because request validation failed. example) private ModelAndView modelAndView; public ControllerTest{ this.modelAndView = new ModelAndView(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView showForm(ModelMap model) { EntityObject entityObject = new EntityObject(); CommandObject commandObject = new CommandObject(); commandObject.setEntityObject(entityObject); model.addAttribute("commandObject", commandObject); this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "GET"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public ModelAndView submit(@ModelAttribute("commandObject") CommandObject commandObject, BindingResult result, SessionStatus status) { this.commandValidator.validate(commandObject, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } else { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "after POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("success"); } status.setComplete(); return this.modelAndView; }

    Read the article

  • Creating a HTTP handler for IIS that transparently forwards request to different port?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a public web server with the following software installed: IIS7 on port 80 Subversion over apache on port 81 TeamCity over apache on port 82 Unfortunately, both Subversion and TeamCity comes with their own web server installations, and they work flawlessly, so I don't really want to try to move them all to run under IIS, if that is even possible. However, I was looking at IIS and I noticed the HTTP redirect part, and I was wondering... Would it be possible for me to create a HTTP handler, and install it on a sub-domain under IIS7, so that all requests to, say, http://svn.vkarlsen.no/anything/here is passed to my HTTP handler, which then subsequently creates a request to http://localhost:81/anything/here, retrieves the data, and passes it on to the original requestee? In other words, I would like IIS to handle transparent forwards to port 81 and 82, without using the redirection features. For instance, Subversion doesn't like HTTP redirect and just says that the repository has been moved, and I need to relocate my working copy. That's not what I want. If anyone thinks this can be done, does anyone have any links to topics I need to read up on? I think I can manage the actual request parts, even with authentication, but I have no idea how to create a HTTP handler. Also bear in mind that I need to handle sub-paths and documents beneath the top-level domain, so http://svn.vkarlsen.no/whatever/here needs to be handled by a single handler, I cannot create copies of the handler for all sub-directories since paths are created from time to time.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

    - by Colin
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

    Read the article

  • Elegant Disjunctive Normal Form in Django

    - by Mike
    Let's say I've defined this model: class Identifier(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) key = models.CharField(max_length=64) value = models.CharField(max_length=255) Each user will have multiple identifiers, each with a key and a value. I am 100% sure I want to keep the design like this, there are external reasons why I'm doing it that I won't go through here, so I'm not interested in changing this. I'd like to develop a function of this sort: def get_users_by_identifiers(**kwargs): # something goes here return users The function will return all users that have one of the key=value pairs specified in **kwargs. Here's an example usage: get_users_by_identifiers(a=1, b=2) This should return all users for whom a=1 or b=2. I've noticed that the way I've set this up, this amounts to a disjunctive normal form...the SQL query would be something like: SELECT DISTINCT(user_id) FROM app_identifier WHERE (key = "a" AND value = "1") OR (key = "b" AND value = "2") ... I feel like there's got to be some elegant way to take the **kwargs input and do a Django filter on it, in just 1-2 lines, to produce this result. I'm new to Django though, so I'm just not sure how to do it. Here's my function now, and I'm completely sure it's not the best way to do it :) def get_users_by_identifiers(**identifiers): users = [] for key, value in identifiers.items(): for identifier in Identifier.objects.filter(key=key, value=value): if not identifier.user in users: users.append(identifier.user) return users Any ideas? :) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Tired of Exploring

    - by Abhi
    Dear All I am tired of my work. I am exploring all day and at the end of the day i feel that i have not gain anything. Its been 1 year & 3 month working in Wince 6.0 r3 but i feel that i have gained nothing. I feel like that i have wasted these month without doing anything. At fast i worked in GUI application in which i was gaining confidence but then i was shifted from that domain to something for which lot of knowledge is required i.e writing or adjusting BSP. Now at present i have shifted to work on silverlight which is again a new domain for me. My day starts from 10am and ends at 7pm @ office by doing nothing. I am tired completely. Can anyone help me what shall i do in this situation? How shall i start to achieve the target? Where should i stick "deadline" or "learning the target first" as deadline is also important? I am completely depressed.

    Read the article

  • Flex vs GWT again

    - by CK Lee
    Hi all, I am working on a customized web ontology editor (something like http://webprotege.stanford.edu/ which is built by GWT). My backend will be Java+Spring+Hibernate and domain models are in Java. My frontend will be something like WebProtege which requires extensive RPC call. It is quite clear that I should use GWT as I can refer to the open source code. However, due to company policy, I shall consider Flex as well. I understand Flex can remotely invoke Java backend methods via BlazeDS using AMF (Is there a Flex equivalent of GWT-RPC?). I have read discussion on GWT vs Flex vs ?. If I can make full decision sure I will go with GWT. GWT strengths like support right to left characters, support iPhone/iPad, smaller size, support JSON out of the box, support printing are not important considerations for my project. Besides GWT supports Java generic, enum; domain objects can be shared with both GWT client and server; coding are more seamlessly... anyone can suggest other strong reasons that I should only go with GWT? FYI, I have plenty of Java experience but both GWT and Flex are new to me. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I add an additional site to my VPS server?

    - by user482594
    I have a VPS hosting service. First of all, I installed bind9 and everything that my main website works just fine. Now, I bought another domain and set its nameserver address&ip to my website ones. I added a configuration file of that site like '/etc/apache2/sites-available/www.example.com' and I did 'a2ensite www.example.com' to enable the website to apache2. After one, when I reloaded my server, I see '000default' and 'www.example.com' in my '/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/' directory. I have thought I am done with settings, but I still cannot connect to the domain example.com. I think I have read it somewhere that I have to set up 'zone' thing which I did when I was setting dns. For example, zone "example.com" IN { type master; file "example.zone"; allow-update { none; }; }; Is this correct? If so, what are the things that I need to do afteron?

    Read the article

  • Django ManyToMany Membership errors making associations

    - by jmitchel3
    I'm trying to have a "member admin" in which they have hundreds of members in the group. These members can be in several groups. Admins can remove access for the member ideally in the view. I'm having trouble just creating the group. I used a ManytoManyField to get started. Ideally, the "member admin" would be able to either select existing Users OR it would be able to Add/Invite new ones via email address. Here's what I have: #views.py def membership(request): group = Group.objects.all().filter(user=request.user) GroupFormSet = modelformset_factory(Group, form=MembershipForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = GroupFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES, queryset=group) if formset.is_valid(): formset.save(commit=False) for form in formset: form.instance.user = request.user formset.save() return render_to_response('formset.html', locals(), context_instance=RequestContext(request)) else: formset= GroupFormSet(queryset=group) return render_to_response('formset.html', locals(), context_instance=RequestContext(request)) #models.py class Group(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=128) members = models.ManyToManyField(User, related_name='community_members', through='Membership') user = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name='community_creator', null=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Membership(models.Model): member = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name='user_membership', blank=True, null=True) group = models.ForeignKey(Group, related_name='community_membership', blank=True, null=True) date_joined = models.DateField(auto_now=True, blank=True, null=True) class Meta: unique_together = ('member', 'group') Any ideas? Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • In Varnish, how can I read the Set-Cookie response header?

    - by Adam Friedman
    I am trying to detect if my application has set a cookie that holds an "alert message" for the user on the next page, where the Javascript displays it if detected. In my vcl_fetch(), I need to detect if the specific cookie value "alert_message" appears anywhere in the Set-Cookie header (presumably in the VCL variable beresp.http.Set-Cookie). If detected, then I do not want to cache that next page (since Varnish strips the Set-Cookie header by default, which would obliterate the alert message before it makes it back to the browser). So here is my simple test: if(beresp.http.Set-Cookie ~ "alert_message") { set req.http.no_cache = 1; } Strangely, it fails to evaluate to true. So I throw the variable into the Server header to see what it looks like: set beresp.http.Server = " MyApp Varnish implementation - test reading set-cookie: "+beresp.http.Set-Cookie; But for some reason this only displays the FIRST Set-Cookie line in the response headers. Here are the relevant response headers: Server: MyApp Varnish implementation - test reading cookie: elstats_session=7d7279kjmsnkel31lre3s0vu24; expires=Wed, 10-Oct-2012 00:03:32 GMT; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie:app_session=7d7279kjmsnkel31lre3s0vu24; expires=Wed, 10-Oct-2012 00:03:32 GMT; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie:alert_message=Too+many+results.; expires=Tue, 09-Oct-2012 20:13:32 GMT; path=/; domain=.my.app.com Set-Cookie:alert_key=flash_error; expires=Tue, 09-Oct-2012 20:13:32 GMT; path=/; domain=.my.app.com Vary:Accept-Encoding How do I read and run string detection on ALL Set-Cookie header lines?

    Read the article

  • How to get to the key name of a referenced entity property from an entity instance without a datastore read in google app engine?

    - by Sumeet Pareek
    Consider I have the following models - class Team(db.Model): # say I have just 5 teams name = db.StringProperty() class Player(db.Model): # say I have thousands of players name = db.StringProperty() team = db.ReferenceProperty(Team, collection_name="player_set") Key name for each Team entity = 'team_' , and for each Player entity = 'player_' By some prior arrangement I have a Team entity's (key_name, name) mapping available to me. For example (team_01, United States Of America), (team_02, Russia) etc I have to show all the players and their teams on a page. One way of doing this would be - players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(player.team.name) #This is a total of 1x1000 = 1000 DB reads That is a 1001 DB reads for a silly thing. The interesting part is that when I do a db.to_dict() on players, it shows that for every player in that list there is 'name' of the player and there is the 'key_name' of the team available too. So how can I do the below ?? players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(team_list[player.<SOME WAY OF GETTING TEAM KEY NAME>]) # Here 'team_list' already has (key_name, name) for all 5 teams I have been struggling with this for a long time. Have read every available documentation. I could just hug the person that can help me here :-) Disclaimer: The above problem description is not a real scenario. It is a simplified arrangement that represents my problem exactly. I have run into it in a rater complex and big GAE appication.

    Read the article

  • DBIx::Class base result class

    - by Rob
    Hi there, I am trying to create a model for Catalyst by using DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader. I want the result classes to have a base class I can add methods to. So MyTable.pm inherits from Base.pm which inherits from DBIx::Class::core (default). Somehow I cannot figure out how to do this. my create script is below, can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? The script creates my model ok, but all resultset classes just directly inherit from DBIx::Class::core without my Base class in between. #!/usr/bin/perl use DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader qw/ make_schema_at /; #specifically for the entities many-2-many relation $ENV{DBIC_OVERWRITE_HELPER_METHODS_OK} = 1; make_schema_at( 'MyApp::Schema', { dump_directory => '/tmp', debug => 1, overwrite_modifications => 1, components => ['EncodedColumn'], #encoded password column use_namespaces => 1, default_resultset_class => 'Base' }, [ 'DBI:mysql:database=mydb;host=localhost;port=3306','rob', '******' ], );

    Read the article

  • reshaping a data frame into long format in R

    - by user1773115
    I'm struggling with a reshape in R. I have 2 types of error (err and rel_err) that have been calculated for 3 different models. This gives me a total of 6 error variables (i.e. err_1, err_2, err_3, rel_err_1, rel_err_2, and rel_err_3). For each of these types of error I have 3 different types of predivtive validity tests (ie random holdouts, backcast, forecast). I would like to make my data set long so I keep the 4 types of test long while also making the two error measurements long. So in the end I will have one variable called err and one called rel_err as well as an id variable for what model the error corresponds to (1,2,or 3) Here is my data right now: iter err_1 rel_err_1 err_2 rel_err_2 err_3 rel_err_3 test_type 1 -0.09385732 -0.2235443 -0.1216982 -0.2898543 -0.1058366 -0.2520759 random 1 0.16141630 0.8575728 0.1418732 0.7537442 0.1584816 0.8419816 back 1 0.16376930 0.8700738 0.1431505 0.7605302 0.1596502 0.8481901 front 1 0.14345986 0.6765194 0.1213689 0.5723444 0.1374676 0.6482615 random 1 0.15890059 0.7435382 0.1589823 0.7439204 0.1608709 0.7527580 back 1 0.14412360 0.6743928 0.1442039 0.6747684 0.1463520 0.6848202 front and here is what I would like it to look like: iter model err rel_err test_type 1 1 -0.09385732 (#'s) random 1 2 -0.1216982 (#'s) random 1 3 -0.1216982 (#'s) random and on... I've tried playing around with the syntax but can't quite figure out what to put for the time.varying argument Thanks very much for any help you can offer.

    Read the article

  • Schema for storing "binary" values, such as Male/Female, in a database

    - by latentflip
    Intro I am trying to decide how best to set up my database schema for a (Rails) model. I have a model related to money which indicates whether the value is an income (positive cash value) or an expense (negative cash value). I would like separate column(s) to indicate whether it is an income or an expense, rather than relying on whether the value stored is positive or negative. Question: How would you store these values, and why? Have a single column, say Income, and store 1 if it's an income, 0 if it's an expense, null if not known. Have two columns, Income and Expense, setting their values to 1 or 0 as appropriate. Something else? I figure the question is similar to storing a person's gender in a database (ignoring aliens/transgender/etc) hence my title. My thoughts so far Lookup might be easier with a single column, but there is a risk of mistaking 0 (false, expense) for null (unknown). Having seperate columns might be more difficult to maintain (what happens if we end up with a 1 in both columns? Maybe it's not that big a deal which way I go, but it would be great to have any concerns/thoughts raised before I get too far down the line and have to change my code-base because I missed something that should have been obvious! Thanks, Philip

    Read the article

  • Setting the height of a row in a JTable in java

    - by Douglas Grealis
    I have been searching for a solution to be able to increase the height of a row in a JTable. I have been using the setRowHeight(int int) method which compiles and runs OK, but no row[s] have been increased. When I use the getRowHeight(int) method of the row I set the height to, it does print out the size I increased the row to, so I'm not sure what is wrong. The code below is a rough illustration how I am trying to solve it. My class extends JFrame. String[] columnNames = {"Column 1", "Column 2", "Column 1 3"}; JTable table = new JTable(new DefaultTableModel(columnNames, people.size())); DefaultTableModel model = (DefaultTableModel) table.getModel(); int count =1; for(Person p: people) { model.insertRow(count,(new Object[]{count, p.getName(), p.getAge()+"", p.getNationality})); count++; } table.setRowHeight(1, 15);//Try set height to 15 (I've tried higher) Can anyone tell me where I am going wrong? I am trying to increase the height of row 1 to 15 pixels?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536  | Next Page >