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  • Schema for storing "binary" values, such as Male/Female, in a database

    - by latentflip
    Intro I am trying to decide how best to set up my database schema for a (Rails) model. I have a model related to money which indicates whether the value is an income (positive cash value) or an expense (negative cash value). I would like separate column(s) to indicate whether it is an income or an expense, rather than relying on whether the value stored is positive or negative. Question: How would you store these values, and why? Have a single column, say Income, and store 1 if it's an income, 0 if it's an expense, null if not known. Have two columns, Income and Expense, setting their values to 1 or 0 as appropriate. Something else? I figure the question is similar to storing a person's gender in a database (ignoring aliens/transgender/etc) hence my title. My thoughts so far Lookup might be easier with a single column, but there is a risk of mistaking 0 (false, expense) for null (unknown). Having seperate columns might be more difficult to maintain (what happens if we end up with a 1 in both columns? Maybe it's not that big a deal which way I go, but it would be great to have any concerns/thoughts raised before I get too far down the line and have to change my code-base because I missed something that should have been obvious! Thanks, Philip

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  • Problem Routing domains subfolder

    - by hkda150
    Hi there, I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC and I hope it is not a too silly question. So here it comes. I have ... a ASP.NET MVC application with a domain similar to http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder My problem... The problem for me is the routing of my application (it worked fine without using a subfolder after the domain-name). The applications homepage loads not to bad, with css files but without ressources like images (defined in css files) and without jQuery ajax calls similar to /mycontroller/myaction links are only working once (the second time I get a page similar to this link: http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder/myController/myController/myAction) Here's my Global.asax contaning the routing: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "Root", "", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new MyApplicationWeb.LocalizationWebFormViewEngine()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestions? My first suggestion was to use areas like: "mysubfolder1/myappfolder/{controller}/{action}/{id}" (but without any luck) Thank you very much for your help!

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  • Urgent Help not showing the grid on the page..

    - by kumar
    hello Friends, I have two user controlers 1) name.ascx 2) friends.ascx in both controlers Code is same just changing the Grid name and columns but URL pointing is differnt.. <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<JQGridMVCExamples.Models.OrdersJqGridModel>" %> <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid, "JQGrid1") %> </div> <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<JQGridMVCExamples.Models.OrdersJqGridModel2>" %> <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid2, "JQGrid2") %> </div> But what hapeening is for second gri JQGrid2 is not showing up.. but First Grid is showing.. when i do first time second grid execution is not shoiwng up but when I do after first grid.. I am getting the result but Frist grid columns I am getting not the second grid columns.. can any body have sujjestion on this? thanks

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  • Checkboxes in ADF are initially null, where I want them to be 0

    - by Mark Tielemans
    I am using ADF in JDeveloper and don´t have any experience with either of the two. Now I´ve run into quite some trouble yet, but for this particular thing I decided to consult the wisom of stackoverflow. The thing is, I have an edit form for an object that contains 3 checkboxes. The checked values are set to 1, unchecked to 0. In my database, the values are NOT NULL, and I want to keep it that way. The thing is, in the edit form, if the user submits the form leaving any boxes unchecked, it will result in an error, because the unchecked box values apparently remain null. Only after checking and then unchecking the boxes again, their values will be '0' rather than null. I've tried some things, including making the attributes mandatory in the domain BCD, but that just gives a bit more neat error message.. Any help would be greatly appreciated!! EDIT I made a little progress thanks to the guide provided by Joe, but still run into problems. I changed the values that should be checkboxes in my model, making them BOOLEANs where the table columns are NUMBERs (All are also mandatory and have a default value of 0). This automatically changed the corresponding View Object too. In the Application module, this now works great. It shows checkboxes, a checked one will return 1, an untouched one will return 0. However, I deleted the old form, and inserted a new one using the corresponding Data Control. I gave these values the checkbox type. I still had to edit the bindings (which I think reflects the problem, as this is not the case with, say, a model-level defined LOV) and gave them 1 for checked and 0 for unchecked. However, now apart from the original problem still occurring, also the checkboxes cannot be unchecked after checking, and return 0 when checked (and null when left untouched). Even though this has created new problems, it works correctly in my AM. Does someone know what I'm doing wrong in my Swing form?

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  • Binding Data into a Resource

    - by Jordan
    How do you bind data from the view model into an object in the resources of the user control? Here is a very abstract example: <UserControl ... xmlns:local="clr-namespace:My.Local.Namespace" Name="userControl"> <UserControl.Resources> <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ???}" /> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer1" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer2" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> </Grid> </UserControl> How do I bind GroupValue to a property in the view model behind this view. I've tried the following: <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ElementName=userControl, Path=DataContext.Property}"/> But this doesn't work. Edit: GroupProvider extends DependencyObject and GroupValue is the name of a DependencyProperty. I'm getting an debugging message telling me that the property to which I am binding doesn't exist.

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  • Copy folder contents using VBScript

    - by LukeR
    I am trying to copy the contents of certain folders to another folder using VBScript. The goal is to enumerate a user's AD groups and then copy specific folder content based on those groups. I have code, which is currently not working. Dim Group,User,objFSO,objFolder,source,target,StrDomain StrDomain = "domain.local" FolderBase = "\\domain.local\netlogon\workgrps\icons" Set net = CreateObject("wscript.network") Struser = net.username target = "\\fs1\users\"&net.username&"\Desktop\AppIcons\" DispUserInWhichGroup() Function DispUserInWhichGroup() On Error Resume Next Set objFSO=CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") Set User = GetObject("WinNT://" & strDomain & "/" & strUser & ",user") For Each Group In User.Groups source = FolderBase & Group.name Set objFolder = GetFolder(source) For Each file in objFolder.Files objFSO.CopyFile source &"\"& file.name, target&"\"&file.name Next Next End Function This has been cobbled together from various sources, and I'm sure most of it is right, I just can't get it working completely. Any assistance would be great. Cheers.

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  • cURL cookie negative cookie expire

    - by Joe Doe
    I have problems with cookies with cURL. After problems I turned on verbose function and figured out cURL sets them negative expire date even if server sends positive date. Example: * Added cookie _c_sess=""test"" for domain test.com, path /, expire -1630024962 < Set-Cookie: _c_sess="test"; Domain=test.com; HttpOnly; expires=Mon, 26-Mar-2012 14:52:47 GMT; Max-Age=1332773567; Path=/ As you can see both expires and max-age are positive, but cURL sets expire to negative value. Somebody has idea? EDIT: Here is php code I use. $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://site.com/"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; rv:11.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/11.0'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookiepath); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookiepath); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER ,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE ,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_STDERR ,$f); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER ,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION ,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); $data = curl_exec($ch); Data from cookie jar: #HttpOnly_.test.com TRUE / FALSE -1630016318 _test_sess "test"

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  • Display and Use Advanced Find for Product Subscriptions by Account in Microsoft CRM 4.0

    - by Chris
    By default when viewing an account in edit mode you have access to Opportunities, Invoices, and Quotes which contain the products being shopped by the account and/or the sales department. I'm trying to determine where to store, display, and use the products that an account has a subscription too. I may not understand the implementation but it seems that there should be "Products" option directly off the root Account management window that will show the user all the products the account has purchased. We are trying to integrate this with our production tracking system where product sales can originate from other channels that will not flow through CRM first. This product subscription does not fit into the Opportunity, Quote, or Invoice model because they are confirmed recurring sales that were automatically purchased via tools like a Public Website, Portal, etc. By enabling this tracking in CRM we can use the advanced find feature to facilitate follow up sales and marketing efforts. Example: Find everyone who is subscribed to model A, so we can notify them of a new holiday campaign where they can get 10% off on all add-ons. It's my assumption that this is a common scenario, however I'd like to better understand how to approach this within the world of Microsoft CRM. Thank you in advance.

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  • Unable to save data in database manually and get latest auto increment id, cakePHP

    - by shabby
    I have checked this question as well and this one as well. I am trying to implement the model described in this question. What I want to do is, on the add function of message controller, create a record in thread table(this table only has 1 field which is primary key and auto increment), then take its id and insert it in the message table along with the user id which i already have, and then save it in message_read_state and thread_participant table. This is what I am trying to do in Thread Model: function saveThreadAndGetId(){ //$data= array('Thread' => array()); $data= array('id' => ' '); //Debugger::dump(print_r($data)); $this->save($data); debug('id: '.$this->id); $threadId = $this->getInsertID(); debug($threadId); $threadId = $this->getLastInsertId(); debug($threadId); die(); return $threadId; } $data= array('id' => ' '); This line from the above function adds a row in the thread table, but i am unable to retrieve the id. Is there any way I can get the id, or am I saving it wrongly? Initially I was doing the query thing in the message controller: $this->Thread->query('INSERT INTO threads VALUES();'); but then i found out that lastId function doesnt work on manual queries so i reverted.

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  • Entity Framework not populating context

    - by stimms
    I'm just starting out with some entity framework exploration, I figured it was time to see what everybody was complaining about. I am running into an issue where the entities don't seem to be returning any of the object context. I generated the model from a database with three tables which link to one another. Courses Instructors CanTeach Relationships are as you would expect: a course can relate to multiple CanTeach entities and an instructor can also relate to multiple CanTeach entities. I also added an OData service to my project which also makes use of the same model. So I can run queries like from a in CanTeach where a.Instructor.FirstName == "Barry" select new { Name = a.Instructor.FirstName + " " + a.Instructor.LastName, Course = a.Course.Name} without issue against the OData endpoint using LINQPad. However when I do a simple query like public Instructor GetInstructorFromID(int ID) { return context.Instructors.Where(i => i.ID == ID).FirstOrDefault(); } The CanTeach list is empty. I know everything in EF is lazy loaded and it is possible that my context is out of scope by the time I look at the object context, however even trying to get the object context as soon as the query is run results in and empty object context. What am I doing wrong?

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  • List of Objects to be used on ascx view with Inherits data already loaded MVC...

    - by user54197
    I have an object list being loded from a database to a drop down list. The Model loads the data to the Controller. The aspx view includes an ascx view. The ascx view already inherits data from another Project. I cannot set my List object in the ascx page. Can this be done? Model ... string List = dr["example"].ToString().Trim(); int indicator = dr["ex"].ToString().Trim(); LossCauseList.Add(new LossCauses(indicator, List)); ... Controller LossCauses test = new LossCauses(); test.GetLossCauses(LossType); TempData["Select"] = test.LossCauseList; return View(myData); Partial View ... <select id="SelectedProperty"> <% List<string> selectProperty = new List<string>(); selectProperty = TempData["Select"] as List<string>; foreach(var item in selectProperty) { %> <option><%=item.ToString() %></option> <% } %> </select> ... Partial view's List should be an actual LossCauses object. HELP!!!

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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Codeigniter only loads the default controller

    - by fh47331
    I am very new to CodeIgniter, but have been programming PHP for ages. I'm writing some software at the moment and using CI for the first time with it. The default controller is set to the first controller I want to action call 'login' (the controller is login.php, the view is login.php. When the form is submitted it calls the 'authenticate' controller. This executes fine, process the login data correctly and then does a redirect command (without any output to the screen prior) to the next page in this case 'newspage'. The problem is that the redirect, never reaches 'newspage' but the default controller runs again. It doesn't matter what I put ... ht tp://domain.name/anything ... (yes im using .htaccess to remove the index.php) the anything never gets called, just the default controller. I have left the standard 'welcome.php' controller and 'welcome_message.php' in the folders and even putting ht tp://domain.name/welcome all I get is the login screen! (Obviously there shouldn't be a space between the http - thats just done so it does not show as a hyperlink!) Can anyone tell me what i've done wrong!

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  • JPA: persisting object, parent is ok but child not updated

    - by James.Elsey
    Hello, I have my domain object, Client, I've got a form on my JSP that is pre-populated with its data, I can take in amended values, and persist the object. Client has an abstract entity called MarketResearch, which is then extended by one of three more concrete sub-classes. I have a form to pre-populate some MarketResearch data, but when I make changes and try to persist the Client, it doesn't get saved, can someone give me some pointers on where I've gone wrong? My 3 domain classes are as follows (removed accessors etc) public class Client extends NamedEntity { @OneToOne @JoinColumn(name = "MARKET_RESEARCH_ID") private MarketResearch marketResearch; ... } @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class MarketResearch extends AbstractEntity { ... } @Entity(name="MARKETRESEARCHLG") public class MarketResearchLocalGovernment extends MarketResearch { @Column(name = "CURRENT_HR_SYSTEM") private String currentHRSystem; ... } This is how I'm persisting public void persistClient(Client client) { if (client.getId() != null) { getJpaTemplate().merge(client); getJpaTemplate().flush(); } else { getJpaTemplate().persist(client); } } To summarize, if I change something on the parent object, it persists, but if I change something on the child object it doesn't. Have I missed something blatantly obvious? Thanks

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  • How to generate a monotone MART ROC in R?

    - by user1521587
    I am using R and applying MART (Alg. for multiple additive regression trees) on a training set to build prediction models. When I look at the ROC curve, it is not monotone. I would be grateful if someone can help me with how I should fix this. I am guessing the issue is that initially, MART generates n trees and if these trees are not the same for all the models I am building, the results will not be comparable. Here are the steps I take: 1) Fix the false-negative cost, c_fn. Let cost = c(0, 1, c_fn, 0). 2) use the following line to build the mart model: mart(x, y, lx, martmode='class', niter=2000, cost.mtx=cost) where x is the matrix of training set variables, y is the observation matrix, lx is the matrix which specifies which of the variables in x is numerical, which one categorical. 3) I predict the test set observations using the mart model found in step 2 using this line: y_pred = martpred(x_test, probs=T) 4) I compute the false-positive and false-negative errors as follows: t = 1/(1+c_fn) %threshold based on Bayes optimal rule where c_fp=1 and c_fn. p_0 = length(which(y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_01 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==0))/dim(y_test)[1] p_11 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_fp = p_01/(1-p_0) p_tp = p_11/p_0 5) repeat step 1-4 for a new false-negative cost.

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  • Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

    - by franko75
    I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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  • Rails Functional Test Failing Due to Association

    - by Koby
    I have an accounts model that holds some basic account info (account name, website, etc). I then have a user model that has the following in the app/models/user.rb belongs_to :account I also have the following in my routes.rb map.resources :account, :has_many => [:users, :othermodel] the problem I'm facing is that the following test is failing: test "should create user" do assert_difference('User.count') do post :create, :user => { } #this is the line it's actually failing on end assert_redirected_to user_path(assigns(:user)) #it doesn't get here yet end The error it gives is "Can't find Account without ID" so I kind of understand WHY it's failing, because of the fact that it doesn't have the account object (or account_id as it were) to know under what account to create the user. I have tried variations of the following but I am completely lost: post :create, :user => { accounts(:one) } #I have the 'fixtures :accounts' syntax at the top of the test class post :create, [accounts(:one), :user] => { } post :create, :user => { accounts(:one), #other params for :user } and like I said, just about every variation I could think of. I can't find much documentation on doing this and this might be why people have moved to Factories for doing test data, but I want to understand things that come standard in Rails before moving onto other things. Can anyone help me get this working?

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  • How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

    - by Banford
    I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

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  • How should approach allowing users to create notes with revisions?

    - by Magicked
    I'm working on a Rails project where I want to allow users to create individual notes, which are really just text fields at this time. With each note, the user can edit what they have previously written, but the old version is kept in a revision table. I'm trying to figure out the best way to approach this. My initial thoughts are to have the following relationships: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :notes end class Note < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :note_revisions belongs_to :user end class NoteRevision < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :note_revision end The Note model will only contain a timestamp of when the note was first created. The NoteRevision model will contain the text, as well as a timestamp for each revision. This way, every time a new revision is made, a new entry is created into the NoteRevision table which is tracked through the Note table. Hopefully this makes sense! First, does this look like a good way to do this? If so, I'm having trouble figuring out how the controller and view will present this information in one form. Are there any good tutorials or has someone seen anything similar that can point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance!

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  • Setting Session/Cookie via ajax request made on other website

    - by user596805
    Hi, That's my problem: I have an website, example.com, in which index.html file a introduced a <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> You can see, that this is on other web server. In the js.js I have some data that I want to send to php. For that, I am using Ajax. So, I made a request to "website.net/data.php" using method get. In data.php file everything is ok,I received the value, but I want to set a cookie which value is what I received through ajax. Here is the problem. The setcookie function says that the cookie was set, but when I check in the browser, there's no cookie! It works fine if the index.html file where I use <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> is hosted on the same domain where I am making the request. If it is on another domain, it doesn't work anymore. I have read something about Ajax cross site, but I don't want to send something back to example.com. All I want is to send some data from example.com to website.net and then setting a cookie based on that value. Thank you very much, and sorry for my English! Later edit: I am not used with this website. From the example.net I take a single value. On website.net I receive that value, I check if it's not already a cookie set, if it's not, I set it. On the same page, website.net, I use this cookie too.

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  • Get the src part of a string [duplicate]

    - by Kay Lakeman
    This question already has an answer here: Grabbing the href attribute of an A element 7 answers First post ever here, and i really hope you can help. I use a database where a large piece of html is stored, now i just need the src part of the image tag. I already found a thread, but i just doesn't do the trick. My code: Original string: <p><img alt=\"\" src=\"http://domain.nl/cms/ckeditor/filemanager/userfiles/background.png\" style=\"width: 80px; height: 160px;\" /></p> How i start: $image = strip_tags($row['information'], '<img>'); echo stripslashes($image); This returns: <img alt="" src="http://domain.nl/cms/ckeditor/filemanager/userfiles/background.png" style="width: 80px; height: 160px;" /> Next step: extract the src part: preg_match('/< *img[^>]*src *= *["\']?([^"\']*)/i', $image, $matches); echo $matches ; This last echo returns: Array What is going wrong? Thanks in advance for your anwser.

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  • how to concatinate a link with <select> <option> value on "onchange" event

    - by atif
    <?php echo $this->getUrl(); ?> = this gives me my index page url .i.e. www.domain.com/index.php/ but now wat i want is when any particular option is selected, it should add to this url. .e.g. www.domain.com/index.php/wordpress/ i write this code for it but now don know how to get it done :( <select onchange="setLocation('<?php echo $this->getUrl(); ?>')"> <option value="">&nbsp;</option> <option value="wordpress">Wordpress</option> <option value="drupal">drupal</option> <option value="magento">Megento</option> </select> also i had searched this link but couldn't take help from it. As it didnt work for me. <select name="forma" ONCHANGE="location = this.options[this.selectedIndex].value;"> <option value="Home">Home</option> <option value="Contact">Contact</option> <option value="Sitemap">Sitemap</option> </select>

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  • @ManyToMany Duplicate Entry Exception

    - by zp26
    I have mapped a bidirectional many-to-many exception between the entities Course and Trainee in the following manner: Course { ... private Collection<Trainee> students; ... @ManyToMany(targetEntity = lesson.domain.Trainee.class, cascade = {CascadeType.All}, fetch = {FetchType.EAGER}) @Jointable(name="COURSE_TRAINEE", joincolumns = @JoinColumn(name="COURSE_ID"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "TRAINEE_ID")) @CollectionOfElements public Collection<Trainee> getStudents() { return students; } ... } Trainee { ... private Collection<Course> authCourses; ... @ManyToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.All}, fetch = {FetchType.EAGER}, mappedBy = "students", targetEntity = lesson.domain.Course.class) @CollectionOfElements public Collection<Course> getAuthCourses() { return authCourses; } ... } Instead of creating a table where the Primary Key is made of the two foreign keys (imported from the table of the related two entities), the system generates the table "COURSE_TRAINEE" with the following schema: I am working on MySQL 5.1 and my App. Server is JBoss 5.1. Does anyone guess why?

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