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  • How do I develop browser plugins with cross-platform and cross-browser compatibility in mind?

    - by Schnapple
    My company currently has a product which relies on a custom, in-house ActiveX control. The technology it employs (TWAIN) is itself cross-platform by design, but our solution is obviously limited to Internet Explorer on Windows. Long term we would like to become cross-browser and cross-platform (i.e., support other browsers on Windows, support the Macintosh or Linux). Obviously if we wanted to support Firefox on Windows I would need to write a plugin for it. But if we wanted to support the Macintosh, how do I attack that? Is it possible to compile a version of the Firefox plugin that runs on the Mac? Would I be remiss to not also support Safari on the Mac? Are there any plugins which are cross-browser on a platform? (i.e., can any browsers run plugins for other browsers) Since TWAIN is so low-level to the operating system, I do not think Java would be a solution in any capacity, but I could be wrong. What do people generally do when they want to support multiple platforms with a process that will need to be cross-platform and cross-browser compatible?

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  • jQuery ajax success chaining Internet Explorer Issues

    - by Nickd
    I have a jQuery ajax function that retrieves JSON data. In the success block I call another function to parse the data and update the page. At the end of this parsing/updating function a different ajax call is made. This works perfectly in all browsers except Internet Explorer (7 and 8). The problem is Internet explorer thinks the script is taking too long to process because the success block from the first ajax call doesn't complete until the 2nd ajax call finishes. I get the message: "Stop running this script? A script on this page is causing your web browser to run slowly. If it continues to run, your computer might become unresponsive." My jQuery code: $("#id_select").bind("change", function(e){ $.ajax({ url: "/retrieve_data.js", data: {id:$(e.target).children(":selected").attr("value")}, type: "get", dataType:"json", success: function(data, status, form){ processData(data); }, error: function(response, status){ alert(response.responseText); } }); }) Any suggestions on how to get IE to stop timing out or to accomplish this task without rewriting all my jQuery functions would be appreciated.

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  • Uncatchable AccesViolationException

    - by Roy
    Hi all, I'm getting close to desperate.. I am developing a field service application for Windows Mobile 6.1 using C# and quite some p/Invoking. (I think I'm referencing about 50 native functions) On normal circumstances this goes without any problem, but when i start stressing the GC i'm getting a nasty 0xC0000005 error witch seems uncatchable. In my test i'm rapidly closing and opening a dialog form (the form did make use of native functions, but for testing i commented these out) and after a while the Windows Mobile error reporter comes around to tell me that there was an fatal error in my application. My code uses a try-catch around the Application.Run(masterForm); and hooks into the CurrentDomain.UnhandledException event, but the application still crashes. Even when i attach the debugger, visual studio just tells me "The remote connection to the device has been lost" when the exception occurs.. Since I didn't succeed to catch the exception in the managed environment, I tried to make sense out of the Error Reporter log file. But this doesn't make any sense, the only consistent this about the error is the application where it occurs in. The thread where the application occurs in is unknown to me, the module where the error occurs differs from time to time (I've seen my application.exe, WS2.dll, netcfagl3_5.dll and mscoree3_5.dll), even the error code is not always the same. (most of the time it's 0xC0000005, but i've also seen an 0X80000002 error, which is a warning accounting the first byte?) I tried debugging through bugtrap, but strangely enough this crashes with the same error code (0xC0000005). I tried to open the kdmp file with visual studio, but i can't seem to make any sense out of this because it only shows me disassembler code when i step into the error (unless i have the right .pbb files, which i don't). Same goes for WinDbg. To make a long story short: I frankly don't have a single clue where to look for this error, and I'm hoping some bright soul on stackoverflow does. I'm happy to provide some code but at this moment I don't know which piece to provide.. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Apache rewrite rules redux

    - by AlexanderJohannesen
    I've got a REST framework that when plopped into any directory should Just Work(TM), and it seems to work fine when I've got projects in subdirectories, but not if it's in root. So, given a few example directories; / /project1 /bingo/project2 /hoopla/doopla/minor/project3 All of these works fine, except I'm getting "funnies"* when the project runs in the root directory (bit hard to explain, I suppose, but the second level rewrites are not working properly). Here's my attempt at a generic .htaccess file: RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^static/ - [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^$ RewriteRule .* ./ [R,L] RewriteRule ^index.php - [L] RewriteRule (.*) index.php?q=$1 [QSA,PT] (And yes, all projects have a subdirectory ./static which is ignored by rewrites) What I'm trying to achieve is a set of rewrite rules that work for most cases (which is, again, plonking the project in a directory the webserver serves). I'm not a rewrite rules wiz by a long shot, and any good advice and gotchas would be appreciated (and yes, I've gone through too many introductory articles. I need some serious juice.) More info on the funnies; my webserver has docroot in one spot (under /usr/share/apache2/default-site/), but a set of rules that says that /projects is pulled in from somewhere else that's not a subdirectory of docroot (/home/user/Projects/). When I go there, I get a list of /projects subdirectories, and if one of those subdirectories gets called (restmapp) with the proposed rewrite rules, I get ; The requested URL /home/user/Projects/restmapp/index.php was not found on this server.

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  • Alternative to array_shift function

    - by SoLoGHoST
    Ok, I need keys to be preserved within this array and I just want to shift the 1st element from this array. Actually I know that the first key of this array will always be 1 when I do this: // Sort it by 1st group and 1st layout. ksort($disabled_sections); foreach($disabled_sections as &$grouplayout) ksort($grouplayout); Basically I'd rather not have to ksort it in order to grab this array where the key = 1. And, honestly, I'm not a big fan of array_shift, it just takes to long IMO. Is there another way. Perhaps a way to extract the entire array where $disabled_sections[1] is found without having to do a foreach and sorting it, and array_shift. I just wanna add $disabled[1] to a different array and remove it from this array altogether. While keeping both arrays keys structured the way they are. Technically, it would even be fine to do this: $array = array(); $array = $disabled_sections[1]; But it needs to remove it from $disabled_sections. Can I use something like this approach... $array = array(); $array = $disabled_sections[1]; $disabled_sections -= $disabled_sections[1]; Is something like the above even possible?? Thanks.

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  • Help with Perl persistent data storage using Data::Dumper

    - by stephenmm
    I have been trying to figure this out for way to long tonight. I have googled it to death and none of the examples or my hacks of the examples are getting it done. It seems like this should be pretty easy but I just cannot get it. Here is the code: #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use Data::Dumper; my $complex_variable = {}; my $MEMORY = "$ENV{HOME}/data/memory-file"; $complex_variable->{ 'key' } = 'value'; $complex_variable->{ 'key1' } = 'value1'; $complex_variable->{ 'key2' } = 'value2'; $complex_variable->{ 'key3' } = 'value3'; print Dumper($complex_variable)."TEST001\n"; open M, ">$MEMORY" or die; print M Data::Dumper->Dump([$complex_variable], ['$complex_variable']); close M; $complex_variable = {}; print Dumper($complex_variable)."TEST002\n"; # Then later to restore the value, it's simply: do $MEMORY; #eval $MEMORY; print Dumper($complex_variable)."TEST003\n"; And here is my output: $VAR1 = { 'key2' => 'value2', 'key1' => 'value1', 'key3' => 'value3', 'key' => 'value' }; TEST001 $VAR1 = {}; TEST002 $VAR1 = {}; TEST003 Everything that I read says that the TEST003 output should look identical to the TEST001 output which is exactly what I am trying to achieve. What am I missing here? Should I be "do"ing differently or should I be "eval"ing instead and if so how? Thanks for any help...

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  • Spinner in Android crashing when visibilty changes while handling OnClick in a button

    - by Dave George
    I have a spinner in UI, which I want to hide when I handle onClick method for a button. But the application is crashing all the time. Is it that I can't use the setVisibility(View.Gone) on spinners (it is not written anywhere). If I comment it out, then application run fine. I am getting NullPointerException and I am using RelativeLayout. Also, can I do this: public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0, View view, int pos, long arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(SpinnerActivity.this,selected , Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); spinner.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } Spinner code fore reference: itemsCity=getResources().getStringArray(R.array.cities_array); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.cities_array, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinnerCity.setAdapter(adapter); And here is Button code: private class BtClickListner implements View.OnClickListener{ @Override public void onClick(View v) { essEditText.setVisibility(View.GONE); spinnerCity.setEnabled(false);// Getting exception here // Also tried spinnerCity.setVisibility(View.GONE);// Exception SameBt.setVisibility(View.GONE);// This is same button for which I am handliing event, but it allows me to change tis property at run time. }

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  • WinForms and ShowDialog problem.

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a borderless WinForms app. The main window creates other forms (simple dialogs where I can click yes or no) with ShowDialog(). Every created dialog is not visible in the taskbar, my app has only one taskbar entry that focuses my app (and if a dialog is open that one is focused). If I use ALT+TAB to cycle to all open windows I only see one entry, too. However, If the dialog is created while my app doesn't have the focus (for example the user starts a long running task, starts to work on something else and while being in the background, my app shows a dialog "Task done...") and I want to go back to my app, things are getting strange. If I click on the taskbar to focus my app, the main window is focused (not the dialog). I can't use the main window (because there is still an open modal dialog). Windows 7 ALT-TAB preview shows the Dialog while taskbar mouseover preview shows the main window (In normal behavior both show the dialog in front of the main window). The only way to make my app usable again is to ALT-TAB to the entry and close the modal dialog. If I use ALT-TAB only the dialog is brought to the front and the main window is still in the background Is there a way to prevent that from happening? I know what to do, but most customers think the app crashed since the main window doesn't respond.

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  • Asynchronous daemon processing / ORM interaction with Django

    - by perrierism
    I'm looking for a way to do asynchronous data processing with a daemon that uses Django ORM. However, the ORM isn't thread-safe; it's not thread-safe to try to retrieve / modify django objects from within threads. So I'm wondering what the correct way to achieve asynchrony is? Basically what I need to accomplish is taking a list of users in the db, querying a third party api and then making updates to user-profile rows for those users. As a daemon or background process. Doing this in series per user is easy, but it takes too long to be at all scalable. If the daemon is retrieving and updating the users through the ORM, how do I achieve processing 10-20 users at a time? I would use a standard threading / queue system for this but you can't thread interactions like models.User.objects.get(id=foo) ... Django itself is an asynchronous processing system which makes asynchronous ORM calls(?) for each request, so there should be a way to do it? I haven't found anything in the documentation so far. Cheers

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  • java.net.SocketException: Software caused connection abort: recv failed; Causes and cures?

    - by IVR Avenger
    Hi, all. I've got an application running on Apache Tomcat 5.5 on a Win2k3 VM. The application serves up XML to be consumed by some telephony appliances as part of our IVR infrastructure. The application, in turn, receives its information from a handful of SOAP services. This morning, the SOAP services were timing out intermittently, causing all sorts of Exceptions. Once these stopped, I noticed that our application was still performing very slowly, in that it took it a long time to render and deliver pages. This sluggishness was noticed both on the appliances that consume the Tomcat output, and from a simple test of requesting some static documents from my web browser. Restarting Tomcat immediately resolved the issue. Cracking open the localhost log, I see a ton of these errors, right up until I restarted Tomcat: WARNING: Exception thrown whilst processing POSTed parameters java.net.SocketException: Software caused connection abort: recv failed After a big of Googling, my working theory is that the SOAP issue caused my users to get errors, which caused them to make more requests, which put an increased load on the application. This caused it to run out of available sockets to handle incoming requests. So, here's my quandary: 1. Is this a valid hypothesis, or am I just in over my head with HTTP and Tomcat? 2. If this is a valid hypothesis, is there a way to increase the size of the "socket queue", so that this doesn't happen in the future? Thanks! IVR Avenger

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  • Custom Validation Attribute with Custom Model Binder in MVC 2

    - by griegs
    I apologise for the amount of code I have included. I've tried to keep it to a minimum. I'm trying to have a Custom Validator Attribute on my model as well as a Custom Model binder. The Attribute and the Binder work great seperately but if I have both, then the Validation Attribute no longer works. Here is my code snipped for readability. If I leave out the code in global.asax the custom validation fires but not if I have the custom binder enabled. Validation Attribute; public class IsPhoneNumberAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { //do some checking on 'value' here return true; } } Useage of the attribute in my model; [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please provide a contact number")] [IsPhoneNumberAttribute(ErrorMessage = "Not a valid phone number")] public string Phone { get; set; } Custom Model Binder; public class CustomContactUsBinder : DefaultModelBinder { protected override void OnModelUpdated(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { ContactFormViewModel contactFormViewModel = bindingContext.Model as ContactFormViewModel; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(contactFormViewModel.Phone)) if (contactFormViewModel.Phone.Length > 10) bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Phone", "Phone is too long."); } } Global asax; System.Web.Mvc.ModelBinders.Binders[typeof(ContactFormViewModel)] = new CustomContactUsBinder();

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  • How to build n-layered web architecture with PHP?

    - by Alex
    I have a description and design of a website and I need to redesign it to allow for new requirements. The website's purpose is the offering of government's contracts and bidding opportunities for different businesses.I'm dealing with the 3-tier architecture PHP website comprising of the user-interface tier(client's web browser),business logic layer(Apache web server with PHP engine in it and a couple of applications running within a web server as well) and a database layer(local mysql database). Now,i need to redesign it to su???rt distributed n-tier architecture and specify how I would go about it.After long hours of research i came to this solution: business logic should be separated into presentation and purely business logic tier to allow for n-layer architecture(user-interface,presentation tier,b.logic and data tier).I have decided to use ??? just for the presentation(since the original existing website is in PHP) and use it within apache web server.In the business logic i want to use J2?? implementation technology instead of implementing it in PHP(i.e using Zend app.server and smarty template) cz J2EE can provide much more essential container services which are essential for business logic,its robustness,maintainability and different critical business operations which will be carried out by the g?v?rnment's website.So,particularly,i want to use J??ss app.server with ?J? business objects in it which would provide all the b.logic in java and would interact with the database and so forth.In order to connect PHP on a web server with java on app.server i'm gonna use PHP/Java bridge API (or maybe Quercus or SOAP is better?).Finally,i have my data tier with mysql which will communicate with b.logic via JD??.Payment system application in ???.server is gonna use S??? to talk with credit card company. From your professional point of view,does it sound like a good way of redesigning the original website to allow for n-tier architecture considering the specifics of the website and the criticality of its operations?(payment system is included in it)or u would personally prefer to use PHP business objects for business logic as well instead of J2EE?If you have any wiser recommendation or some alternative,please let me know what is right or wrong in my current solution. H??? to hear your professional advice very s??n (I'm new to the area of web development) Thanks in advance

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  • WDK build-process hooks: need incremental build with auto-versioning

    - by Mystagogue
    I've previously gotten incremental builds with auto-versioning working in a team build setting for user-mode code, but now I'm dealing with the builds of WDK device drivers. It's a whole new ball-game. I need to know what extension point, or hook, is available in the WDK build that occurs after the driver has been selected to be incrementally built, but before it actually starts building the object files. More specifically, I have a .rc file that contains the version of the device driver. I need to update the version in that file ONLY IF the driver is going to be built anyway. If I bump the value in the .rc file prematurely, it will cause the incremental build to kick-off (that is bad). If I wait too long, then the incremental build won't see that I've changed the .rc file. Either way, I do need the WDK to realize that the new version I've placed into the .rc file needs to be built into a new .res file and linked. How do I do this? What suggested extension points should I play with? Is there a link-tutorial on the WDK build process that is particularly revealing regarding this topic?

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  • imagegrabwindow + https = black screen

    - by earls
    I'm doing something stupid and trying to capture thumbnails, snapshots, images of a html webpages. I'm doing something along the lines of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/443837/how-might-i-obtain-a-snapshot-or-thumbnail-of-a-web-page-using-php DCOM + IE + PHP (imagegrabwindow; example from manual) Everything works PERFECT until I try to capture a HTTPS website... https://mail.google.com for example. imagegrabwindow produces a png, but it only shows the browser. the contents of the browser are black. If I log out of Google, I can capture the browser window and the contents thereof - the second I log in, the contents (not the browser frame) are black screen. Yes, I've increased the timeout (before closing the browser window). IE has clearly loaded the page, it just refuses to render for imagegrabwindow. I've been fighting this long enough I know it's either a permissions problem or a service needs to interact with the desktop. Does anyone have any clue what permissions need to be set or which service needs access? I assumed cryptographic services, but that's run as a network service and trying to change it to interact makes it shout and carry on. This is the last piece of the puzzle, I'd really like to get it working. Thank you!

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  • Updating multiple related tables in SQLite with C#

    - by PerryJ
    Just some background, sorry so long winded. I'm using the System.Data.SQLite ADO.net adapter to create a local sqlite database and this will be the only process hitting the database, so I don't need to worry about concurrency. I'm building the database from various sources and don't want to build this all in memory using datasets or dataadapters or anything like that. I want to do this using SQL (DdCommands). I'm not very good with SQL and complete noob in sqlite. I'm basically using sqlite as a local database / save file structure. The database has a lot of related tables and the data has nothing to do with People or Regions or Districts, but to use a simple analogy, imagine: Region table with auto increment RegionID, RegionName column and various optional columns. District table with auto increment DistrictID, DistrictName, RegionId, and various optional columns Person table with auto increment PersonID, PersonName, DistrictID, and various optional columns So I get some data representing RegionName, DistrictName,PersonName, and other Person related data. The Region, District and/or Person may or may not be created at this point. Once again, not being the greatest with this, my thoughts would be something like: Check to see if Region exists and if so get the RegionID else create it and get RegionID Check to see if District exists and if so get the DistrictID else create it adding in RegionID from above and get DistrictID Check to see if Person exists and if so get the PersonID else create it adding in DistrictID from above and get PersonID Update Person with rest of data. In MS SQL Server I would create a stored procedure to handle all this. Only way I can see to do this with sqlite is a lot of commands. So I'm sure I'm not getting this. I've spent hours looking around on various sites but just don't feel like I'm going down the right road. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

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  • PHP set timeout for script with system call, set_time_limit not working

    - by tehalive
    I have a command-line PHP script that runs a wget request using each member of an array with foreach. This wget request can sometimes take a long time so I want to be able to set a timeout for killing the script if it goes past 15 seconds for example. I have PHP safemode disabled and tried set_time_limit(15) early in the script, however it continues indefinitely. Update: Thanks to Dor for pointing out this is because set_time_limit() does not respect system() calls. So I was trying to find other ways to kill the script after 15 seconds of execution. However, I'm not sure if it's possible to check the time a script has been running while it's in the middle of a wget request at the same time (a do while loop did not work). Maybe fork a process with a timer and set it to kill the parent after a set amount of time? Thanks for any tips! Update: Below is my relevant code. $url is passed from the command-line and is an array of multiple URLs (sorry for not posting this initially): foreach( $url as $key => $value){ $wget = "wget -r -H -nd -l 999 $value"; system($wget); }

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  • SmtpClient.SendAsync - How to ensure my application doesn't finish before callback?

    - by James
    Hi, I need to send emails asychronously through a console application. I need to do some DB updates on the callback but my application is exiting before the callback code gets run! How can I stop this from happening in a nice manner rather than simply guessing how long to wait before exiting. I would imagine the Async calls get placed in some form of thread? Is it possible to check if any are waiting to be called? Sample Code private static void SendCompletedCallback(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { // Get the unique identifier for this asynchronous operation. String token = (string) e.UserState; if (e.Cancelled) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] Send canceled.", token); } if (e.Error != null) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] {1}", token, e.Error.ToString()); } else { // update DB Console.WriteLine("Message sent."); } } public static void Main(string[] args) { var users = Repository.GetUsers(); SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient("Host"); client.SendCompleted += new SendCompletedEventHandler(SendCompletedCallback); MailAddress from = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "System", Encoding.UTF8); foreach (var user in users) { MailAddress to = new MailAddress(user.Email); MailMessage message = new MailMessage(from, to); message.Body = "This is a test"; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; message.Subject = "test message 1" + someArrows; message.SubjectEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; string userState = String.Format("Message for user id {0}", user.ID); client.SendAsync(message, userState); message.Dispose(); } // need to wait here until I have received a callback for each message // otherwise the application will exit }

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  • wcf callback exception after updating to .net 4.0

    - by James
    I have a wcf service that uses callbacks with DualHttpBindings. The service pushes back a datatable of search results the client (for a long running search) as it finds them. This worked fine in .Net 3.5. Since I updated to .Net 4.0, it bombs out with a System.Runtime.FatalException that actually kills the IIS worker process. I have no idea how to even go about starting to fix this. Any recommendations appreciated. The info from the resulting event log is pasted below. An unhandled exception occurred and the process was terminated. Application ID: /LM/W3SVC/2/ROOT/CP Process ID: 5284 Exception: System.Runtime.FatalException Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. StackTrace: at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc& rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage31(MessageRpc& rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.DispatchAndReleasePump(RequestContext request, Boolean cleanThread, OperationContext currentOperationContext) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.HandleRequest(RequestContext request, OperationContext currentOperationContext) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.AsyncMessagePump(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.AsyncQueueReader.Set(Item item) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.Dispatch() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.ProcessDuplexMessage(WsrmMessageInfo info) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.HandleReceiveComplete(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.OnReceiveCompletedStatic(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableChannelBinder1.InputAsyncResult1.OnInputComplete(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.AsyncQueueReader.Set(Item item) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.Dispatch() at System.Runtime.IOThreadScheduler.ScheduledOverlapped.IOCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Runtime.Fx.IOCompletionThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(UInt32 error, UInt32 bytesRead, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) InnerException: * System.NullReferenceException* Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. StackTrace: at System.Web.HttpApplication.ThreadContext.Enter(Boolean setImpersonationContext) at System.Web.HttpApplication.OnThreadEnterPrivate(Boolean setImpersonationContext) at System.Web.AspNetSynchronizationContext.CallCallbackPossiblyUnderLock(SendOrPostCallback callback, Object state) at System.Web.AspNetSynchronizationContext.CallCallback(SendOrPostCallback callback, Object state) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc& rpc)

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  • How to do Grouping using JPA annotation with mapping given field

    - by hemal
    I am using JPA Annotation mapping with the table given below, but having problem that i am doing mapping on same table but on diffrent field given ProductImpl.java @Entity @Table(name = "Product") public class ProductImpl extends SimpleTagGroup implements Product { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private long id = -1; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "ProductTagMapping", joinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "productId"), inverseJoinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "tagId")) private List<SimpleTag> tags; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "ProductTagMapping", joinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "productId"), inverseJoinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "tagId")) private List<SimpleTag> licenses; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "ProductTagMapping", joinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "productId"), inverseJoinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "tagId")) private List<SimpleTag> os; I want to get values like windows and linux in os , GPLv2 and GPLv3 in licenses ,so we are using TagGroup table . but here i got all tagValues in each of the os,licenses and tag fileds,so how could i do group by or some other things with JPA. and ProductTagMapping is the mapping table between Tag and TagGroup TagGroup Table ID TAGGROUPNAME 1 PRODUCTTYPE 2 LICENSE 3 TAGS 4 OS SimpleTag ID TAGVALUE 1 Application 2 Framework 3 Apache2 4 GPLv2 5 GPLv3 6 learning 7 Linux 8 Windows 9 mature

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  • Which of these is pythonic? and Pythonic vs. Speed

    - by Kashyap Nadig
    Hi! I'm new to python and just wrote this module level function: def _interval(patt): """ Converts a string pattern of the form '1y 42d 14h56m' to a timedelta object. y - years (365 days), M - months (30 days), w - weeks, d - days, h - hours, m - minutes, s - seconds""" m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} for (n,q) in m: if q=='y': args['days'] += float(n)*365 elif q=='M': args['days'] += float(n)*30 elif q=='w': args['weeks'] += float(n) elif q=='d': args['days'] += float(n) elif q=='h': args['hours'] += float(n) elif q=='m': args['minutes'] += float(n) elif q=='s': args['seconds'] += float(n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) My issue is with the for loop here i.e the long if elif block, and was wondering if there is a more pythonic way of doing it. So I re-wrote the function as: def _interval2(patt): m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} argsmap = {'y': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*365), 'M': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*30), 'w': ('weeks', lambda x: float(x)), 'd': ('days', lambda x: float(x)), 'h': ('hours', lambda x: float(x)), 'm': ('minutes', lambda x: float(x)), 's': ('seconds', lambda x: float(x))} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += argsmap[q][1](n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) I tested the execution times of both the codes using timeit module and found that the second one took about 5-6 seconds longer (for the default number of repeats). So my question is: 1. Which code is considered more pythonic? 2. Is there still a more pythonic was of writing this function? 3. What about the trade-offs between pythonicity and other aspects (like speed in this case) of programming? p.s. I kinda have an OCD for elegant code. EDITED _interval2 after seeing this answer: argsmap = {'y': ('days', 365), 'M': ('days', 30), 'w': ('weeks', 1), 'd': ('days', 1), 'h': ('hours', 1), 'm': ('minutes', 1), 's': ('seconds', 1)} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += float(n)*argsmap[q][1]

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  • Rendering PDF on WebPage

    - by Priyank
    Hi. We are trying to load a pdf file in web browser using pdfobject javascript api. Currently the size of the pdf's that we are trying to display is close to 10MBs. This creates a long delay in displaying a PDF on web page; while the complete PDF gets downloaded. We need to remove this lag by achieving either of the alternatives: Show a progress bar until the PDF is actually displayed. We couldn't find an event which is triggered and can be used to find out if pdf is visible now. This lacking doesn't let us decide when to stop showing progress bar/spinner OR lazy load the PDF such that it gets displayed as soon as first page gets loaded. With that ateast user will have a visual indication as to something is happening. We couldn'find anything in pdf object that lets us do a lazy load. User alternative pdf rendering api; this is a low priority as we already have complete code in place; but in an event of first 2 alternatives not being met; we'd have to consider this option. So please feel free to suggest. Any other ideas as to how user interaction can be made more intuitive or pleasant; would be welcome. Cheers

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  • VMWare steals IP addresses [closed]

    - by Ishan Amin
    I'm having a peculiar problem, that I think I have narrowed down to VMware. For the past one year, every once in a while we lose internet connection and not all users (about 10 users) go down at the same time, its usually one-by-one. First someone will call me and say "Internet is down" and then we would go reset the router and modem and switch and it would be working again for a while, then go down again without any pattern or replicatable sequence. We'd go repeat the steps again to get everyone in the office running again. We called our Internet Service Provider and they constantly say, We see your modem and we see your router and from thier end everything is OK. we replaced our router and switch and modem, twice! Last friday, it dawned upon me, that everytime we turn on a VMware machine, this sequence of taking everyone down starts, which also explains the message that my users get for "IP Conflict Found" So we do alot of VMware testing and lo and behold, it takes my Internet down. My Yahoo and Gtalk would continue working but www is down when the VMware machines are started. I do use bridged networking to all the VMware machines, but I dont know what else to set it at. now, sorry for this long rambling but anyone have any clue on how to stop this? thanks IA

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  • How to specify selector when CAKeyframeAnimation is finished?

    - by darenchow
    I'm using a CAKeyframeAnimation to animate a view along a CGPath. When the animation is done, I'd like to be able to call some other method to perform another action. Is there a good way to do this? I've looked at using UIView's setAnimationDidStopSelector:, however from the docs this looks like it only applies when used within a UIView animation block (beginAnimations and commitAnimations). I also gave it a try just in case, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's some sample code (this is within a custom UIView sub-class method): // These have no effect since they're not in a UIView Animation Block [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationDidStop:finished:context:)]; // Set up path movement CAKeyframeAnimation *pathAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"path"]; pathAnimation.calculationMode = kCAAnimationPaced; pathAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; pathAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; pathAnimation.duration = 1.0f; CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, self.center.x, self.center.y); // add all points to the path for (NSValue* value in myPoints) { CGPoint nextPoint = [value CGPointValue]; CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, nextPoint.x, nextPoint.y); } pathAnimation.path = path; CGPathRelease(path); [self.layer addAnimation:pathAnimation forKey:@"pathAnimation"]; A workaround I was considering that should work, but doesn't seem like the best way, is to use NSObject's performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:. As long as I set the delay equal to the duration of the animation, then it should be fine. Is there a better way? Thanks!

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  • Changing text of TextView -- old text doesn't go away (Android 4.1.2)

    - by Jason Costabile
    I'm pretty new to Android development. Trying to accomplish something fairly simple -- change some displayed text when a timer ticks. Here's the potentially relevant code: CountDownTimer currentTimer; Resources res; TextView timerText; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_exercise); res = getResources(); timerText = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.timer_text); } @Override protected void onStart() { super.onStart(); //"Get ready" countdown currentTimer = new CountDownTimer(5000, 1000) { @Override public void onTick(long millisUntilFinished) { timerText.setText("" + (int)Math.ceil(millisUntilFinished / 1000.0)); } @Override public void onFinish() { ... } }; currentTimer.start(); } This works fine on an emulated 4.2.2 device, but on a 4.1.2 device (both physical and emulated), the changed TextView appears as such while the countdown proceeds: If you can't tell, that's the numbers 5,4,3 overlayed. So, when I set a new string for the TextView, the new string is displayed but without replacing the old string. Any other TextViews used in my app behave in the same way. Any ideas what the problem is and how to fix it? Edit: From the XML layout file: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" tools:context=".ExerciseActivity" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:gravity="center" android:keepScreenOn="true" android:orientation="vertical" > ... <TextView android:id="@+id/timer_text" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1" android:textIsSelectable="false" android:hint="@string/timer_default" /> ... </LinearLayout> That's all that could be relevant.

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