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• Sorting arrays in java

  - by user360706

  Write a static method in Java : public static void sortByFour (int[] arr) That receives as a paramater an array full of non-negative numbers (zero or positive) and sorts the array in the following way : In the beginning of the array all the numbers that devide by four without a remainder will appear. After them all the numbers in the array that devide by 4 with a remainder of 1 will appear. After them all the numbers in the array that devide by 4 with a remainder of 2 will appear. In the end of the array all the rest numbers (those who divide by 4 with the remainder 3) will appear. (The order of the numbers in each group doesn't matter) The method must be the most efficient it can. This is what I wrote but unfortunately it doesn't work well... :( public static void swap( int[] arr, int left, int right ) { int temp = arr[left]; arr[left] = arr[right]; arr[right] = temp; } public static void sortByFour( int[] arr ) { int left = 0; int right = ( arr.length - 1 ); int mid = ( arr.length / 2 ); while ( left < right ) { if ( ( arr[left] % 4 ) > ( arr[right] % 4 ) ) { swap( arr, left, right ); right--; } if ( ( arr[left] % 4 ) == ( arr[right] % 4 ) ) left++; else left++; } } Can someone please help me by fixing my code so that it will work well or rewriting it?

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• What is the error in this java code ? What changes should I do to remove it ?

  - by mekasperasky

  import javax.swing.*; // For JPanel, etc. import java.awt.*; // For Graphics, etc. import java.awt.geom.*; // For Ellipse2D, etc. public class ShapeExample extends JPanel { private Ellipse2D.Double circle = new Ellipse2D.Double(10, 10, 350, 350); private Rectangle2D.Double square = new Rectangle2D.Double(10, 10, 350, 350); public void paintComponent(Graphics g) { clear(g); Graphics2D g2d = (Graphics2D)g; g2d.fill(circle); g2d.draw(square); } // super.paintComponent clears offscreen pixmap, // since we're using double buffering by default. protected void clear(Graphics g) { super.paintComponent(g); } protected Ellipse2D.Double getCircle() { return(circle); } public static void main(String[] args) { WindowUtilities.openInJFrame(new ShapeExample(), 100, 100); } } The error I am getting is this . symbol : variable WindowUtilities location: class ShapeExample WindowUtilities.openInJFrame(new ShapeExample(), 100, 100); ^ 1 error What is wrong in the code? r

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• JApplet behaving unexpectedly

  - by JohnW

  import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Image; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import javax.swing.JApplet; import javax.swing.Timer; public class CountingSheep extends JApplet { private Image sheepImage; private Image backgroundImage; private GameBoard gameBoard; private scoreBoard scoreBoard; public void init() { loadImages(); gameBoard = new GameBoard(sheepImage, backgroundImage); scoreBoard = new scoreBoard(); getContentPane().add(gameBoard); getContentPane().add(scoreBoard); } public void loadImages() { sheepImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "sheep.png"); backgroundImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "bg.jpg"); } } Update guys: Alright, first of all, thank you very much for all the help you've given so far (specifically creemam and Hovercraft Full of Eels), and your persistence. You've helped me out a lot as this is incredibly important (i.e. me passing my degree). The problem now is: The program works correctly when nothing but the GameBoard class is added to the JApplet, however, when I try to add the ScoreBoard class, both Panel classes do not show on the Applet. I'm guessing this is now down to positioning? Any ideas? EDIT: Gone back to the previously asked question Hovercraft, and found it was due to the layout of the contentPane and the order at with the components were added. Thanks to all of you so much. People like you make the development community a bit of alright.

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• Java Generic Type and Reflection

  - by Tom Tucker

  I have some tricky generic type problem involving reflection. Here's the code. public @interface MyConstraint { Class<? extends MyConstraintValidator<?>> validatedBy(); } public interface MyConstraintValidator<T extends Annotation> { void initialize(T annotation); } /** @param annotation is annotated with MyConstraint. */ public void run(Annotation annotation) { Class<? extends MyConstraintValidator<? extends Annotation>> validatorClass = annotation.annotationType().getAnnotation(MyConstraint.class).validatedBy(); validatorClass.newInstance().initialize(annotation) // will not compile! } The run() method above will not compile because of the following error. The method initialize(capture#10-of ? extends Annotation) in the type MyConstraintValidator<capture#10-of ? extends Annotation> is not applicable for the arguments (Annotation) If I remove the wild cards, then it compiles and works fine. What would be the propert way to declare the type parameter for the vairable validatorClass? Thanks.

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• how to call the method in thread with aruguments and return some value

  - by ratty

  i like to call the method in thread with aruguments and return some value here example class Program { static void Main() { Stopwatch stop = new Stopwatch(); stop.Start(); Thread FirstThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(Fun1)); Thread SecondThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(Fun2)); FirstThread.Start(); SecondThread.Start(); } public static void Fun1() { for (int i = 1; i <= 1000; i++) { Console.WriteLine("Fun1 writes:{0}", i); } } public static void Fun2() { for (int i = 1000; i >= 6; i--) { Console.WriteLine("Fun2 writes:{0}", i); } } } i know this above example run successfully but if method fun1 like this public int fun1(int i) { for (int n = i; n >= i+10; n++) { Console.WriteLine("Fun2 writes:{0}", i); } } then how can i call this in thread. Is it possible .Any body Help for me

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• Four-color theorem in Prolog (using a dynamic predicate)

  - by outa

  Hi, I'm working on coloring a map according to the four-color theorem (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Four_color_theorem) with SWI-Prolog. So far my program looks like this: colour(red). colour(blue). map_color(A,B,C) :- colour(A), colour(B), colour(C), C \= B, C \= A. (the actual progam would be more complex, with 4 colors and more fields, but I thought I'd start out with a simple case) Now, I want to avoid double solutions that have the same structure. E.g. for a map with three fields, the solution "red, red, blue" would have the same structure as "blue, blue, red", just with different color names, and I don't want both of them displayed. So I thought I would have a dynamic predicate solution/3, and call assert(solution(A,B,C)) at the end of my map_color predicate. And then, for each solution, check if they already exist as a solution/3 fact. The problem is that I would have to assert something like solution(Color1,Color1,Color2), i.e. with variables in order to make a unification check. And I can't think of a way to achieve this. So, the question is, what is the best way to assert a found solution and then make a unification test so that "red, red, blue" would unify with "blue, blue, red"?

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• Is there any class in the .NET Framework to represent a holding container for objects?

  - by Charles Prakash Dasari

  I am looking for a class that defines a holding structure for an object. The value for this object could be set at a later time than when this container is created. It is useful to pass such a structure in lambdas or in callback functions etc. Say: class HoldObject<T> { public T Value { get; set; } public bool IsValueSet(); public void WaitUntilHasValue(); } // and then we could use it like so ... HoldObject<byte[]> downloadedBytes = new HoldObject<byte[]>(); DownloadBytes("http://www.stackoverflow.com", sender => downloadedBytes.Value = sender.GetBytes()); It is rather easy to define this structure, but I am trying to see if one is available in FCL. I also want this to be an efficient structure that has all needed features like thread safety, efficient waiting etc. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• Imlpementations of an Interface with Different Types?

  - by b3njamin

  Searched as best I could but unfortunately I've learned nothing relevant; basically I'm trying to work around the following problem in C#... For example, I have three possible references (refA, refB, refC) and I need to load the correct one depending on a configuration option. So far however I can't see a way of doing it that doesn't require me to use the name of said referenced object all through the code (the referenced objects are provided, I can't change them). Hope the following code makes more sense: public ??? LoadedClass; public Init() { /* load the object, according to which version we need... */ if (Config.Version == "refA") { Namespace.refA LoadedClass = new refA(); } else if (Config.Version == "refB") { Namespace.refB LoadedClass = new refB(); } else if (Config.Version == "refC") { Namespace.refC LoadedClass = new refC(); } Run(); } private void Run(){ { LoadedClass.SomeProperty... LoadedClass.SomeMethod(){ etc... } } As you can see, I need the Loaded class to be public, so in my limited way I'm trying to change the type 'dynamically' as I load in which real class I want. Each of refA, refB and refC will implement the same properties and methods but with different names. Again, this is what I'm working with, not by my design. All that said, I tried to get my head around Interfaces (which sound like they're what I'm after) but I'm looking at them and seeing strict types - which makes sense to me, even if it's not useful to me. Any and all ideas and opinions are welcome and I'll clarify anything if necessary. Excuse any silly mistakes I've made in the terminology, I'm learning all this for the first time. I'm really enjoying working with an OOP language so far though - coming from PHP this stuff is blowing my mind :-)

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• Accessing a struct collection property from within another collection

  - by paddyb

  I have a struct that I need to store in a collection. The struct has a property that returns a Dictionary. public struct Item { private IDictionary<string, string> values; public IDictionary<string, string> Values { get { return this.values ?? (this.values = new Dictionary<string, string>()); } } } public class ItemCollection : Collection<Item> {} When testing I've found that if I add the item to the collection and then try to access the dictionary the structs values property is never updated. var collection = new ItemCollection { new Item() }; // pre-loaded with an item collection[0].Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // KeyNotFoundException here However if I load up the item first and then add it to a collection the values field is maintained. var collection = new ItemCollection(); var item = new Item(); item.Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); collection.Add(item); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // ok I've already decided that a struct is the wrong option for this type, and when using a class the issue doesn't occur, but I'm curious what's different between the two methods. Can anybody explain what's happening?

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• Controller actions appear to be synchronous though on different requests?

  - by Oded

  I am under the impression that the below code should work asynchronously. However, when I am looking at firebug, I see the requests fired asynchronously, but the results coming back synchronously: Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Status() { return Content(Session["status"].ToString()); } public ActionResult CreateSite() { Session["status"] += "Starting new site creation"; Thread.Sleep(20000); // Simulate long running task Session["status"] += "<br />New site creation complete"; return Content(string.Empty); } } Javascript/jQuery: $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: '/home/CreateSite', async: true, success: function () { mynamespace.done = true; } }); setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 2000); }); var mynamespace = { counter: 0, done: false, getStatus: function () { $('#console').append('.'); if (mynamespace.counter == 4) { mynamespace.counter = 0; $.ajax({ url: '/home/Status', success: function (data) { $('#console').html(data); } }); } if (!mynamespace.done) { mynamespace.counter++; setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 500); } } } Addtional information: IIS 7.0 Windows 2008 R2 Server Running in a VMWare virutual machine Can anyone explain this? Shouldn't the Status action be returning practically immediately instead of waiting for CreateSite to finish? Edit: How can I get the long running process to kick off and still get status updates?

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• How to query the SPView object

  - by Hugo Migneron

  I have a SPView object that contains a lot of SPListItem objects (there are many fields in the view). I am only interested in one of these fields. Let's call it specialField Given that view and specialField, I want to know if a value is contained in specialField. Here is a way of doing what I want to do : String specialField = "Special Field"; String specialValue = "value"; SPList list = SPContext.Current.Site.RootWeb.Lists["My List"]; SPView view = list.Views["My View"]; //This is the view I want to query SPQuery query = new SPQuery(); query.Query = view.Query; SPListItemCollection items = list.GetItems(query); foreach(SPListItem item in items) { var value = item[specialField]; if(value != null) && (value.ToString() == specialValue) { //My value is found. This is what I was looking for. //break out of the loop or return } } //My value is not found. However, iterating through each ListItem hardly seems optimal, especially as there might be hundreds of items. This query will be executed often, so I am looking for an efficient way to do this. EDIT I will not always be working with the same view, so my solution cannot be hardcoded (it has to be generic enough that the list, view and specialField can be changed.

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• Access-specifiers are not foolproof?

  - by Nawaz

  If I've a class like this, class Sample { private: int X; }; Then we cannot access X from outside, so this is illegal, Sample s; s.X = 10; // error - private access But we can make it accessible without editing the class! All we need to do is this, #define private public //note this define! class Sample { private: int X; }; //outside code Sample s; s.X = 10; //no error! Working code at ideone : http://www.ideone.com/FaGpZ That means, we can change the access-specifiers by defining such macros just before the class definition, or before #include <headerfile.h>, #define public private //make public private //or #define protected private //make protected private //or #define so on Isn't it a problem with C++ (Macros/access-specifiers/whatever)? Anyway, the point of this topic is: Using macros, we can easily violate encapsulation. Access-specifiers are not foolproof! Am I right?

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• T-SQL Query, combine columns from multiple rows into single column

  - by Shayne

  I have seeen some examples of what I am trying to do using COALESCE and FOR XML (seems like the better solution). I just can't quite get the syntax right. Here is what I have (I will shorten the fields to only the key ones): Table Fields ------ ------------------------------- Requisition ID, Number IssuedPO ID, Number Job ID, Number Job_Activity ID, JobID (fkey) RequisitionItems ID, RequisitionID(fkey), IssuedPOID(fkey), Job_ActivityID (fkey) I need a query that will list ONE Requisition per line with its associated Jobs and IssuedPOs. (The requisition number start with "R-" and the Job Number start with "J-"). Example: R-123 | "PO1; PO2; PO3" | "J-12345; J-6780" Sure thing Adam! Here is a query that returns multiple rows. I have to use outer joins, since not all Requisitions have RequisitionItems that are assigned to Jobs and/or IssuedPOs (in that case their fkey IDs would just be null of course). SELECT DISTINCT Requisition.Number, IssuedPO.Number, Job.Number FROM Requisition INNER JOIN RequisitionItem on RequisitionItem.RequisitionID = Requisition.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job_Activity on RequisitionItem.JobActivityID = Job_Activity.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job on Job_Activity.JobID = Job.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN IssuedPO on RequisitionItem.IssuedPOID = IssuedPO.ID

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• iPhone inputting NSUserDefaults into a UITextField

  - by Rob

  I am writing a program where I where the first time a user runs it - they will have to fill out about 10 different UITextFields. I am trying to save the fields so that on subsequent runs of the program that whatever they previously put will already be displayed in those UITextFields so the wont have to re-input it in - unless they want to edit something in which case they still have that option. I think that I have figured out a good way to save the strings using NSUserDefaults but now I am trying to figure out how to have those fields populate a UITextField - it doesnt seem as easy as if they were UILabels. This is the route I am attempting: // in the viewDidLoad portion. NSUserDefaults *userData = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; //Hooks. NSString *placeHolderName = [userData stringForKey:@"name"]; txtName.text = @"%@", placeHolderName; When I do this, it simply displays the '%@' in the textfields. I want whatever variable being held by placeHolderName to be automatically put into that UITextField. Is this possible?

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• WPF Prism's delegatecommand not refreshing

  - by gkar

  I am building wpf edit form, that has two buttons, BeginEdit and Save And the form is bound to ViewModel that inherits from Prism's NotificationObject. There is a property called IsReadOnly And there are two commands that are Prism's DelegateCommands BeginEdit command and save command The code is here private DelegateCommand _beginEdit; public DelegateCommand BeginEdit { get { return _beginEdit ?? (_beginEdit = new DelegateCommand(() => this.IsReadOnly = false , () => IsReadOnly)); } } private bool _isReadOnly; public bool IsReadOnly { get { return _isReadOnly; } set { _isReadOnly = value; RaisePropertyChanged("IsReadOnly"); } } private DelegateCommand _saveEdit; public DelegateCommand SaveEdit { get { return _saveEdit ?? (_saveEdit = new DelegateCommand(() => this.IsReadOnly = true , () => !IsReadOnly)); } } So, as you see, the command will set IsReadOnly property to true or false, and CanExecute should get its value from the same property as well. It works when I start the form. But after I press BeginEdit, the buttons stays as the same, and the canExecute is not reflecting the new value of IsReadOnly

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• Ant build script executing <sql> task using java code

  - by Jay

  Any idea, why none of the debugging comments are printed once after executing the ANT build script's SQL task via java code? The java class to execute the sql in build scirpt is public class AntRunnerTest { private Project project; public void executeTask(String taskName) { try { project = new Project(); project.init(); project.setBasedir(new String(".")); ProjectHelper helper = ProjectHelper.getProjectHelper(); project.addReference("ant.projectHelper", helper); helper.parse(project, new File("build-copy.xml")); System.out.println("Before"); project.executeTarget(taskName); System.out.println("After"); } catch(Exception ex) { System.out.println(ex.getMessage()); } } public static void main(String args[]) { try { AntRunnerTest newInst = new AntRunnerTest(); newInst.executeTask("sql"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println(""+e); } } } I dont see the debug String "After" getting printed in the console. I noticed this issue only when i try to execute a sql task using java code. The ant script has the following simple transaction tag in it. <transaction> <![CDATA[ select now() ]]> </transaction> Any thoughts? Thanks in advance.

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• VB.NET Two different approaches to generic cross-threaded operations; which is better?

  - by BASnappl

  VB.NET 2010, .NET 4 Hello, I recently read about using SynchronizationContext objects to control the execution thread for some code. I have been using a generic subroutine to handle (possibly) cross-thread calls for things like updating UI controls that utilizes Invoke. I'm an amateur and have a hard time understanding the pros and cons of any particular approach. I am looking for some insight on which approach might be preferable and why. Update: This question is motivated, in part, by statements such as the following from the MSDN page on Control.InvokeRequired. An even better solution is to use the SynchronizationContext returned by SynchronizationContext rather than a control for cross-thread marshaling. Method 1: Public Sub InvokeControl(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of T)) If Control.InvokeRequired Then Control.Invoke(New Action(Of T, Action(Of T))(AddressOf InvokeControl), New Object() {Control, Action}) Else Action(Control) End If End Sub Method 2: Public Sub UIAction(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of Control)) SyncContext.Send(New Threading.SendOrPostCallback(Sub() Action(Control)), Nothing) End Sub Where SyncContext is a Threading.SynchronizationContext object defined in the constructor of my UI form: Public Sub New() InitializeComponent() SyncContext = WindowsFormsSynchronizationContext.Current End Sub Then, if I wanted to update a control (e.g., Label1) on the UI form, I would do: InvokeControl(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") or UIAction(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") So, what do y'all think? Is one way preferred or does it depend on the context? If you have the time, verbosity would be appreciated! Thanks in advance, Brian

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• C# function called after dependency property have been set

  - by mizipzor

  My code currently looks like this: private Foo myFoo; public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return myFoo; } set { SetFoo(value); } } private void SetFoo(Foo newFoo) { // Do stuff // Here be dragons myFoo = newFoo; } To be able to bind it in XAML/WPF I need to turn Foo into a dependency property: public static DependencyProperty CurrentFooProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentFoo", typeof(Foo), typeof(FooHandler), new PropertyMetadata(false)); public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return (Foo)GetValue(CurrentFooProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentFooProperty, value); } } Ive heard that you shouldnt do magic inside the actual C# property set {}, since it might not be called but the value is written directly to the dependency property. If this is false, let me know, it seems like the most obvious and simple route to take. I know I can add a validation function to the dependency property but I assume that it shouldnt be used for this? I need to communicate the change to legacy systems that cannot yet be bound in XAML. Whats the best way to approach this problem?

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• Why does this ActionFilterAttribute not import data to the ViewModel?

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I have the following attribute public class ImportStatusAttribute : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuted(ActionExecutedContext filterContext) { var model = (IHasStatus)filterContext.Controller.ViewData.Model; model.Status = (StatusMessageViewModel)filterContext.Controller.TempData["status"]; filterContext.Controller.ViewData.Model = model; } } which I test with the following test method (the first of several I'll write when this one passes...) [TestMethod] public void OnActionExecuted_ImportsStatusFromTempDataToModel() { // Arrange Expect(new { Status = new StatusMessageViewModel() { Subject = "The test", Predicate = "has been tested" }, Key = "status" }); var filterContext = new Mock<ActionExecutedContext>(); var model = new Mock<IHasStatus>(); var tempData = new TempDataDictionary(); var viewData = new ViewDataDictionary(model.Object); var controller = new FakeController() { ViewData = viewData, TempData = tempData }; tempData.Add(expected.Key, expected.Status); filterContext.Setup(c => c.Controller).Returns(controller); var attribute = new ImportStatusAttribute(); // Act attribute.OnActionExecuted(filterContext.Object); // Assert Assert.IsNotNull(model.Object.Status, "The status was not exported"); Assert.AreEqual(model.Object.Status.ToString(), ((StatusMessageViewModel)expected.Status).ToString(), "The status was not the expected"); } (Expect() is a method that saves some expectations in the expected object...) When I run the test, it fails on the first assertion, and I can't get my head around why. Debugging, I can see that model is populated correctly, and that (StatusMessageViewModel)filterContext.Controller.TempData["status"] has the correct data. But after model.Status = (StatusMessageViewModel)filterContext.Controller.TempData["status"]; model.Status is still null in my watch window. Why can't I do this?

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• Structure map and generics (in XML config)

  - by James D

  Hi I'm using the latest StructureMap (2.5.4.264), and I need to define some instances in the xml configuration for StructureMap using generics. However I get the following 103 error: Unhandled Exception: StructureMap.Exceptions.StructureMapConfigurationException: StructureMap configuration failures: Error: 103 Source: Requested PluginType MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]] configured in Xml cannot be found Could not create a Type for 'MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]]' System.ApplicationException: Could not create a Type for 'MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]]' ---> System.TypeLoadException: Could not loa d type 'MyTest.ITest`1' from assembly 'StructureMap, Version=2.5.4.264, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=e60ad81abae3c223'. at System.RuntimeTypeHandle._GetTypeByName(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean reflectionOnly, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean loadTypeFromPartialName) at System.RuntimeTypeHandle.GetTypeByName(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean reflectionOnly, StackCrawlMark& stackMark) at System.RuntimeType.PrivateGetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean reflectionOnly, StackCrawlMark& s tackMark) at System.Type.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError) at StructureMap.Graph.TypePath.FindType() --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at StructureMap.Graph.TypePath.FindType() at StructureMap.Configuration.GraphBuilder.ConfigureFamily(TypePath pluginTypePath, Action`1 action) A simply replication of the code is as follows: public interface ITest<T> { } public class Test { } public class Concrete : ITest<Test> { } Which I then wish to define in the XML configuration something as follows: <DefaultInstance PluginType="MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]],MyTest" PluggedType="MyTest.Concrete,MyTest" Scope="Singleton" /> I've been racking my brain, however I can't see what I'm doing wrong - I've used Type.GetType to verify the type actually is valid which it is. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks !

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• Java Swing rendering bug on Windows 7 look-and-feel?

  - by John B.

  The knob on vertical JSlider's on my Windows 7 machine (with native look-and-feel) is really, really tiny in both directions. Not just skinny but short as well. Can anyone confirm this? Should I report it? If so, where? Thanks! Here is the code for the sample program (in the screen shot): import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.JSlider; import javax.swing.SwingConstants; import javax.swing.UIManager; public class SliderTest { public static void main( String[] args ) { // Set the look and feel to that of the system try { UIManager.setLookAndFeel( UIManager.getSystemLookAndFeelClassName() ); } catch ( Exception e ) { System.err.println( e ); } // Launch the GUI from the event dispatch thread javax.swing.SwingUtilities.invokeLater( new Runnable() { public void run () { JFrame window = new JFrame(); window.setDefaultCloseOperation( JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE ); JPanel contentPane = new JPanel(); contentPane.add( new JSlider(SwingConstants.HORIZONTAL) ); contentPane.add( new JSlider(SwingConstants.VERTICAL) ); window.setContentPane( contentPane ); window.pack(); window.setLocationRelativeTo( null ); // Center window window.setVisible( true ); } }); } }

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• Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

  - by mikedevenney

  I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

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• Why do I have to specify pure virtual functions in the declaration of a derived class in Visual C++?

  - by neuviemeporte

  Given the base class A and the derived class B: class A { public: virtual void f() = 0; }; class B : public A { public: void g(); }; void B::g() { cout << "Yay!"; } void B::f() { cout << "Argh!"; } I get errors saying that f() is not declared in B while trying do define void B::f(). Do I have to declare f() explicitly in B? I think that if the interface changes I shouldn't have to correct the declarations in every single class deriving from it. Is there no way for B to get all the virtual functions' declarations from A automatically? EDIT: I found an article that says the inheritance of pure virtual functions is dependent on the compiler: http://www.objectmentor.com/resources/articles/abcpvf.pdf I'm using VC++2008, wonder if there's an option for this.

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• Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

  - by Thor84no

  I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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• Scroll view to bottom while keyboard is hiding

  - by Manu

  Hi! I'm using a scroll view to move my view and show certain text fields (that otherwise would be hidden) when the keyboard shows. I basically resize the scroll view to make room for the keyboard, and then scroll up the view smoothly with "scrollRectToVisible", which works perfectly. After that, I can scroll and edit the rest of the text fields without lowering the keyboard, which is what I intend. The problem comes when I want to hide the keyboard again. I have been able to lower the keyboard and scroll down the view to its original position without a problem, but I have been unable to make that transition smooth. At the moment I use the following: - (void)keyboardWillHide: (NSNotification *)notif { CGRect topRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, 1, 1); [scrollview scrollRectToVisible:topRect animated:YES]; scrollview.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, scrollviewWidth, scrollviewHeight); } I create a CGRect at the top, which I then move into view with "scrollRectToVisible". That works fine and commences the scrolling right when the keyboard is hiding (I use "keyboardWillHide" and not "keyboardDidHide" because the scroll view frame is still missing its lower part). The problem comes when I resize the scroll view frame back to its original dimensions (which I need to do), because then the scrolling is interrupted and the view drops to the bottom suddenly (as there is nothing else to scroll). This causes a glitch, which is why I cannot complete the transition smoothly. Any ideas on how could I lower the keyboard while scrolling the view down smoothly? Should I be scrolling up a bigger view, instead of resizing it? That way I would not have to restore the scroll view frame dimensions when lowering the keyboard, or would I? Thanks very much in advance!

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