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  • Adding a column to a model at runtime (without additional tables) in rails

    - by Marek
    I'm trying to give admins of my web application the ability to add some new fields to a model. The model is called Artwork and i would like to add, for instante, a test_column column at runtime. I'm just teting, so i added a simple link to do it, it will be of course parametric. I managed to do it through migrations: def test_migration_create Artwork.add_column :test_column, :integer flash[:notice] = "Added Column test_column to artworks" redirect_to :action => 'index' end def test_migration_delete Artwork.remove_column :test_column flash[:notice] = "Removed column test_column from artworks" redirect_to :action => 'index' end It works, the column gets added/ removed to/from the databse without issues. I'm using active_scaffold at the moment, so i get the test_column field in the form without adding anything. When i submit a create or an update, however, the test_column does not get updated and stay empty. Inspecting the parameters, i can see: Parameters: {"commit"=>"Update", "authenticity_token"=>"37Bo5pT2jeoXtyY1HgkEdIhglhz8iQL0i3XAx7vu9H4=", "id"=>"62", "record"=>{"number"=>"test_artwork", "author"=>"", "title"=>"Opera di Test", "test_column"=>"TEEST", "year"=>"", "description"=>""}} the test_column parameter is passed correctly. So why active record keeps ignoring it? I tried to restart the server too without success. I'm using ruby 1.8.7, rails 2.3.5, and mongrel with an sqlite3 database. Thanks

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  • Show or hide fields depending on the Acl9 role - Ruby on Rails

    - by Michaël
    Hi, I am using Acl9 to manage the roles and I want to hide the checkbox usertype if the user has the role :customer and show it if the role is :manager. I want that just the :manager can edit all the fields and some for the :customer. Thank you for your help! <h1>Editing user</h1> <% form_for(@user) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :usertype %><br /> <%= f.check_box :usertype %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :surname %><br /> <%= f.text_field :surname %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :firstname %><br /> <%= f.text_field :firstname %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :phone %><br /> <%= f.text_field :phone %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.text_field :email %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :registrationdate %><br /> <%= f.datetime_select :registrationdate %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :login %><br /> <%= f.text_field :login %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :password %><br /> <%= f.text_field :password %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Update' %> </p> <% end %> <%= link_to 'Show', @user %> | <%= link_to 'Back', users_path %>

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  • Why can't I create an abstract constructor on an abstract C# class?

    - by Anthony D
    I am creating an abstract class. I want each of my derived classes to be forced to implement a specific signature of constructor. As such, I did what I would have done has I wanted to force them to implement a method, I made an abstract one. public abstract class A { abstract A(int a, int b); } However I get a message saying the abstract modifier is invalid on this item. My goal was to force some code like this. public class B : A { public B(int a, int b) : base(a, b) { //Some other awesome code. } } This is all C# .NET code. Can anyone help me out? Update 1 I wanted to add some things. What I ended up with was this. private A() { } protected A(int a, int b) { //Code } That does what some folks are saying, default is private, and the class needs to implement a constructor. However that doesn't FORCE a constructor with the signature A(int a, int b). public abstract class A { protected abstract A(int a, int b) { } } Update 2 I should be clear, to work around this I made my default constructor private, and my other constructor protected. I am not really looking for a way to make my code work. I took care of that. I am looking to understand why C# does not let you do this.

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  • What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

    - by Joe
    I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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  • GridView edit problem If primary key is editable (design problem)

    - by Nassign
    I would like to ask about the design of table based on it's editability in a Grid View. Let me explain. For example, I have a table named ProductCustomerRel. Method 1 CustomerCode varchar PK ProductCode varchar PK StoreCode varchar PK Quantity int Note text So the combination of the CustomerCode, StoreCode and ProductCode must be unique. The record is displayed on a gridview. The requirement is that you can edit the customer, product and storecode but when the data is saved, the PK constraint must still persist. The problem here is it would be natural for a grid to be able to edit the 3 primary key, you can only achieve the update operation of the grid view by first deleting the row and then inserting the row with the updated data. An alternative to this is to just update the table and add a SeqNo, and just enforce the unique constraint of the 3 columns when inserting and updating in the grid view. Method 2 SeqNo int PK CustomerCode varchar ProductCode varchar StoreCode varchar Quantity int Note text My question is which of the two method is better? or is there another way to do this?

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  • Sql Alchemy Duplicated Commit

    - by PythonWolf
    Good Morning i'm currently facing a problem in my Cherrypy application. Im my own custom session module , anyway when performing session.add() The exact same object gets updated Twice. cherrypy.request.SessionManager.user_data = user try: db_session.add(cherrypy.request.SessionManager) db_session.commit() Will Return 2011-06-21 09:16:48,991 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL BEGIN (implicit) 2011-06-21 09:16:49,015 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL SELECT ..... FROM "Clients_Users" WHERE "Clients_Users".username = %(username_1)s AND "Clients_Users".password = %(password_1)s LIMIT 1 OFFSET 0 2011-06-21 09:16:49,015 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL {'password_1': '123', 'username_1': u'1'} 2011-06-21 09:16:49,047 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL UPDATE "SYS_Sessions" SET user_data=%(user_data)s WHERE "SYS_Sessions".id = %(SYS_Sessions_id)s 2011-06-21 09:16:49,067 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL {'SYS_Sessions_id': 92L, 'user_data': } 2011-06-21 09:16:49,071 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL COMMIT 2011-06-21 09:16:49,093 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL BEGIN (implicit) 2011-06-21 09:16:49,095 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL UPDATE "SYS_Sessions" SET user_data=%(user_data)s WHERE "SYS_Sessions".id = %(SYS_Sessions_id)s 2011-06-21 09:16:49,095 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL {'SYS_Sessions_id': 92L, 'user_data': } 2011-06-21 09:16:49,108 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL COMMIT As Anyone seen this before ? P.S This doesn't happen in the rest of the modules i have made.

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  • Symfony 2 - Updating a table based on newly inserted record in another table

    - by W00d5t0ck
    I'm trying to create a small forum application using Symfony 2 and Doctrine 2. My ForumTopic entity has a last_post field (oneToOne mapping). Now when I persist my new post with $em->persist($post); I want to update my ForumTopic entity so its last_post field would reference this new post. I have just realised that it cannot be done with a Doctrine postPersist Listener, so I decided to use a small hack, and tried: $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); $topic->setLastPost($post); $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); but it doesn't seem to update my topics table. I also took a look at http://docs.doctrine-project.org/projects/doctrine-orm/en/2.1/reference/working-with-associations.html#transitive-persistence-cascade-operations hoping it will solve the problem by adding cascade: [ 'persist' ] to my Topic.orm.yml file, but it didn't help, either. Could anyone point me to a solution or an example class? My ForumTopic is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumTopic: type: entity table: forum_topics id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: title: type: string(100) nullable: false slug: type: string(100) nullable: false created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: text nullable: true oneToMany: posts: targetEntity: ForumPost mappedBy: topic manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: articles nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic_group: targetEntity: ForumTopicGroup inversedBy: topics nullable: false oneToOne: last_post: targetEntity: ForumPost nullable: true default: null cascade: [ persist ] uniqueConstraint: uniqueSlugByGroup: columns: [ topic_group, slug ] And my ForumPost is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumPost: type: entity table: forum_posts id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: string nullable: true text: type: text nullable: false manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: forum_posts nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic: targetEntity: ForumTopic inversedBy: posts

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  • @Transactional in Spring+Hibernate

    - by Arun Kumar
    I an using Spring 3.1 + Hibernate 4.x in my web application. In my DAO, i am saving User type object as following sessionFactory.getCurrentSession().save(user); But getting following exception: org.hibernate.HibernateException: save is not valid without active transaction I googled and found similar question on SO, with following solution: Session session=getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction trans=session.beginTransaction(); session.save(entity); trans.commit(); That solves the problem. But in that solution, there is lot of mess of beginning and committing the transactions manually. Can't i use sessionFactory.getCurrentSession().save(user); directly without begin/commit of transactions manually? I try to use @Transactional on my service/dao methods too, but the problem persists. EDIT : Here is my Hibernate Config File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:tx="http://www.springframework.org/schema/tx" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.1.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/tx http://www.springframework.org/schema/tx/spring-tx-3.1.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.1.xsd"> <!-- enable the configuration of transactional behavior based on annotations --> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="txManager"/> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource" p:driverClassName="${db.driverClassName}" p:url="${db.url}" p:username="${db.username}" p:password="${db.password}" /> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="packagesToScan" value="com.myapp.entities" /> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <!--Transaction Manager Added --> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager"> <property name="sessionFactory"> <ref bean="sessionFactory" /> </property> </bean> </beans> Please help.

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  • MySQL Datefields: duplicate or calculate?

    - by Konerak
    We are using a table with a structure imposed upon us more than 10 years ago. We are allowed to add columns, but urged not to change existing columns. Certain columns are meant to represent dates, but are put in different format. Amongst others: * CHAR(6): YYMMDD * CHAR(6): DDMMYY * CHAR(8): YYYYMMDD * CHAR(8): DDMMYYYY * DATE * DATETIME Since we now would like to do some more complex queries, using advanced date functions, my manager proposed to d*uplicate those problem columns* to a proper FORMATTED_OLDCOLUMNNAME column using a DATE or DATETIME format. Is this the way to go? Couldn't we just use the STR_TO_DATE function each time we accessed the columns? To avoid every query having to copy-paste the function, I could still work with a view or a stored procedure, but duplicating data to avoid recalculation sounds wrong. Solutions I see (I guess I prefer 2.2.1) 1. Physically duplicate columns 1.1 In the same table 1.1.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.1.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 1.2 In a separate table 1.2.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.2.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 2. On-demand transformation 2.1 Each query has to perform the transformation 2.1.1 Using copy-paste in the source code 2.1.2 Using a library 2.1.3 Using a STORED PROCEDURE 2.2 A view performs the transformation 2.2.1 A separate table replacing the entire table 2.2.2 A separate table just adding the date-fields for the primary keys Am I right to say it's better to recalculate than to store? And would a view be a good solution?

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  • how can i replace an image (inside a div) through jquery and ajax.

    - by oo
    I am trying to click on an image and change it to another image through jquery. When i step through the below code, on the serverside, the controller action fires and on the client side, i can see the correct html return in firebug watch window but the image doesn't change at all. any idea why this div is not updating? original div: <div class="inlineDiv" toggle="off" id="22"><img src="../../images/vote-favorite-off1.png" border="0"></div> jquery code: $(document).ready(function() { $('div.inlineDiv').live('click', function() { var id = $(this).attr("id"); var toggle = $(this).attr("toggle"); var url = '/Tracker/Update?id=' + id + '&toggle=' + toggle; $.get(url, function(data) { $(this).html(data); }); }); }); controller action: public ActionResult Update(int id, string toggle) { if (toggle == "off") { return Content("<img src='../../images/vote-favorite-on1.png' border=0'>"); } return Content("<img src='../../images/vote-favorite-off1.png' border=0'>"); }

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  • PHP: Three item validation comparison

    - by DavidYell
    I have 3 featured product panels on the homepage, and I'm writing a CMS page for it. I'm trying to validate the items. They are selected via three <select> elements, featured1, featured2 and featured3. The default is <option value="0" selected>Select an element</option> I need to validate the $_POST to ensure that the user hasn't selected the same product for more than one of the panels. I have worked out that each $_POST needs to be $_POST['featuredN'] > 0 but I can't seem to find a logical way of processing the 7 potential outcomes. Using a logic table, where 1 is a set value. 1 2 3 ------- 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 If an item is 0, then I will not update it, but I want the user to be able to update a single item if needs be. I cannot find a logical way to see if the item is not 0, and then compare it to another item if that also is not 0. So far my colleague suggested, adding up the values. Which works to see if condition 1 0 0 0 is not met. I have a vague feeling that some form of recursive function might be in order, but I can't quite get my brain to help me on this one! So to the collective brain! :)

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  • Response time increasing (worsening) over time with consistent load

    - by NJ
    Ok. I know I don't have a lot of information. That is, essentially, the reason for my question. I am building a game using Flash/Flex and Rails on the back-end. Communication between the two is via WebORB. Here is what is happening. When I start the client an operation calls the server every 60 seconds (not much, right?) which results in two database SELECTS and an UPDATE and a resulting response to the client. This repeats every 60 seconds. I deployed a test version on heroku and NewRelic's RPM told me that response time degraded over time. One client with one task every 60 seconds. Over several hours the response time drifted from 150ms to over 900ms in response time. I have been able to reproduce this in my development environment (my Macbook Pro) so it isn't a problem on Heroku's side. I am not doing anything sophisticated (by design) in the server app. An action gets called, gets some data from the database, performs an AR update and then returns a response. No caching, etc. Any thoughts? Anyone? I'd really appreciate it.

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  • Tomcat memory issue

    - by user305210
    Hello, I have noticed that my application that is running on Tomcat 5 starts with 1gig of memory and as soon as it starts receiving requests from client, the memory starts dropping until it is down to 100MBs and troubles start from there. I am looking at /manager/status page of tomcat under JVM section where "Free Memory", "Total Memory", "Max Memory" is listed. Is this an indicator of memory leak? Memory does not seem to be freed-up automatically even if there are no requests coming from client machines.

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  • Drupal: tags order in back-end edit-content pages

    - by Patrick
    hi, can I order alphabetically the tags in my edit content pages ? See screenshot here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/72686/tagsOrder.png Currently the order is given by the Taxonomy Manager module (I installed in my Drupal). I would like to know if I should use jQuery to order the tags in my back-end pages. thanks

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  • C++ Reserve Memory Space

    - by uray
    is there any way to reserve memory space to be used later by default Windows Memory Manager so that my application won't run out of memory if my program don't use space more than I have reserved at start of my program?

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  • DataTrigger not reevaluating after property changes

    - by frozen
    I have a listbox which has its itemssource (this is done in the code behind on as the window is created) databound to an observable collection. The List box then has the following data template assigned against the items: usercontrol.xaml ... <ListBox x:Name="communicatorListPhoneControls" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource templateForCalls}"/> ... app.xaml ... <Style x:Key="templateForCalls" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateRinging}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=hasBeenAnswered}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateAnswered}"/> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> ... When the observable collection is updated with an object, this appears in the listbox with the correct initial datatemplate, however when the "hasBeenAnswered" property is set to true (when debugging i can see the collection is correct) the datatrigger does not re-evaluate and then update the listbox to use the correct data template. I have implemented the INotifyPropertyChanged Event in my object, and if in the template i bind to a value, i can see the value update. Its just that the datatrigger will not re-evaluate and change to the correct template. I know the datatrigger binding is correct because if i close the window and open it again, it will correctly apply the second datatemplate, because the "hasBeenAnswered" is set to True.

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  • As a programmer, what are some telltale signs that you're about to get fired or laid off?

    - by plaureano
    If you have ever been fired from a job, did you notice anything different about the behavior of your peers or upper management just before your termination? What are some common signs to look for among your coworkers and project manager(s) that would indicate your position is severely at risk? EDIT: My instincts were right, and I opted to resign rather than face termination. I guess when you have that "gut feeling" that something is about to happen, it's a strong sign that you should be heading for the exit...

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  • Is it a good or bad practice to call instance methods from a java constructor?

    - by Steve
    There are several different ways I can initialize complex objects (with injected dependencies and required set-up of injected members), are all seem reasonable, but have various advantages and disadvantages. I'll give a concrete example: final class MyClass { private final Dependency dependency; @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { this.dependency = dependency; dependency.addHandler(new Handler() { @Override void handle(int foo) { MyClass.this.doSomething(foo); } }); doSomething(0); } private void doSomething(int foo) { dependency.doSomethingElse(foo+1); } } As you can see, the constructor does 3 things, including calling an instance method. I've been told that calling instance methods from a constructor is unsafe because it circumvents the compiler's checks for uninitialized members. I.e. I could have called doSomething(0) before setting this.dependency, which would have compiled but not worked. What is the best way to refactor this? Make doSomething static and pass in the dependency explicitly? In my actual case I have three instance methods and three member fields that all depend on one another, so this seems like a lot of extra boilerplate to make all three of these static. Move the addHandler and doSomething into an @Inject public void init() method. While use with Guice will be transparent, it requires any manual construction to be sure to call init() or else the object won't be fully-functional if someone forgets. Also, this exposes more of the API, both of which seem like bad ideas. Wrap a nested class to keep the dependency to make sure it behaves properly without exposing additional API:class DependencyManager { private final Dependency dependency; public DependecyManager(Dependency dependency) { ... } public doSomething(int foo) { ... } } @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { DependencyManager manager = new DependencyManager(dependency); manager.doSomething(0); } This pulls instance methods out of all constructors, but generates an extra layer of classes, and when I already had inner and anonymous classes (e.g. that handler) it can become confusing - when I tried this I was told to move the DependencyManager to a separate file, which is also distasteful because it's now multiple files to do a single thing. So what is the preferred way to deal with this sort of situation?

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  • How to convince management to unblock stackoverflow.com?

    - by Abe Miessler
    The place I'm working at restricts a lot of sites (including SO). They have a company experts-exchange account that most of the people I work with are happy using. I told my manager that I prefer SO and asked him to unblock it but he just told me to use experts-exchange. Any suggestions on how to convince my corporate overlords that my time is better spent here?

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  • WPF: issue updating UI from background thread

    - by Ted Shaffer
    My code launches a background thread. The background thread makes changes and wants the UI in the main thread to update. The code that launches the thread then waits looks something like: Thread fThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(PerformSync)); fThread.IsBackground = true; fThread.Start(); fThread.Join(); MessageBox.Show("Synchronization complete"); When the background wants to update the UI, it sets a StatusMessage and calls the code below: static StatusMessage _statusMessage; public delegate void AddStatusDelegate(); private void AddStatus() { AddStatusDelegate methodForUIThread = delegate { _statusMessageList.Add(_statusMessage); }; this.Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(methodForUIThread, System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherPriority.Send); } _statusMessageList is an ObservableCollection that is the source for a ListBox. The AddStatus method is called but the code on the main thread never executes - that is, _statusMessage is not added to _statusMessageList while the thread is executing. However, once it is complete (fThread.Join() returns), all the stacked up calls on the main thread are executed. But, if I display a message box between the calls to fThread.Start() and fThread.Join(), then the status messages are updated properly. What do I need to change so that the code in the main thread executes (UI updates) while waiting for the thread to terminate? Thanks.

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  • One-to-many Associations Empty Columns Issue (Ext on Rails)

    - by Joe
    I'm playing with rewriting part of a web application in Rails + Ext. However, I'm having trouble getting an associated models' name to display in the grid view. I've been able to successfully convert several models and arrange the views nicely using tabs and Ext's layout helpers. However, I'm in the middle of setting up an association -- I've followed along with Jon Barket's tutorial on how to do this using Ext -- and I've made all the Rails and JS changes suggested (with appropriate name changes for my models,) the result being that the combo box is now being correctly populated with the names of the associated models, and changes are actually written correctly to database, BUT the data doesn't show up in the column, it's just empty. However, the correct data is there in the 'detail' view. Really just wondering if anyone else ran into this, or had any thoughts on what could be happening. Definitely willing to post code if requested; just note that (AFAIK) my changes follow the tutorial pretty closely. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: Alright, slight progress - kind of. I can get the associated model id # displaying properly -- just by modifying the column model slightly. But I can't get the virtual attribute displayed in the main table (in Jon's example it's country_name.) It still goes blank when I change the data source for that column from dataIndex: 'model[associated_model_id]' to dataIndex: 'virtual_attributes[associated_model_name]' ANOTHER UPDATE: Bump. Has NOBODY here tried integrating Ext with Rails?

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  • Why is my long polling code for a notification system not updating in real time? PHP MYSQL

    - by tjones
    I am making a notification system similar to the red notification on facebook. It should update the number of messages sent to a user in real time. When the message MYSQL table is updated, it should instantly notify the user, but it does not. There does not seem to be an error inserting into MYSQL because on page refresh the notifications update just fine. I am essentially using code from this video tutorial: http://www.screenr.com/SNH (which updates in realtime if a data.txt file is changed, but it is not written for MYSQL like I am trying to do) Is there something wrong with the below code: **Javascript** <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var timestamp = null; function waitForMsg(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "getData.php", data: "userid=" + userid, async: true, cache: false, success: function(data){ var json = eval('(' + data + ')'); if (json['msg'] != "") { $('.notification').fadeIn().html(json['msg']); } setTimeout('waitForMsg()',30000); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ setTimeout('waitForMsg()',30000); } }); } waitForMsg(); </script> <body> <div class="notification"></div> **PHP*** <?php if ($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == 'GET' ) { $userid = $_GET['userid']; include("config.php"); $sql="SELECT MAX(time) FROM notification WHERE userid='$userid'"; $result = mysql_query($sql); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $currentmodif = $row['MAX(time)']; $s="SELECT MAX(lasttimeread) FROM notificationsRead WHERE submittedby='$userid'"; $r = mysql_query($s); $rows = mysql_fetch_assoc($r); $lasttimeread = $rows['MAX(lasttimeread)']; while ($currentmodif <= $lasttimeread) { usleep(10000); clearstatcache(); $currentmodif = $row['MAX(time)']; } $response = array(); $response['msg'] = You have new messages; echo json_encode($response); } ?>

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  • SharePoint Lists.asmx's UpdateListItems() returns too much data

    - by Philipp Schmid
    Is there a way to prevent the UpdateListItems() web service call in SharePoint's Lists.asmx endpoint from returning all of the fields of the newly created or updated list item? In our case an event handler attached to our custom list is adding some rather large field values which are turned to the client unnecessarily. Is there a way to tell it to only return the ID of the newly created (or updated) list item? For example, currently the web service returns something like this: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" ows_Title="Title" ows_Modified="2003-06-19 20:31:21" ows_Created="2003-06-18 10:15:58" ows_Author="3;#User1_Display_Name" ows_Editor="7;#User2_Display_Name" ows_owshiddenversion="3" ows_Attachments="-1" ows__ModerationStatus="0" ows_LinkTitleNoMenu="Title" ows_LinkTitle="Title" ows_SelectTitle="4" ows_Order="400.000000000000" ows_GUID="{4962F024-BBA5-4A0B-9EC1-641B731ABFED}" ows_DateColumn="2003-09-04 00:00:00" ows_NumberColumn="791.00000000000000" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" /> </Result> ... </Results> where as I am looking for a trimmed response only containing for example the ows_ID attribute: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" /> </Result> ... </Results> I have unsuccessfully looked for a resource that documents all of the valid attributes for both the <Batch> and <Method> tags in he updates XmlNode parameter of UpdateListItems() in the hope that I will find a way to specify the fields to return. A solution for WSS 3.0 would be preferable over an SP 2010-only solution.

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  • i got sql syntax error when i debug my application..

    - by newBie
    hi..i want to update my database using formatsqlparam..but when i debug it, it has error saying "Incorrect syntax near ','." this is my code: Dim sql2 As String = "update infoHotel set nameHotel = N" & FormatSqlParam(hotel) & _ ", knownAs1 = N" & FormatSqlParam(KnownAs(0)) & _ ", knownAs2 = N" & FormatSqlParam(KnownAs(1)) & _ ", knownAs3 = N" & FormatSqlParam(KnownAs(2)) & _ ", knownAs4 = N" & FormatSqlParam(KnownAs(3)) & _ ", streetAddress = N" & FormatSqlParam(StreetAddress) & _ ", locality = N" & FormatSqlParam(Locality) & _ ", postalCode = N" & FormatSqlParam(PostalCode) & _ ", country = N" & FormatSqlParam(Country) & _ ", addressFull = N" & FormatSqlParam(address) & _ ", tel = N" & FormatSqlParam(contact) & "," Dim objCommand3 As New SqlCommand(sql2, conn) objCommand3.ExecuteNonQuery() maybe i missing some syntax..but couldnt find where it is..hope somebody can help..thnks in advance..im using vb.net and sql

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