Search Results

Search found 15558 results on 623 pages for 'basic authentication'.

Page 531/623 | < Previous Page | 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538  | Next Page >

  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

    Read the article

  • Greasemonkey script not executed when unusual content loading is being used

    - by Sam Brightman
    I'm trying to write a Greasemonkey script for Facebook and having some trouble with the funky page/content loading that they do (I don't quite understand this - a lot of the links are actually just changing the GET, but I think they do some kind of server redirect to make the URL look the same to the browser too?). Essentially the only test required is putting a GM_log() on its own in the script. If you click around Facebook, even with facebook.com/* as the pattern, it is often not executed. Is there anything I can do, or is the idea of a "page load" fixed in Greasemonkey, and FB is "tricking" it into not running by using a single URL? If I try to do some basic content manipulation like this: GM.log("starting"); var GM_FB=new Object; GM_FB.birthdays = document.evaluate("//div[@class='UIUpcoming_Item']", document, null, XPathResult.UNORDERED_NODE_SNAPSHOT_TYPE, null); for (i = GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotLength - 1; i >= 0; i--) { if (GM_FB.birthdayRegex.test(GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).innerHTML)) { GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).setAttribute('style','font-weight: bold; background: #fffe88'); } } The result is that sometimes only a manual page refresh will make it work. Pulling up the Firebug console and forcing the code to run works fine. Note that this isn't due to late loading of certain parts of the DOM: I have adding some code later to wait for the relevant elements and, crucially, the message never gets logged for certain transitions. For example, when I switch from Messages to News Feed and back.

    Read the article

  • Vertically Merge Multiple Tables in MySQL by Joint Primary Key

    - by world
    Hello, I'll attempt to make my question as clear as possible. I'm fairly unexperienced with SQL, only know the really basic queries. In order to have a better idea I'd been reading the MySQL manual for the past few days, but I couldn't really find a concrete solution and my needs are quite specific. I've got 3 MySQL MyISAM tables: table1, table2 and table3. Each table has an ID column (ID, ID2, ID3 respectively), and different data columns. For example table1 has [ID, Name, Birthday, Status, ...] columns, table2 has [ID2, Country, Zip, ...], table3 has [ID3, Source, Phone, ...] you get the idea. The ID, ID2, ID3 columns are common to all three tables... if there's an ID value in table1 it will also appear in table2 and table3. The number of rows in these tables is identical, about 10m rows in each table. What I'd like to do is create a new table that contains (most of) the columns of all three tables and merge them into it. The dates, for instance, must be converted because right now they're in VARCHAR YYYYMMDD format. Reading the MySQL manual I figured STR_TO_DATE() would do the job, but I don't know how to write the query itself in the first place so I have no idea how to integrate the date conversion. So basically, after I create the new table (which I do know how to do), how can I merge the three tables into it, integrating into the query the date conversion?

    Read the article

  • OpenAL not playing on Max OS X 10.6

    - by Grimless
    I've been working on getting a basic audio engine running on my Mac using OpenAL. It seems relatively straightforward after working with OpenGL for a while. However, despite the fact that I believe I have everything in place, my sound will not play. Here is the order of things I am doing: //Creating a new device ALCdevice* device = alcOpenDevice(NULL); //Create a new context with the device ALCcontext* context = alcCreateContext(device, NULL); //Make that context current alcMakeContextCurrent(context); //Do lots of loading stuff to bring in an AIFF... voodooAIFF = myAIFFLoader("name"); //Then use that data ALuint buf; alGenBuffers(1, &buf); //Check for errors, but none happen... //Bind buffer data. alBufferData(buf, voodooAIFF.format, voodooAIFF.data, voodooAIFF.sizeInBytes, voodooAIFF.frequency); //Check for errors, none here either... //Create Source ALuint src; alGenSources(1, &src); //Error check again, no errors. //Bind source to buffer alSourcei(src, AL_BUFFER, buf); //Set reference distance alSourcei(sourceID, AL_REFERENCE_DISTANCE, 1); //Set source attributes including gain and pitch to 1 (direction set to 0,0,0) //Check for errors, nothing... //Set up listener attributes. //Check for errors, no errors. //Begin playing. alSourcePlay(src); Observe silence... Any insight, what steps am I missing here?

    Read the article

  • Start developing a database application using Oracle + Net Beans

    - by Ranhiru
    I have thought of creating my first database application for one of my projects using Oracle and Java. I have chosen Netbeans as my development environment. I have a few questions to getting started. Please bare with me as I'm a complete beginner to Oracle + Netbeans This will be a data intensive (yet still for a college project) database application. I do not need 1000 user concurrency or any other very advanced features but basic stuff such as triggers, stored procedures etc. Will the 11g "Express" (XE) suffice for my requirements? Do i need any Java to Oracle bridge (database connectivity driver eg. ODBC etc) for Netbeans to connect to the oracle database? If yes, what are they? Does Netbeans support Oracle databases natively? Any easy to follow guide on how do i connect to the database and insert/retrieve/display data on a J2SE application? (I know that i should Google this but if there's any guide previously followed by anyone and is considered easy, it would be greatly appreciated.)

    Read the article

  • Can you open a form or window in an Outlook Addin (VSTO)

    - by dontpanic
    Hi, I am new to VSTO programming. I have created a basic addin for Outlook 2007 that monitors a folder containing XML text files which it opens and then sends them as an email, then deletes them. this all works fine. I want the user to be able to configure certain settings for the way the addin/program will operate, such as the folder that it will monitor, and other things. The logical way to do this is to create a menu item in the addin (which I have also done) that opens a windows form (or XAML window) that allows them to enter the parameters. In my addin I added a new item Windows Form, which worked, and the designer opened. However, in my addin code I cannot open the form. The Show() method normally associated with form objects is not available. Is this simply something you cannot do, or am I just doing it the wrong way? I have read about Outlook form regions, but these seemed to be attached to outlook items such as a new email, task, appointment etc... there doesnt seem to be a way to create a form region that can be opened in the main window of Outlook. Ideally, I would like to go with my original method of opening a new window from a menu item, but if this isnt possible I would like to hear other solutions. Thanks, Will.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Hover Panes Flickering on child

    - by Dirge2000
    OK. Here's my basic HTML structure: <ul class="tabNavigation"> <li> <a href="#">Main Button</a> <div class="hoverTab"> <a href="#">Link Within Div</a> </div> </li> </ul> And here's my jQuery command: $('ul.tabNavigation li').mouseenter(function() { $('ul.tabNavigation div.hoverTab').hide(); $(this).children('div.hoverTab').stop(false, true).fadeIn('fast'); }); $('ul.tabNavigation li').mouseleave(function() { $('ul.tabNavigation div.hoverTab').hide(); $(this).children('div.hoverTab').stop(false, true).show().fadeOut('fast'); }); When you mouseenter/mouseleave the LI, the child div is supposed to appear/disappear, but the problem is the A tag within the hoverTab div causes the tab to flicker - as if, by rolling over the link, the mouse has left the LI... Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

    - by Banford
    I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

    Read the article

  • Flex ChangeWatcher bind to a negative condition

    - by bedwyr
    I have a bindable getter in a component which informs me when a [hidden] timer is running. I also have a context menu which, if this timer is running, should disable one of the menu items. Is it possible to create a ChangeWatcher which watches for the negative condition of a bindable property/getter and changes the enabled property of the menu item? Here are the basic methods I'm trying to bind together: Class A: [Bindable] public function get isPlaying():Boolean { return (_timer != null) ? _timer.running : false; } Class B: private var _playingWatcher:ChangeWatcher; public function createContextMenu():void { //...blah blah, creating context menu var newItem:ContextMenuItem = new ContextMenuItem(); _playingWatcher = BindingUtils.bindProperty(newItem, "enabled", _classA, "isPlaying"); } In the code above, I have the inverse case: when isPlaying() is true, the menu item is enabled; I want it to only be enabled when the condition is false. I could create a second getter (there are other bindings which rely on the current getter) to return the inverse condition, but that sounds ugly to me: [Bindable] public function get isNotPlaying():Boolean { return !isPlaying; } Is this possible, or is there another approach I'm completely missing?

    Read the article

  • How can I have sub-elements of a complex/mixed type with unrestricted order and count?

    - by mbmcavoy
    I am working with XML where some elements will contain text with additional markup. This is similar to this example at W3Schools. However, I need the markup tags to be able to appear in any order and possibly more than once. To modify their example for illustration: <letter> Dear Mr.<name>John Smith</name>. Your order <orderid>1032</orderid> will be shipped on <shipdate>2001-07-13</shipdate>. Thank you, <name>Bob Adams</name> </letter> None of the options presented by W3Schools (on the page following the linked example) allow this XML due to the second <name> element. Their explanation of the "indicators" and my testing are consistent. <xs:sequence> - violates the element order <xs:choice> - more than one kind of element is used. <xs:all> - maxOccurs is restricted to "1". This seems like it should be basic, after all, XHTML allows such things. How do I define my schema to allow this?

    Read the article

  • Java HashSet using a specified method

    - by threenplusone
    I have a basic class 'HistoryItem' like so: public class HistoryItem private Date startDate; private Date endDate; private Info info; private String details; @Override public int hashCode() { int hash = (startDate == null ? 0 : startDate.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (endDate == null ? 0 : endDate.hashCode()); return hash; } } I am currently using a HashSet to remove duplicates from an ArrayList on the startDate & endDate fields, which is working correctly. However I also need to remove duplicates on different fields (info & details). My question is this. Is there a way to specify a different method which HashSet will use in place of hashCode()? Something like this: public int hashCode_2() { int hash = (info == null ? 0 : info.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (details == null ? 0 : details.hashCode()); return hash; } Set<HistoryItem> removeDups = new HashSet<HistoryItem>(); removeDups.setHashMethod(hashCode_2); Or is there another way that I should be doing this?

    Read the article

  • Multi-threaded library calls in ASP.NET page request.

    - by ProfK
    I have an ASP.NET app, very basic, but right now too much code to post if we're lucky and I don't have to. We have a class called ReportGenerator. On a button click, method GenerateReports is called. It makes an async call to InternalGenerateReports using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem and returns, ending the ASP.NET response. It doesn't provide any completion callback or anything. InternalGenerateReports creates and maintains five threads in the threadpool, one report per thread, also using QueueUserWorkItem, by 'creating' five threads, also with and waiting until calls on all of them complete, in a loop. Each thread uses an ASP.NET ReportViewer control to render a report to HTML. That is, for 200 reports, InternalGenerateReports should create 5 threads 40 times. As threads complete, report data is queued, and when all five have completed, report data is flushed to disk. My biggest problems are that after running for just one report, the aspnet process is 'hung', and also that at around 200 reports, the app just hangs. I just simplified this code to run in a single thread, and this works fine. Before we get into details like my code, is there anything obvious in the above scendario that might be wrong?

    Read the article

  • What would cause objectForKey: to return null with a valid string in place?

    - by theMikeSwan
    I am having an issue with NSDictionary returning null for an NSString even though the string in in the dictionary. Here is the code: - (void)sourceDidChange:(NSNotification *)aNote { NSDictionary *aDict = [aNote userInfo]; DLog(@"%@", aDict); NSString *newSourceString = [aDict objectForKey:@"newSource"]; DLog(@"%@", newSourceString); newSourceString = [newSourceString stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; DLog(@"%@", newSourceString); NSString *inspectorString = [newSourceString stringByAppendingString:@"InspectorController"]; DLog(@"%@", inspectorString); newSourceString = [newSourceString stringByAppendingString:@"ViewController"]; DLog(@"%@", newSourceString); } And I get the following log statements: 2010-04-17 23:50:13.913 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] newSource = "Second View"; 2010-04-17 23:50:13.914 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] (null) 2010-04-17 23:50:13.916 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] (null) 2010-04-17 23:50:13.917 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] (null) 2010-04-17 23:50:13.917 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] (null) As you can see the string is in the dictionary under the key newSource, yet when I call objectForKey: I get null. I have even tried the fallback option of cleaning the project. Has anyone ever run into this, or have I just forgotten something really basic?

    Read the article

  • build an API service in Django

    - by Peter
    Hi all, I want to build an API service using Django. A basic workflow goes like this: First, an http request goes to http://mycompany.com/create.py?id=001&callback=http://callback.com. It will create a folder on the server with name 001. Second, if the folder does not exist, it will be created. You get response immediately in XML format. It will look like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <response> <status> <statusCode>0</statusCode> <message>Success</message> </status> <group id="001"/> </response> Finally, the server will do its job (i.e. creating the folder). After it is done, the server does a callback to the URL provided. Currently, I use return render_to_response('create.xml', {'statusCode': statusCode, 'statusMessage': statusMessage, 'groupId': groupId, }, mimetype = 'text/xml') to send the XML response back. I have an XML template which has statusCode, statusMessage, groupId placeholders. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <response> <status> <statusCode>{{ statusCode }}</statusCode> <message>{{ statusMessage }}</message> </status> {% if not statusCode %} <group id="{{ groupId }}"/> {% endif %} </response> But in this way I have to put step 3 before step 2, because otherwise step 3 will not be executed if it is after return statement. Can somebody give me some suggestions how to do this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Route WCF ServiceHost to another computer

    - by I2nfo
    GoodDay, I'm not a guru when it comes to WCF, but i do know the basics. My question is, how do i create a ServiceHost on machine X, while the code is on machine Y? if i build and run this code on my dev machine(localhost) : servicehost = new ServiceHost(typeof(MyService1)); servicehost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IMyService1), new NetTcpBinding(),"net.tcp://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1"); //This is normally set to localhost. What implementation must be done on the datacenter server, so that if i had to point to http://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1 , it will route the service operation to my dev machine (localhost). However, the datacenter should not be accessible via the internet. It is a possible infrastructure that we researching to see if we can create a service bus type architecture so that all our customers can invoke other customer services running on their respective machines just by calling our datacenter url. We have looked at Windows Azure, but we have our own datacenter infrasture that we wish to leverage off. Come think of it, we kind of building our own Azure, on a very very basic scale. How does one go creating this? Thanks in Advance

    Read the article

  • JPA concatenating table names for parent/child @OneToMany

    - by Robert
    We are trying to use a basic @OneToMany relationship: @Entity @Table(name = "PARENT_MESSAGE") public class ParentMessage { @Id @Column(name = "PARENT_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Integer parentId; @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List childMessages; public List getChildMessages() { return this.childMessages; } ... } @Entity @Table(name = "CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP") public class ChildMessage { @Id @Column(name = "CHILD_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Integer childId; @ManyToOne(optional=false,targetEntity=ParentMessage.class,cascade={CascadeType.REFRESH}, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private ParentMessage parentMsg; public ParentMessage getParentMsg() { return parentMsg; } ... } ChildMessage child = new ChildMessage(); em.getTransaction().begin(); ParentMessage parentMessage = (ParentMessage) em.find(ParentMessage.class, parentId); child.setParentMsg(parentMessage); List list = parentMessage.getChildMessages(); if(list == null) list = new ArrayList(); list.add(child); em.getTransaction().commit(); We receive the following error. Why is OpenJPA concatenating the table names to APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP? Of course that table doesn't exist.. the tables defined are APP.PARENT_MESSAGE and APP.CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP Caused by: org.apache.openjpa.lib.jdbc.ReportingSQLException: Table/View 'APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP' does not exist. {SELECT t1.CHILD_ID, t1.PARENT_ID, t1.CREATED_TIME, t1.USER_ID FROM APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP t0 INNER JOIN APP.CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP t1 ON t0.CHILDMESSAGES_CHILD_ID = t1.CHILD_ID WHERE t0.PARENTMESSAGE_PARENT_ID = ?} [code=30000, state=42X05]

    Read the article

  • SVN 409 conflict on commits and updates

    - by bhefny
    We have been using SVN for the past year now and when we migrated to an online server we started getting this error: Commit: Commit failed (details follow): File or directory 'x.php' is out of date; try updating resource out of date; try updating CHECKOUT of '/!svn/ver/491/x.php': 409 Conflict (http://svn.example.com) We are currently using SmartSVN 6.5 and we have also tested with RapidSVN & Syncro (but we can't use tortoise as we have a lot of Ubunutu users) at the begining I though this How do you fix an SVN 409 Conflict Error would help, but it didn't we are still facing the same error and it's even more absurd now. the main problem is that after you get the error, you can't shake it of. Updating doesn't solve, reverting doesn't solve. You are just stuck with the error. The only thing that could work is removing the file from SVN and adding your version but that would be against why we are using SVN in the first place This is our apache config (and yes autoversioning is ON) <Location /> DAV svn SVNPath /home/example/svn SVNAutoversioning on AuthType Basic AuthName "Access Restricted" AuthUserFile /home/example/svn-auth-file Require valid-user </Location> <Directory /> <Files ~ "^\.ht"> Order allow,deny Allow from all Satisfy All </Files> <Files ~ "^error_log"> Order allow,deny Allow from all Satisfy All </Files> </Directory> And here are some observation: We don't receive conflicts anymore, we just get this 409 conflict you can somehow avoid the error if you always update before committing When committing a modified file + a newly added file, you get the error. As if the added file incremented the version by one and then you are committing another file with a older version. Please advise, we are about to go insane

    Read the article

  • Difficulty porting raw PCM output code from Java to Android AudioTrack API.

    - by IndigoParadox
    I'm attempting to port an application that plays chiptunes (NSF, SPC, etc) music files from Java SE to Android. The Android API seems to lack the javax multimedia classes that this application uses to output raw PCM audio. The closest analog I've found in the API is AudioTrack and so I've been wrestling with that. However, when I try to run one of my sample music files through my port-in-progress, all I get back is static. My suspicion is that it's the AudioTrack I've setup which is at fault. I've tried various different constructors but it all just outputs static in the end. The DataLine setup in the original code is something like: AudioFormat audioFormat = new AudioFormat( AudioFormat.Encoding.PCM_SIGNED, 44100, 16, 2, 4, 44100, true ); DataLine.Info lineInfo = new DataLine.Info( SourceDataLine.class, audioFormat ); DataLine line = (SourceDataLine)AudioSystem.getLine( lineInfo ); The constructor I'm using right now is: AudioTrack = new AudioTrack( AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, 44100, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_STEREO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT, AudioTrack.getMinBufferSize( 44100, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_STEREO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT ), AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM ); I've replaced constants and variables in those so they make sense as concisely as possible, but my basic question is if there are any obvious problems in the assumptions I made when going from one format to the other.

    Read the article

  • Error logging in C#

    - by rschuler
    I am making my switch from coding in C++ to C#. I need to replace my C++ error logging/reporting macro system with something similar in C#. In my C++ source I can write LOGERR("Some error"); or LOGERR("Error with inputs %s and %d", stringvar, intvar); The macro & supporting library code then passes the (possibly varargs) formatted message into a database along with the source file, source line, user name, and time. The same data is also stuffed into a data structure for later reporting to the user. Does anybody have C# code snippets or pointers to examples that do this basic error reporting/logging? Edit: At the time I asked this question I was really new to .NET and was unaware of System.Diagnostics.Trace. System.Diagnostics.Trace was what I needed at that time. Since then I have used log4net on projects where the logging requirements were larger and more complex. Just edit that 500 line XML configuration file and log4net will do everything you will ever need :)

    Read the article

  • Virtual destructor - How does it work?

    - by Prabhu
    Hello All, Few hours back I was fiddling with a Memory Leak issue and it turned out that I really got some basic stuff about virtual destructor wrong!! Let me put explain my class design. class Base { virtual push_elements()<br>{}<br> }; class Derived:public Base { vector<int> x; public: void push_elements(){ for(int i=0;i <5;i++) x.push_back(i); } }; void main() { Base* b = new Derived(); b->push_elements(); delete b; } The bounds checker tool reported a memory leak in the derived class vector. And I figured out that the destructor is not virtual and the derived class destructor is not called.And it surprisingly got fixed when I made the destructor virtual. But my question is "isn't the vector deallocated automatically even if the derived class destructor is not called"? Is that a quirk in BoundsChecker tool or is my understanding of virtual destructor is wrong:)

    Read the article

  • VB.NET - Find a Substring in an ArrayList, StringCollection or List(Of String)

    - by CJM
    I've got some code that creates a list of AD groups that the user is a member of, with the intention of saying 'if user is a member of GroupX then allow admin access, if not allow basic access'. I was using a StringCollection to store this list of Groups, and intended to use the Contains method to test for membership of my admin group, but the problem is that this method only compares the full string - but my AD groups values are formatted as cn=GroupX, etc.... I want to be easily able to determine if a particular substring (i.e. 'GroupX') appears in the list of groups. I could always iterate through the groups check each for a substring representing my AD group name, but I'm more interested in finding out if there is a 'better' way. Clearly there are a number of repositories for the list of Groups, and it appears that Generics (List(Of String)) are more commonly preferred (which I may well implement anyway) but there is no in-built means of checking for a substring using this method either. Any suggestions? Or should I just iterated through the list of groups?

    Read the article

  • Suggestion on UPnP presentation

    - by Microkernel
    Hi all, I am working on an embedded device (bit higher end in terms of system resources but still an embedded one) which has lot of media content in it. I am trying to make it UPnP complaint and want to be able to control this device using a UPnP complaint control point/companion device like ipad. The step towards this is to be able to present the playlist content to the user. We thought of using HTML5 as a format to use. But as I am a noob in web technologies, I am not sure whats the best way to produce and present rich dynamic web pages. The content thats presented are video/audio listing that device can play and want this listing to be generated using the user's input criteria. So, what would be the best way to generate these dynamic pages which are rich and rendered as HTML5 pages. (looked at XML & XSLT, but there seems to be some limitations in how well one can use XSLT from some rewviews I saw). Thanks Microkernel PS: This may be silly or very basic as I am a embedded systems developer and not even a noob in web technologoes...

    Read the article

  • Java - How to declare table[i][j] elements as instance variables?

    - by JDelage
    All, I am trying to code a Connect4 game. For this, I have created a P4Game class and a P4Board class which represents the i X j dimensions of the Connect4 board. In P4Game, I have the following: public class P4Game{ //INSTANCE VARIABLES private int nbLines; private int nbColumns; private P4Board [][] position; //CONSTRUCTOR public P4Game(int nbLines, int nbColumns){ this.nbColumns = nbColumns; this.nbLines = nbLines; P4Board [][] position = new P4Board [nbLines][nbColumns]; //Creates the table to receive the instances of the P4Board object.*/ for (int i=0; i<nbLines; i++){ for (int j=0; j<nbColumns; j++){ this.position[i][j] = new P4Board(i,j); //Meant to create each object at (line=i, column=j) } } } This causes a NullPointerException in the nested loops where I mention this.position[i][j]. I reference those objects in other methods of this class so I need them to be instance variables. I suppose the exception is due to the fact that I have not listed the table element position[i][j] as an instance variable at the beginning of the class. my question to people here is (1) is my assumption correct, and if so (2) what would be the syntax to declare instance variables of this form? Thank you all for your help with what I realize is a very basic question. Hopefully it will also benefit other newbies. Cheers, JDelage

    Read the article

  • Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

    - by Stephen G
    I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

    Read the article

  • Calling delegate methods and calling selectors

    - by Crystal
    I'm new to the concept of delegates and selectors when used with notifications. So my first question is, 1) Let's say you have a button that has a delegate that implements some doWork method. If you want the same functionality that's in the method, is it 'ok' to just call that method? I didn't know if that was considered good coding practices and/or if you should do that, or do something different in getting that type of functionality. Like if that is ok architecture? 2) Similarly, with NSNotificationCenter, I see some code that posts a notification. Then there's a HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification method. If I want to manually have that functionality, but without pressing the segment control, is it 'ok' to just take that functionality out of that method and put it in a new method so it would look like this: Original: - (void)HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification { NSDictionary *dict = [userInfo notification]; // do stuff with the dictionary } New: - (void)HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification { NSDictionary *dict = [userInfo notification]; [self newMethod:dict]; } - (void)newMethod:(NSDictionary *)dict { // do stuff with the dictionary } - (void)myOtherMethodThatNeedsTheSameFunctionality { NSDictionary *dict = // create some dictionary [self newMethod:dict]; } Sorry if these are basic questions. I'm not sure what the best practices are for things like this and wanted to start the right way. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538  | Next Page >