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  • Should conditional expressions go inside or outside of classes?

    - by Rupert
    It seems that often I will want to execute some methods from a Class when I call it and choosing which function will depend on some condition. This leads me to write classes like in Case 1 because it allows me to rapidly include their functionality. The alternative would be Case 2 which can take a lot of time if there is a lot of code and also means more code being written twice when I drop the Class into different pages. Having said that, Case 1 feels very wrong for some reason that I can't quite put my finger on. I haven't really seen any classes written like this, I suppose. Is there anything wrong with writing classes like in Case 1 or is Case 2 superior? Or is there a better way? What the advantages and disadvantages of each? Case 1 class Foo { public function __construct($bar) { if($bar = 'action1') $this->method1(); else if($bar = 'action2') $this->method2(); else $this->method1(); } public function method1() { } public function method2() { } } $bar = 'action1' $foo = new Foo($bar); Case 2 class Foo { public function __construct() { } public function method1() { } public function method2() { } } $foo = new Foo; $bar = 'action1'; if($bar == 'action1') $foo->method1(); else if($bar == 'action2') $foo->method2(); else $foo->method1();

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  • how do Google and Yahoo replace the URL in the browser status bar?

    - by Mike W
    On the Google and Yahoo search pages, the URLs of the 10 search result links actually point to google.com or yahoo.com. The URLs have extra arguments that allow google.com or yahoo.com to redirect to the actual search result when the link is clicked. When the user mouses over the link, the search result URL (and not the google.com or yahoo.com URL) is displayed in the browser's status bar. I'm wondering how they do that. Many years ago, this would have been accomplished by having some javascript that sets window.status, but that doesn't seem to work anymore, as is explained by http://stackoverflow.com/questions/876390/reliable-cross-browser-way-of-setting-status-bar-text I have a link that looks like this: <a href="http://somedomain.com/ReallyLongURLThatShouldNotBeSeenInTheStatusBar" onmouseover="window.status='http://niceShourtUrl.com/'" onmouseout="window.status=''">Click Me</a> This link tried to use the window.status strategy, but it doesn't work. How do I fix this link so that it acts like the links on Google's and Yahoo's search result pages? In this example, I want "http://niceShourtUrl.com/" to be displayed in the status bar when the user mouses over the link.

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  • wpf progress bar slows 10x times serial port communications... how could be possible that?

    - by D_Guidi
    I know that this could look a dumb question, but here's my problem. I have a worker dialog that "hides" a backgroundworker, so in a worker thread I do my job, I report the progress in a standard way and then I show the results in my WPF program. The dialog contains a simply animated gif and a standard wpf progress bar, and when a progress is notified I set Value property. All lokks as usual and works well for any kind of job, like web service calls, db queries, background elaboration and so on. For my job we use also many "couplers", card readers that reads data from smart card, that are managed with native C code that access to serial port (so, I don't use .NET SerialPort object). I have some nunit tests and I read a sample card in 10 seconds, but using my actual program, under the backgroundworker and showing my worker dialog, I need 1.30 minutes to do the SAME job. I struggled into problem for days until I decide to remove the worker dialog, and without dialog I obtain the same performances of the tests! So I investigated, and It's not the dialog, not the animated gif, but the wpf progress bar! Simply the fact that a progress bar is shown (so, no animation, no Value set called, nothing of nothing) slows serialport communicatitons. Looks incredible? I've tested this behavior and it's exactly what happens.

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  • ant conditions problem

    - by senzacionale
    I have problem with ant. I woul dlike to use conditions in ant. But i get error of: BUILD FAILED C:\Projekti\Projekt ANT\build.xml:412: Problem: failed to create task or type Cause: The name is undefined. Action: Check the spelling. Action: Check that any custom tasks/types have been declared. Action: Check that any / declarations have taken place. and this is code: <target name="test"> <input message="Write some text: " addproperty="foo" /> <if> <equals arg1="${foo}" arg2="bar" /> <then> <echo message="The value of property foo is 'bar'" /> </then> <elseif> <equals arg1="${foo}" arg2="foo" /> <then> <echo message="The value of property foo is 'foo'" /> </then> </elseif> <else> <echo message="The value of property foo is not 'foo' or 'bar'" /> </else> </if> </target>

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  • access properties of current model in has_many declaration

    - by seth.vargo
    Hello, I didn't exactly know how to pose this question other than through example... I have a class we will call Foo. Foo :has_many Bar. Foo has a boolean attribute called randomize that determines the order of the the Bars in the :has_many relationship: class CreateFoo < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :foos do |t| t.string :name t.boolean :randomize, :default => false end end end   class CreateBar < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bars do |t| t.string :name t.references :foo end end end   class Bar < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :foo end   class Foo < ActiveRecord::Base # this is the line that doesn't work has_many :bars, :order => self.randomize ? 'RAND()' : 'id' end How do I access properties of self in the has_many declaration? Things I've tried and failed: creating a method of Foo that returns the correct string creating a lambda function crying Is this possible? UPDATE The problem seems to be that the class in :has_many ISN'T of type Foo: undefined method `randomize' for #<Class:0x1076fbf78> is one of the errors I get. Note that its a general Class, not a Foo object... Why??

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  • Flash AS3: How to Make scroll bar react to dynamic textfield movement?

    - by HeroicNate
    I've been looking for a tutorial and answer to this for a while but can't find what I'm looking for. I am loading html text into a dynamic textfield, and I have a scrollbar controlling the scroll using the code below. What I want to do is also add scroll up/down buttons and have the scroll bar move in relation to the text scroll. I was just going to use "tracklistingtext.scrollV -- " for the scroll buttons, but right now the scroll bar doesn't recognize the text movement. What do I need to do to get the scroll bar to listen to the text scroll position? var listTextreq:URLRequest=new URLRequest("tracklist.txt"); var listTextLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); var bounds:Rectangle=new Rectangle(scrollMC.x,scrollMC.y,0,300); var scrolling:Boolean=false; function fileLoaded(event:Event):void { tracklistingtext.htmlText=listTextLoader.data; tracklistingtext.multiline=true; tracklistingtext.wordWrap=true; scrollMC.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_DOWN, startScroll); stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_UP, stopScroll); addEventListener (Event.ENTER_FRAME, enterHandler); } listTextLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, fileLoaded); listTextLoader.load(listTextreq); function startScroll(e:Event):void { scrolling=true; scrollMC.startDrag(false,bounds); } function stopScroll(e:Event):void { scrolling=false; scrollMC.stopDrag(); } function enterHandler (e:Event):void { if (scrolling == true) { tracklistingtext.scrollV = Math.round(((scrollMC.y - bounds.y)/300)*tracklistingtext.maxScrollV); } } Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Replacing symbol from object file at compile time. For example swapping out main

    - by Anthony Sottile
    Here's the use case: I have a .cpp file which has functions implemented in it. For sake of example say it has the following: [main.cpp] #include <iostream> int foo(int); int foo(int a) { return a * a; } int main() { for (int i = 0; i < 5; i += 1) { std::cout << foo(i) << std::endl; } return 0; } I want to perform some amount of automated testing on the function foo in this file but would need to replace out the main() function to do my testing. Preferably I'd like to have a separate file like this that I could link in over top of that one: [mymain.cpp] #include <iostream> #include <cassert> extern int foo(int); int main() { assert(foo(1) == 1); assert(foo(2) == 4); assert(foo(0) == 0); assert(foo(-2) == 4); return 0; } I'd like (if at all possible) to avoid changing the original .cpp file in order to do this -- though this would be my approach if this is not possible: do a replace for "(\s)main\s*\(" == "\1__oldmain\(" compile as usual. The environment I am targeting is a linux environment with g++.

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  • Flex/Flash: Don't show 'bar' cursor when dragging over a TextField/TextArea?

    - by David Wolever
    As the title suggests, how can I prevent the "bar" cursor from appearing when I click-and-drag over a TextField? For example, consider this interaction: I'd like to prevent the cursor changing to the "bar" in step "2". How can I do that? I've tried fiddling with the selectable flag: protected static function fixMouseOverAfordance(field:TextField):void { var iOwnClick:Boolean = false; function handleMouseOver(event:MouseEvent):void { if (event.buttonDown) { field.selectable = iOwnClick; } else { field.selectable = true; iOwnClick = false; } } field.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, handleMouseOver, false, EventPriority.CURSOR_MANAGEMENT+1); field.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, handleMouseOver, false, EventPriority.CURSOR_MANAGEMENT+1); field.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_MOVE, handleMouseOver, false, EventPriority.CURSOR_MANAGEMENT+1); field.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_DOWN, function(event:MouseEvent):void { iOwnClick = true; field.selectable = true; }); } But the "bar" cursor still appears the first time the mouse is moved over the text field (however, after it has been moved out then moved back in, it does the right thing).

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  • Python 2.6 does not like appending to existing archives in zip files

    - by user313661
    Hello, In some Python unit tests of a program I'm working on we use in-memory zipfiles for end to end tests. In SetUp() we create a simple zip file, but in some tests we want to overwrite some archives. For this we do "zip.writestr(archive_name, zip.read(archive_name) + new_content)". Something like import zipfile from StringIO import StringIO def Foo(): zfile = StringIO() zip = zipfile.ZipFile(zfile, 'a') zip.writestr( "foo", "foo content") zip.writestr( "bar", "bar content") zip.writestr( "foo", zip.read("foo") + "some more foo content") print zip.read("bar") Foo() The problem is that this works fine in Python 2.4 and 2.5, but not 2.6. In Python 2.6 this fails on the print line with "BadZipfile: File name in directory "bar" and header "foo" differ." It seems that it is reading the correct file bar, but that it thinks it should be reading foo instead. I'm at a loss. What am I doing wrong? Is this not supported? I tried searching the web but could find no mention of similar problems. I read the zipfile documentation, but could not find anything (that I thought was) relevant, especially since I'm calling read() with the filename string. Any ideas? Thank you in advance!

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  • How do I pull `static final` constants from a Java class into a Clojure namespace?

    - by Joe Holloway
    I am trying to wrap a Java library with a Clojure binding. One particular class in the Java library defines a bunch of static final constants, for example: class Foo { public static final int BAR = 0; public static final int SOME_CONSTANT = 1; ... } I had a thought that I might be able to inspect the class and pull these constants into my Clojure namespace without explicitly def-ing each one. For example, instead of explicitly wiring it up like this: (def *foo-bar* Foo/BAR) (def *foo-some-constant* Foo/SOME_CONSTANT) I'd be able to inspect the Foo class and dynamically wire up *foo-bar* and *foo-some-constant* in my Clojure namespace when the module is loaded. I see two reasons for doing this: A) Automatically pull in new constants as they are added to the Foo class. In other words, I wouldn't have to modify my Clojure wrapper in the case that the Java interface added a new constant. B) I can guarantee the constants follow a more Clojure-esque naming convention I'm not really sold on doing this, but it seems like a good question to ask to expand my knowledge of Clojure/Java interop. Thanks

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  • TableView on Tab Bar Application ? Application is crashing.

    - by Andrei
    Steps to reproduce: 1. Create a Tab Bar Application called "TestApp" 2. Add new file, a UIViewController subclass with a XIB user interface called "Table" 3. Open up MainWindows.xib, click on the Second tab bar item and in Inspector change the NIB Name from "SecondView" to "Table". Save and close. 4. Open up Table.xib and drag a TableView on top of the view. Now link the dataSource and delegate outlets of the TableView to the Table.xib File's Owner. 5. Add the following code to Table.m: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { NSLog(@"Returning num sections"); return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { NSLog(@"Returning num rows"); return 1; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"Trying to return cell"); static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.text = @"Hello"; NSLog(@"Returning cell"); return cell; } 6.Run the application and select the Second tab bar item. If I start with a View-based application, add a TableView to it, link the outlets to the File's owner and add that piece of code it all works just fine. What am I doing wrong ? Why is the application crashing ?

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  • Representing versions of objects with CakePHP

    - by user636901
    Hi people, Have just started to get into CakePHP since a couple of weeks back. I have some experience with MVC-frameworks, but this problem holds me back a bit. I am currently working on a model foo, containing a primary id and some attributes. Since a complete history of the changes of foo is necessary, the content of foo is saved in the table foo_content. The two tables are connected through foo_content.foo_id = foo.id, in Cake with a foo hasMany foo_content-relationship. To track the versions of foo, foo_content also contains the column version, and foo itself the field currentVersion. The version is an number incremented by one everytime the user updates foo. This is an older native PHP-app btw, to be rewritten on top of Cake. 9 times out of 10 in the app, the most recent version (foo.currentVersion) is the db-entry that need to be represented in the frontend. My question is simply: is there someway of representing this directly in the model? Or does this kind of logic simply need to be defined in the controller? Most grateful for your help!

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  • When to save a mongoose model

    - by kentcdodds
    This is an architectural question. I have models like this: var foo = new mongoose.Schema({ name: String, bars: [{type: ObjectId, ref: 'Bar'}] }); var FooModel = mongoose.model('Foo', foo); var bar = new mongoose.Schema({ foobar: String }); var BarModel = mongoose.model('Bar', bar); Then I want to implement a convenience method like this: BarModel.methods.addFoo = function(foo) { foo.bars = foo.bars || []; // Side note, is this something I should check here? foo.bars.push(this.id); // Here's the line I'm wondering about... Should I include the line below? foo.save(); } The biggest con I see about this is that if I did include foo.save() then I should pass in a callback to addFoo so I avoid issues with the async operation. I'm thinking this is not preferable. But I also think it would be nice to include because addFoo hasn't really "addedFoo" until it's been saved... Am I breaking any design best practices doing it either way?

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  • ServiceLoader double iterator issues

    - by buge
    Is this a known issue? I had trouble finding any search results. When iterating over a ServiceLoader while an iteration already is in progress, the first iteration will be aborted. For example, assuming there are at least two implementations of Foo, the following code will fail with an AssertionError: ServiceLoader<Foo> loader = ServiceLoader.load(Foo.class); Iterator<Foo> iter1 = loader.iterator(); iter1.next(); Iterator<Foo> iter2 = loader.iterator(); while (iter2.hasNext()) { iter2.next(); } assert iter1.hasNext(); This only seems to occur, if the second iterator really terminates. The code will succeed in this variation for example: ServiceLoader<Foo> loader = ServiceLoader.load(Foo.class); Iterator<Foo> iter1 = loader.iterator(); iter1.next(); Iterator<Foo> iter2 = loader.iterator(); iter2.next(); assert iter1.hasNext(); Is this a bug or a feature? :p Is there a ticket for this already anywhere?

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  • How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

    - by Roberto Sebestyen
    I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

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  • How to reference input elements within a specific scope when there are multiple input elements of same kind?

    - by Will Merydith
    How do I select data for input elements within a specific scope? I have the same form multiple times (class "foo-form), and want to ensure I get the values for the hidden inputs within the scope of the form being submitted. Is the scope "this" implied? If not, what is the syntax for selecting input class "foo-text" within the scope of this? Feel free to point me to examples in the jquery docs - I could not find what I was looking for. $('.foo-form').submit(function() { // Store a reference to this form var $thisForm = $(this); }); <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> </form> <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> </form> <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> // user clicks this submit button </form>

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  • Template function overloading with identical signatures, why does this work?

    - by user1843978
    Minimal program: #include <stdio.h> #include <type_traits> template<typename S, typename T> int foo(typename T::type s) { return 1; } template<typename S, typename T> int foo(S s) { return 2; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { int x = 3; printf("%d\n", foo<int, std::enable_if<true, int>>(x)); return 0; } output: 1 Why doesn't this give a compile error? When the template code is generated, wouldn't the functions int foo(typename T::type search) and int foo(S& search) have the same signature? If you change the template function signatures a little bit, it still works (as I would expect given the example above): template<typename S, typename T> void foo(typename T::type s) { printf("a\n"); } template<typename S, typename T> void foo(S s) { printf("b\n"); } Yet this doesn't and yet the only difference is that one has an int signature and the other is defined by the first template parameter. template<typename T> void foo(typename T::type s) { printf("a\n"); } template<typename T> void foo(int s) { printf("b\n"); } I'm using code similar to this for a project I'm working on and I'm afraid that there's a subtly to the language that I'm not understanding that will cause some undefined behavior in certain cases. I should also mention that it does compile on both Clang and in VS11 so I don't think it's just a compiler bug.

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  • Single python file distribution: module or package?

    - by DanielSank
    Suppose I have a useful python function or class (or whatever) called useful_thing which exists in a single file. There are essentialy two ways to organize the source tree. The first way uses a single module: - setup.py - README.rst - ...etc... - foo.py where useful_thing is defined in foo.py. The second strategy is to make a package: - setup.py - README.rst - ...etc... - foo |-module.py |-__init__.py where useful_thing is defined in module.py. In the package case __init__.py would look like this from foo.module import useful_thing so that in both cases you can do from foo import useful_thing. Question: Which way is preferred, and why? EDIT: Since user gnat says this question is poorly formed, I'll add that the official python packaging tutorial does not seem to comment on which of the methods described above is the preferred one. I am explicitly not giving my personal list of pros and cons because I'm interested in whether there is a community preferred method, not generating a discussion of pros/cons :)

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  • Mounting filesystem with special user id set

    - by qbi
    I want to mount the device /dev/sda3 to the directory /foo/bar/baz. After mounting the directory should have the uid of user johndoe. So I did: sudo -u johndoe mkdir /foo/bar/baz stat -c %U /foo/bar/baz johndoe and added the following line to my /etc/fstab: /dev/sda3 /foo/bar/baz ext4 noexec,noatime,auto,owner,nodev,nosuid,user 0 1 When I do now sudo -u johndoe mount /dev/sda3 the command stat -c %U /foo/bar/baz results in root rather than johndoe. What is the best way to mount this ext4-filesystem with uid johndoe set?

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  • Removing an element not currently in a list: ValueError?

    - by Izkata
    This is something that's bothered me for a while, and I can't figure out why anyone would ever want the language to act like this: In [1]: foo = [1, 2, 3] In [2]: foo.remove(2) ; foo # okay Out[2]: [1, 3] In [3]: foo.remove(4) ; foo # not okay? --------------------------------------------------------------------------- ValueError Traceback (most recent call last) /home/izkata/<ipython console> in <module>() ValueError: list.remove(x): x not in list If the value is already not in the list, then I'd expect a silent success. Goal already achieved. Is there any real reason this was done this way? It forces awkward code that should be much shorter: for item in items_to_remove: try: thingamabob.remove(item) except ValueError: pass Instead of simply: for item in items_to_remove: thingamabob.remove(item) As an aside, no, I can't just use set(thingamabob).difference(items_to_remove) because I do have to retain both order and duplicates.

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  • C/C++ canonicaliser?

    - by A T
    Are there any C/C++ automated canonicallisers? - Something like astyle but which makes your code more concise, rather than formats it? For example, to go from: float foo() { float a; float b; a = 9455.34; b = 3543.8; return a*b; } int main(void) { float b; b = foo(); return 0; } To: float foo(); // Automated prototype creation int main(void) { float b = foo(); return 0; } float foo() { return 9455.34*3543.8; } (this is my coding style FYI: to reduce the lines-of-code without sacrificing readability)

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  • Unable to mount smb share. "Please select another viewer and try again". Please help. Serious smb/nautilus foo needed

    - by oznah
    This don't think this is the typical, "I can't mount a windows share" post. I am using stock Ubuntu 12.04. I am pretty sure this is a Nautilus issue, but I have reached a dead end. I have one share that I can't mount using smb://server/share via nautilus. I get the following error. Error: Failed to mount Windows share Please select another viewer and try again I can mount this share from other machines(non-ubuntu) using the same credentials so I know I have perms on the destination share. I can mount other shares on other servers from my Ubuntu box so I am pretty sure I have all the smb packages I need on my Ubuntu box. To make thing more interesting, if I use smbclient from the command line, I mount this share with no problems from my Ubuntu box. So here's what we know: destination share perms are ok (no problem accessing from other machines) smb is setup correctly on Ubuntu box (access other windows shares no problem) I only get the error when using nautilus smbclient in terminal works, no problem Any help would be greatly appreciated. Googling turned up simple mount/perms issues, and I don't think that is what is going on here. Let me know if you need more information. Hugh

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  • protected abstract override Foo(); &ndash; er... what?

    - by Muljadi Budiman
    A couple of weeks back, a co-worker was pondering a situation he was facing.  He was looking at the following class hierarchy: abstract class OriginalBase { protected virtual void Test() { } } abstract class SecondaryBase : OriginalBase { } class FirstConcrete : SecondaryBase { } class SecondConcrete : SecondaryBase { } Basically, the first 2 classes are abstract classes, but the OriginalBase class has Test implemented as a virtual method.  What he needed was to force concrete class implementations to provide a proper body for the Test method, but he can’t do mark the method as abstract since it is already implemented in the OriginalBase class. One way to solve this is to hide the original implementation and then force further derived classes to properly implemented another method that will replace it.  The code will look like the following: abstract class OriginalBase { protected virtual void Test() { } } abstract class SecondaryBase : OriginalBase { protected sealed override void Test() { Test2(); } protected abstract void Test2(); } class FirstConcrete : SecondaryBase { // Have to override Test2 here } class SecondConcrete : SecondaryBase { // Have to override Test2 here } With the above code, SecondaryBase class will seal the Test method so it can no longer be overridden.  Then it also made an abstract method Test2 available, which will force the concrete classes to override and provide the proper implementation.  Calling Test will properly call the proper Test2 implementation in each respective concrete classes. I was wondering if there’s a way to tell the compiler to treat the Test method in SecondaryBase as abstract, and apparently you can, by combining the abstract and override keywords.  The code looks like the following: abstract class OriginalBase { protected virtual void Test() { } } abstract class SecondaryBase : OriginalBase { protected abstract override void Test(); } class FirstConcrete : SecondaryBase { // Have to override Test here } class SecondConcrete : SecondaryBase { // Have to override Test here } The method signature makes it look a bit funky, because most people will treat the override keyword to mean you then need to provide the implementation as well, but the effect is exactly as we desired.  The concepts are still valid: you’re overriding the Test method from its original implementation in the OriginalBase class, but you don’t want to implement it, rather you want to classes that derive from SecondaryBase to provide the proper implementation, so you also make it as an abstract method. I don’t think I’ve ever seen this before in the wild, so it was pretty neat to find that the compiler does support this case.

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  • WordPress: Problem with the shortcode regex

    - by peroyomas
    This is the regular expression used for "shortcodes" in WordPress (one for the whole tag, other for the attributes). return '(.?)\[('.$tagregexp.')\b(.*?)(?:(\/))?\](?:(.+?)\[\/\2\])?(.?)'; $pattern = '/(\w+)\s*=\s*"([^"]*)"(?:\s|$)|(\w+)\s*=\s*\'([^\']*)\'(?:\s|$)|(\w+)\s*=\s*([^\s\'"]+)(?:\s|$)|"([^"]*)"(?:\s|$)|(\S+)(?:\s|$)/'; It parses stuff like [foo bar="baz"]content[/foo] or [foo /] In the WordPress trac they say it's a bit flawed, but my main problem is that it don't support shortcodes inside the attributes, like in [foo bar="[baz /]"]content[/foo] because the regex stops the main shortcode at the first appearance of a closing bracket, so in the example it renders [foo bar="[baz /] and "]content[/foo] shows as it is. Is there any way to change the regex so it bypass any ocurrence of [ with ] and its content when occurs between the opening tag or self-closing tag?

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  • How can I set a local branch to pull / merge from a particular remote branch?

    - by John
    I have a local branch foo that started life as a branch off of master. Then I pushed it to my remote, and it's now happily living life with its siblings in remotes/origin I want pull to automatically pull from remotes/origin/foo, and I want status -sb to show me how many changes I am ahead of remotes/origin/foo. I thought the way to do this was git config branch.foo.merge 'refs/heads/foo' However, after doing that, I get this message: ? git status -sb ## foo ? git pull Your configuration specifies to merge with the ref 'foo' from the remote, but no such ref was fetched. What am I doing wrong?

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