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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • Application doesn't exit with 0 threads

    - by Bryce Wagner
    We have a WinForms desktop application, which is heavily multithreaded. 3 threads run with Application.Run and a bunch of other background worker threads. Getting all the threads to shut down properly was kind of tricky, but I thought I finally got it right. But when we actually deployed the application, users started experiencing the application not exiting. There's a System.Threading.Mutex to prevent them from running the app multiple times, so they have to go into task manager and kill the old one before they can run it again. Every thread gets a Thread.Join before the main thread exits, and I added logging to each thread I spawn. According to the log, every single thread that starts also exits, and the main thread also exits. Even stranger, running SysInternals ProcessExplorer show all the threads disappear when the application exits. As in, there are 0 threads (managed or unmanaged), but the process is still running. I can't reproduce this on any developers computers or our test environment, and so far I've only seen it happen on Windows XP (not Vista or Windows 7 or any Windows Server). How can a process keep running with 0 threads?

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  • Right Click Context Menu Script for iFrame

    - by Ramiz Uddin
    The context of the problem is related to an application which is based on single-page Ajax application which consists of three different panels (iframes). The layout of the page is as follows: _________________________________________________ | | | Frame A | FRAME C |__________________| | | | Frame B | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | The problem is with the context menu (right-click menu) in Frame C. The position of the context menu is not perfectly positioned with the mouse click. Particularly, if you drag and increase the size of the Frame C window. Code snippet: var rightedge = parent.frames["FrameC"].frameElement.clientWidth-event.clientX; var bottomedge = parent.frames["FrameC"].frameElement.clientHeight-event.clientY; if (rightedge < document.getElementById('Menu').offsetWidth) menuCoorX = parent.frames["FrameC"].frameElement.scrollLeft + event.clientX - document.getElementById('Menu').offsetWidth; else menuCoorX = parent.frames["FrameC"].frameElement.scrollLeft + event.clientX; if (bottomedge < document.getElementById('Menu').offsetHeight) menuCoorY = parent.frames["FrameC"].frameElement.scrollTop + event.clientY - document.getElementById('Menu').offsetHeight; else menuCoorY = parent.frames["FrameC"].frameElement.scrollTop + event.clientY; Currently, we need it to work only for IE (7 and 8). Please, help! Thanks.

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  • Getting percentage of "Count(*)" to the number of all items in "GROUP BY"

    - by celalo
    Let's say I need to have the ratio of "number of items available from certain category" to "the the number of all items". Please consider a MySQL table like this: /* mysql> select * from Item; +----+------------+----------+ | ID | Department | Category | +----+------------+----------+ | 1 | Popular | Rock | | 2 | Classical | Opera | | 3 | Popular | Jazz | | 4 | Classical | Dance | | 5 | Classical | General | | 6 | Classical | Vocal | | 7 | Popular | Blues | | 8 | Popular | Jazz | | 9 | Popular | Country | | 10 | Popular | New Age | | 11 | Popular | New Age | | 12 | Classical | General | | 13 | Classical | Dance | | 14 | Classical | Opera | | 15 | Popular | Blues | | 16 | Popular | Blues | +----+------------+----------+ 16 rows in set (0.03 sec) mysql> SELECT Category, COUNT(*) AS Total -> FROM Item -> WHERE Department='Popular' -> GROUP BY Category; +----------+-------+ | Category | Total | +----------+-------+ | Blues | 3 | | Country | 1 | | Jazz | 2 | | New Age | 2 | | Rock | 1 | +----------+-------+ 5 rows in set (0.02 sec) */ What I need is basically a result set resembles this one: /* +----------+-------+-----------------------------+ | Category | Total | percentage to the all items | (Note that number of all available items is "9") +----------+-------+-----------------------------+ | Blues | 3 | 33 | (3/9)*100 | Country | 1 | 11 | (1/9)*100 | Jazz | 2 | 22 | (2/9)*100 | New Age | 2 | 22 | (2/9)*100 | Rock | 1 | 11 | (1/9)*100 +----------+-------+-----------------------------+ 5 rows in set (0.02 sec) */ How can I achieve such a result set in a single query? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to embed multiple jQuery line of code in custom HtmlHelpers ASP.NET MVC

    - by embarus
    I 've tried to create my own HTML Helper which work fine for my need but I can't embed many lines of jQuery code in my extension HtmlHelpers class. I've tried @ literal for jQuery code I doesn't work or I need to escape every line of code that I thing I not good for multiple line of code. I don't know if there is another way to achieve this problem like << Therefore, I need to include jQuery plugin file and put implement script after HTML tag. I find it would be convenience if I could put every in HTML helper and put a single line of code in aspx page for example <%= Html.ParentChildSelectList(string parentName, string childName, IEnumerable parentViewData, IEnumerable childViewData, int parentSize, in childSize) % The following code is the way that I used now. the .aspx page Category model.CategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% model.SubcategoryID,"subcategory") % model.SubcategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.sarapadchang.parentChildSelectList( { parentId : "CategoryID" , childId : "SubcategoryID", actionName : "GetSubcategoryList", controllerName : "Json" } ); </script> I put in head tag to include ParentChildSelectList.js the following code for ParentChildSelectList.js (function($) { $.sarapadchang = { parentChildSelectList: function(options) { // $("#CategoryID option").click(function() $("#" + options.parentId).find("option").click(function() { $("#" + options.childId).empty(); //clear data $("#" + options.childId).append('<option>loading...</option>'); $.post("/" + options.controllerName + "/" + options.actionName + "/" + $(this).attr('value'), "", function(data) { var html = ""; $.each(data, function(index, entry) { html += '<option value="' + entry['Value'] + '">' + entry['Text'] + '</option>'; } ); $("#" + options.childId).empty() $("#" + options.childId).append(html); }, "json"); //end getJson }); })(jQuery); To illustrate you, I've attached simple solution, please follow this link. http://www.thaileaguefc.net/ParentChildSelectList.rar Please accept my apologies if my English is difficult to understand. I am looking forward to hearing from you. Your faithfully, Theeranit

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • Navigation view system with webview problem with touches!

    - by Gonçalo Falcão
    Hello i have search everything and i didn't figure this out! I have a tab bar controller with 5 navigation controlls, in one of the navigation control, i have a view, with a table view inside, and when i click that item i push a new view, that view have view -webview -view i create that second view(is transperant) because i need to handle a single tap to hide my toolbar and navigation bar, and the webview was eating all the touches! I put that view and implement on the view controller -(void) touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 2){ [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 1){ [self performSelector:@selector(hideBars) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.3]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesCancelled:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; } wv is my UIWebView IBOutlet now i can get the the touches in my controller and send them to my webview. So i thought everything was working, i'm able to scroll, but now when i have links i'm not able to click them. And the webview is detecting the links i have made that test. So any other way to implements this to get the touches in the links, or i should change this workaround to hide the toolbars so i can have the full functionability of the webview? Thks for the help in advance.

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  • How do I detect whether the sample supplied by VideoSink.OnSample() is right-side up?

    - by Ken Smith
    We're currently using the Silverlight VideoSink to capture video from users' local webcams, kinda like so: protected override void OnSample(long sampleTime, long frameDuration, byte[] sampleData) { if (FrameShouldBeSubmitted()) { byte[] resampledData = ResizeFrame(sampleData); mediaController.SetVideoFrame(resampledData); } } Now, on most of the machines that we've tested, the video sample provided in the byte[] sampleData parameter is upside-down, i.e., if you try to take the RGBA data and turn it into, say, a WriteableBitmap, the bitmap will be upside-down. That's odd, but fairly easy to correct, of course -- you just have to reverse the array as you encode it. The problem is that at least on some machines (e.g., the single Macintosh in our test environment), the video sample provided is no longer upside-down, but right-side up, and hence, flipping the image actually results in an image that's received upside-down on the far side. I reported this to MS as a bug, but their (terse) response was that it was "As Designed". Further attempts at clarification have so far been ignored. Now, I'll grant that it's kinda entertaining to imagine the discussions behind this design decision: "OK, just to make it interesting, let's play the video rightside up on a Mac, but let's turn it upside down for Windows!" "Great idea!" "Yeah, that'll keep those developers guessing!" But beyond that, I can't find this, umm, "feature" documented anywhere, nor can I find any documentation on how one is supposed to be able to tell that a given video sample is upside down or rightside up. Any thoughts on how to tell this?

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  • The "first past the post election" query problem

    - by MPelletier
    This problem may seem like school work, but it isn't. At best it is self-imposed school work. I encourage any teachers to take is as an example if they wish. "First past the post" elections are single-round, meaning that whoever gets the most votes win, no second rounds. Suppose a table for an election. CREATE TABLE ElectionResults ( DistrictHnd INTEGER NOT NULL, PartyHnd INTEGER NOT NULL, CandidateName VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL, TotalVotes INTEGER NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY DistrictHnd, PartyHnd); The table has two foreign keys: DistrictHnd points to a District table (lists all the different electoral districts) and PartyHnd points to a Party table (lists all the different political parties). I won't bother with other tables here, joining them is trivial. This is just a wee bit of context. The question: What SQL query will return a table listing the DistrictHnd, PartyHnd, CandidateName and TotalVotes of the winners (max votes) in each District? This does not suppose any particular database system. If you wish to stick to a particular implementation of SQL, go the way of SQLite and MySQL. If you can devise a better schema (or an easier one), that is acceptable too. Criteria: simplicity, portability to other databases.

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  • Relational database data explorer / visualization?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Is there a tool that can let one browse relational data as a graph of connected nodes? For example, i'm faced with trying to cleanse some anomolous data. i can start with two offending rows. In this particular example, the TransactionID should, by business rules, be unique to the table, but i find a transaction that violates that rule: SELECT * FROM LCTTrans WHERE TransactionID = 1075048 LCTID TransactionID ========= ============= 4358 1075048 4359 1075048 2 row(s) affected But really what i want to begin to hunt down all the related data, to try to see which is right. So this hypothetical software would start by showing me these two rows: Next, i want to see that transaction that is linked into this table: Now that transaction points to an MAL, so show me that: Now lets add those two LCTs, that the transaction is "on". A transaction can be on only one LCT, yet this one is pointing to two: Okay computer, both of those LCTs point to an MAL and the transaction that created them, show me those: Those last two transactions, they also point at an MAL, and they themselves point to an LCT, show me those: Okay, now are there any entries in LCTTrans that point to LCTs 4358 or 4359?... And so on, and so on. Now i did all this manually, running single selects, copying and pasting uniqueidentifier keys and converting them into friendly id numbers so i could easily see the relationships. Is there software that can do this?

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  • Svn import with auto-props & pre-commit hook

    - by James Tisato
    My company's svn repo has a lot of MS Word docs in it. We've implemented a policy that all .doc files must have the svn:needs-lock property set to prevent parallel access on files that are hard to merge (we've also done this for xls, ppt, pdf etc.). We've implemented the policy by distributing a svn config with auto-props set appropriately for all relevant document types. We've also set up a pre-commit hook that checks that all added files of these types have the needs-lock property set (i.e. if they forget/are too lazy to update their svn config file, they won't be able to add any docs to the repo). The problem I'm having, however, is that the pre-commit hook fails when users try to import files into the repo, e.g. some users like to add files directly thru TortoiseSVN's Repo Browser, which effectively is an svn import. Through testing on other file types, I have seen that doing an import does in fact apply the auto-props listed in my config, but they don't seem to be applied at the point that the pre-commit hook runs. When importing .doc files, the hook fails, saying that the needs-lock property is missing. Is there really much difference between adding a single file to a working copy and committing it vs importing a file directly? Do we need to tailor our precommit hook in some way to cater for this scenario?

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  • Inserting instructions into method.

    - by Alix
    Hi, (First of all, this is a very lengthy post, but don't worry: I've already implemented all of it, I'm just asking your opinion.) I'm having trouble implementing the following; I'd appreciate some help: I get a Type as parameter. I define a subclass using reflection. Notice that I don't intend to modify the original type, but create a new one. I create a property per field of the original class, like so: [- ignore this text here; I had to add something or the formatting wouldn't work <-] public class OriginalClass { private int x; } public class Subclass : OriginalClass { private int x; public int X { get { return x; } set { x = value; } } } [This is number 4! Numbered lists don't work if you add code in between; sorry] For every method of the superclass, I create an analogous method in the subclass. The method's body must be the same except that I replace the instructions ldfld x with callvirt this.get_X, that is, instead of reading from the field directly I call the get accessor. I'm having trouble with step 4. I know you're not supposed to manipulate code like this, but I really need to. Here's what I've tried: Attempt #1: Use Mono.Cecil. This would allow me to parse the body of the method into human-readable Instructions, and easily replace instructions. However, the original type isn't in a .dll file, so I can't find a way to load it with Mono.Cecil. Writing the type to a .dll, then load it, then modify it and write the new type to disk (which I think is the way you create a type with Mono.Cecil), and then load it seems like a huge overhead. Attempt #2: Use Mono.Reflection. This would also allow me to parse the body into Instructions, but then I have no support for replacing instructions. I've implemented a very ugly and inefficient solution using Mono.Reflection, but it doesn't yet support methods that contain try-catch statements (although I guess I can implement this) and I'm concerned that there may be other scenarios in which it won't work, since I'm using the ILGenerator in a somewhat unusual way. Also, it's very ugly ;). Here's what I've done: private void TransformMethod(MethodInfo methodInfo) { // Create a method with the same signature. ParameterInfo[] paramList = methodInfo.GetParameters(); Type[] args = new Type[paramList.Length]; for (int i = 0; i < args.Length; i++) { args[i] = paramList[i].ParameterType; } MethodBuilder methodBuilder = typeBuilder.DefineMethod( methodInfo.Name, methodInfo.Attributes, methodInfo.ReturnType, args); ILGenerator ilGen = methodBuilder.GetILGenerator(); // Declare the same local variables as in the original method. IList<LocalVariableInfo> locals = methodInfo.GetMethodBody().LocalVariables; foreach (LocalVariableInfo local in locals) { ilGen.DeclareLocal(local.LocalType); } // Get readable instructions. IList<Instruction> instructions = methodInfo.GetInstructions(); // I first need to define labels for every instruction in case I // later find a jump to that instruction. Once the instruction has // been emitted I cannot label it, so I'll need to do it in advance. // Since I'm doing a first pass on the method's body anyway, I could // instead just create labels where they are truly needed, but for // now I'm using this quick fix. Dictionary<int, Label> labels = new Dictionary<int, Label>(); foreach (Instruction instr in instructions) { labels[instr.Offset] = ilGen.DefineLabel(); } foreach (Instruction instr in instructions) { // Mark this instruction with a label, in case there's a branch // instruction that jumps here. ilGen.MarkLabel(labels[instr.Offset]); // If this is the instruction that I want to replace (ldfld x)... if (instr.OpCode == OpCodes.Ldfld) { // ...get the get accessor for the accessed field (get_X()) // (I have the accessors in a dictionary; this isn't relevant), MethodInfo safeReadAccessor = dataMembersSafeAccessors[((FieldInfo) instr.Operand).Name][0]; // ...instead of emitting the original instruction (ldfld x), // emit a call to the get accessor, ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Callvirt, safeReadAccessor); // Else (it's any other instruction), reemit the instruction, unaltered. } else { Reemit(instr, ilGen, labels); } } } And here comes the horrible, horrible Reemit method: private void Reemit(Instruction instr, ILGenerator ilGen, Dictionary<int, Label> labels) { // If the instruction doesn't have an operand, emit the opcode and return. if (instr.Operand == null) { ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode); return; } // Else (it has an operand)... // If it's a branch instruction, retrieve the corresponding label (to // which we want to jump), emit the instruction and return. if (instr.OpCode.FlowControl == FlowControl.Branch) { ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, labels[Int32.Parse(instr.Operand.ToString())]); return; } // Otherwise, simply emit the instruction. I need to use the right // Emit call, so I need to cast the operand to its type. Type operandType = instr.Operand.GetType(); if (typeof(byte).IsAssignableFrom(operandType)) ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, (byte) instr.Operand); else if (typeof(double).IsAssignableFrom(operandType)) ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, (double) instr.Operand); else if (typeof(float).IsAssignableFrom(operandType)) ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, (float) instr.Operand); else if (typeof(int).IsAssignableFrom(operandType)) ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, (int) instr.Operand); ... // you get the idea. This is a pretty long method, all like this. } Branch instructions are a special case because instr.Operand is SByte, but Emit expects an operand of type Label. Hence the need for the Dictionary labels. As you can see, this is pretty horrible. What's more, it doesn't work in all cases, for instance with methods that contain try-catch statements, since I haven't emitted them using methods BeginExceptionBlock, BeginCatchBlock, etc, of ILGenerator. This is getting complicated. I guess I can do it: MethodBody has a list of ExceptionHandlingClause that should contain the necessary information to do this. But I don't like this solution anyway, so I'll save this as a last-resort solution. Attempt #3: Go bare-back and just copy the byte array returned by MethodBody.GetILAsByteArray(), since I only want to replace a single instruction for another single instruction of the same size that produces the exact same result: it loads the same type of object on the stack, etc. So there won't be any labels shifting and everything should work exactly the same. I've done this, replacing specific bytes of the array and then calling MethodBuilder.CreateMethodBody(byte[], int), but I still get the same error with exceptions, and I still need to declare the local variables or I'll get an error... even when I simply copy the method's body and don't change anything. So this is more efficient but I still have to take care of the exceptions, etc. Sigh. Here's the implementation of attempt #3, in case anyone is interested: private void TransformMethod(MethodInfo methodInfo, Dictionary<string, MethodInfo[]> dataMembersSafeAccessors, ModuleBuilder moduleBuilder) { ParameterInfo[] paramList = methodInfo.GetParameters(); Type[] args = new Type[paramList.Length]; for (int i = 0; i < args.Length; i++) { args[i] = paramList[i].ParameterType; } MethodBuilder methodBuilder = typeBuilder.DefineMethod( methodInfo.Name, methodInfo.Attributes, methodInfo.ReturnType, args); ILGenerator ilGen = methodBuilder.GetILGenerator(); IList<LocalVariableInfo> locals = methodInfo.GetMethodBody().LocalVariables; foreach (LocalVariableInfo local in locals) { ilGen.DeclareLocal(local.LocalType); } byte[] rawInstructions = methodInfo.GetMethodBody().GetILAsByteArray(); IList<Instruction> instructions = methodInfo.GetInstructions(); int k = 0; foreach (Instruction instr in instructions) { if (instr.OpCode == OpCodes.Ldfld) { MethodInfo safeReadAccessor = dataMembersSafeAccessors[((FieldInfo) instr.Operand).Name][0]; byte[] bytes = toByteArray(OpCodes.Callvirt.Value); for (int m = 0; m < OpCodes.Callvirt.Size; m++) { rawInstructions[k++] = bytes[put.Length - 1 - m]; } bytes = toByteArray(moduleBuilder.GetMethodToken(safeReadAccessor).Token); for (int m = instr.Size - OpCodes.Ldfld.Size - 1; m >= 0; m--) { rawInstructions[k++] = bytes[m]; } } else { k += instr.Size; } } methodBuilder.CreateMethodBody(rawInstructions, rawInstructions.Length); } private static byte[] toByteArray(int intValue) { byte[] intBytes = BitConverter.GetBytes(intValue); if (BitConverter.IsLittleEndian) Array.Reverse(intBytes); return intBytes; } private static byte[] toByteArray(short shortValue) { byte[] intBytes = BitConverter.GetBytes(shortValue); if (BitConverter.IsLittleEndian) Array.Reverse(intBytes); return intBytes; } (I know it isn't pretty. Sorry. I put it quickly together to see if it would work.) I don't have much hope, but can anyone suggest anything better than this? Sorry about the extremely lengthy post, and thanks.

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  • Hidden controls, iframes or divs

    - by user287745
    What happens to the controls or the iframe or the div, which are hidden? Do they get transferred to the user side? Disabled: does it get transferred to the user side? What I want is, an aspx page will be having many iframes to display different pages. There will be many div tags to display CSS formatted information. To understand what I mean by many:- I have to transfer a complete website with 30 aspx pages into one single page! I have simply combined everything resulting in one extremely huge page. My concern is that on local host it loads fast, but when on online server accessed by numerous people for education purposes, the site (ONE PAGE) WILL SLOW DOWN terribly. To overcome this I thought of using hidden and disable options. What is an improved way of achieving the above? Yes, it sounds silly but this is the requirement. Edit: Yes, I know id and server tag must be set, but what I am asking will the div tag be sent to the user's browser? One answer is no. So can I enable them using JavaScript? Like document.getElementById(id).style.visibility="visible" What if I disable them, and from coding of JavaScript enable them? Will they be loaded at the time of enabling?

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  • SEO on a Database Driven Website

    - by Ryan Giglio
    I have a question about a site I'm developing. It is a database driven directory site where people can make a profile and list themselves in one or many area codes and in one or many fields of work. When someone is looking for a person to hire, they enter one or more area codes to look in (or select them with checkboxes) and when the form submits, it saves these as a cookie so the site remembers what location you were searching in. You then narrow down your search by category and field (which are links) and get a listing of all the profiles that match your search. What I am concerned about is this: because a search engine can't type in or select area codes to search in, how is it going to find and index any of the profile pages? It doesn't allow the user to search for people without first selecting an area code, because there's no practical purpose to do so. There would also be no practical purpose from a user experience/usability standpoint of simply having a list of each area code as a link to the categories page, but as far as I know, isn't that the only way for search engines to see every person? How does a site like Facebook accomplish this? There isn't some sort of master directory with a link to ever single Facebook user's profile page, and yet they're often the #1 search result for a person's name.

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  • Trace PRISM / CAL events (best practice?)

    - by Christian
    Ok, this question is for people with either a deep knowledge of PRISM or some magic skills I just lack (yet). The Background is simple: Prism allows the declaration of events to which the user can subscribe or publish. In code this looks like this: _eventAggregator.GetEvent<LayoutChangedEvent>().Subscribe(UpdateUi, true); _eventAggregator.GetEvent<LayoutChangedEvent>().Publish("Some argument"); Now this is nice, especially because these events are strongly typed, and the declaration is a piece of cake: public class LayoutChangedEvent : CompositePresentationEvent<string> { } But now comes the hard part: I want to trace events in some way. I had the idea to subscribe using a lambda expression calling a simple log message. Worked perfectly in WPF, but in Silverlight there is some method access error (took me some time to figure out the reason).. If you want to see for yourself, try this in Silverlight: eA.GetEvent<VideoStartedEvent>().Subscribe(obj => TraceEvent(obj, "vSe", log)); If this would be possible, I would be happy, because I could easily trace all events using a single line to subscribe. But it does not... The alternative approach is writing a different functions for each event, and assign this function to the events. Why different functions? Well, I need to know WHICH event was published. If I use the same function for two different events I only get the payload as argument. I have now way to figure out which event caused the tracing message. I tried: using Reflection to get the causing event (not working) using a constructor in the event to enable each event to trace itself (not allowed) Any other ideas? Chris PS: Writing this text took me most likely longer than writing 20 functions for my 20 events, but I refuse to give up :-) I just had the idea to use postsharp, that would most likely work (although I am not sure, perhaps I end up having only information about the base class).. Tricky and so unimportant topic...

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  • Bloated PDF created by TCPDF

    - by Yogi Yang 007
    In a web app developed in PHP we are generating Quotations and Invoices (which are very simple and of single page) using TCPDF lib. The lib is working just great but it seems to generate very large PDF files. For example in our case it is generating PDF files as large as 4 MB (+/- a few KB). How to reduce this bloating of PDF files generated by TCPDF? Here is code snippet that I am using ob_start(); include('quote_view_bag_pdf.php'); //This file is valid HTML file with PHP code to insert data from DB $quote = ob_get_contents(); //Capture the content of 'quote_view_bag_pdf.php' file and store in variable ob_end_clean(); //Code to generate PDF file for this Quote //This line is to fix a few errors in tcpdf $k_path_url=''; require_once('tcpdf/config/lang/eng.php'); require_once('tcpdf/tcpdf.php'); // create new PDF document $pdf = new TCPDF(); // remove default header/footer $pdf->setPrintHeader(false); $pdf->setPrintFooter(false); // add a page $pdf->AddPage(); // print html formated text $pdf->writeHtml($quote, true, 0, true, 0); //Insert Variables contents here. //Build Out File Name $pdf_out_file = "pdf/Quote_".$_POST['quote_id']."_.pdf"; //Close and output PDF document $pdf->Output($pdf_out_file, 'F'); $pdf->Output($pdf_out_file, 'I'); /////////////// enter code here Hope this code fragment will give some idea?

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  • Android -Layout Manager not showing buttons

    - by Arun
    The following is my code. I want an interface where I have a single line textbox, a multiline textbox with 2 buttons below. I want the multiline textbox to occupy all the space available after rendering the buttons and textbox. For this I created two LinearLayouts inside the main layout. The first one has vertical orientation with layout_width set to fill_parent. The second one is horizontal with fill_parent again. The first one has a textbox for which I have set the layout_height to fill parent. The second one has two textboxes OK and Cancel. When I run this application I get the UI, but the Buttons are very small. I have to set the button height manually. What am I doing wrong here. I don't want to hard code the button height. <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1"> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Name"></TextView> <EditText android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"></EditText> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Contents"></TextView> <EditText android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="top" /> </LinearLayout> <LinearLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1"> <Button android:id="@+id/okbutt" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="OK" android:layout_weight="1" /> <Button android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:text="Cancel" android:layout_weight="1" /> </LinearLayout> Thanks, Arun

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  • C# Taking a element off each time (stack)

    - by Sef
    Greetings, Have a question considering a program that stimulates a stack.(not using any build in stack features or any such) stack2= 1 2 3 4 5 //single dimension array of 5 elements By calling up a method "pop" the stack should look like the following: Basically taking a element off each time the stack is being "called" up again. stack2= 1 2 3 4 0 stack2= 1 2 3 0 0 stack2= 1 2 0 0 0 stack2= 1 0 0 0 0 stack2= 0 0 0 0 0 - for (int i = 1; i <= 6; i++) { number= TryPop(s2); //use number ShowStack(s2, "s2"); } Basically I already have code that fills my array with values (trough a push method). The pop method should basically take the last value and place it on 0. Then calls up the next stack and place the following on 0 (like shown above in stack2). The current pop method that keeps track of the top index (0 elements = 0 top, 1 element = 1 top etc..). Already includes a underflow warning if this goes on 0 or below (which is correct). public int Pop() { if(top <= 0) { throw new Exception("Stack underflow..."); } else { for (int j = tabel.Length - 1; j >= 0; j--) { //...Really not sure what to do here. } } return number; }/*Pop*/ Since in the other class I already have a loop (for loop shown above) that simulates 6 times the s2 stack. (first stack: 1 2 3 4 0, second stack 1 2 3 0 0 and so on.) How exactly do I take a element off each time? Either I have the entire display on 0 or the 0 in the wrong places / out of index errors. Thanks in advance!

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  • how to combine widget webapp framework with SEO-friendly CSS and JS files

    - by Ali
    Hi guys, I'm writing a webapp using Zend framework and a homebrew widget system. Every widget has a controller and can choose to render one of many views if it chooses. This really helps us modularize and reconfigure and reuse the widgets anywhere on the site. The Problem is that the views of each widget contain their own JS and CSS code, which leads to very messy HTML code when the whole page is put together. You get pockets of style and script tags everywhere. This is bad for a lot of different reasons as I'm sure you know, but it has a profound effect on our SEO as well. Several solutions that I've been able to come up with: Separate the CSS and JS of every view of every widget into its own file - this has serious drawbacks for load times (many more resources have to be loaded separately) and it makes coding very difficult as now you have to have 3-4 files open just to edit a widget. combine the all the widget CSS into a single file (same with JS) - would also lead to a massive load when someone enters the site, mixes up the CSS and the JS for all widgets so it's harder to keep track of them, and other problems that I'm sure you can think of. Create a system that uses method 1 (separate CSS and JS for every widget), when delivering the page, stitches all CSS and JS together. This obviously needs more processing time and of course the creation of such a system, etc. My Question is what you guys think of these solutions or if there are pre-existing solutions that you know of (or any tech that might help) solve this problem. I really appreciate all of your thoughts and comments!! Thanks guys, Ali

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  • Fulltext search on many tables

    - by Rob
    I have three tables, all of which have a column with a fulltext index. The user will enter search terms into a single text box, and then all three tables will be searched. This is better explained with an example: documents doc_id name FULLTEXT table2 id doc_id a_field FULLTEXT table3 id doc_id another_field FULLTEXT (I realise this looks stupid but that's because I've removed all the other fields and tables to simplify it). So basically I want to do a fulltext search on name, a_field and another_field, and then show the results as a list of documents, preferably with what caused that document to be found, e.g. if another_field matched, I would display what another_field is. I began working on a system whereby three fulltext search queries are performed and the results inserted into a table with a structure like: search_results table_name row_id score (This could later be made to cache results for a few days with e.g. a hash of the search terms). This idea has two problems. The first is that the same document can be in the search results up to three times with different scores. Instead of that, if the search term is matched in two tables, it should have one result, but a higher score. The second is that parsing the results is difficult. I want to display a list of documents, but I don't immediately know the doc_id without a join of some kind; however the table to join to is dependant on the table_name column, and I'm not sure how to accomplish that. Wanting to search multiple related tables like this must be a common thing, so I guess what I'm asking is am I approaching this in the right way? Can someone tell me the best way of doing it please.

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  • jQuery ui datepicker positioning problem when scrolling down webpage

    - by Remnant
    I have a webpage that uses multiple instances of the jQuery ui datepicker. My webpage will display ~80 records which extends beyond a single screenshot. <% foreach (var record in Model) { %> <div class="recordname"><%=record.name%></div> <%=Html.TextBox("DateTimePicker", null, new { @class = "date-pick" } )%> // <-- additional html here --> <% } %> I have set the defaults of my datepicker as follows: $(".date-pick").each(function() { $(this).datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd M yy', showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Images/datepickericon.png', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); When the page first loads, if I click any datepicker icon that is visible on screen (i.e. without scrolling) then the datepicker appears as expected. However, if I scroll down the page and then click a datepicker icon, the datepicker does not appear in the screen window but is instead rendered right back near the top of the screen. Any ideas how to solve this? I am using: IE7 asp.net mvc jquery.ui.datepicker.js (UI/API/1.8/Datepicker)

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  • How to make comment reply query in MYSQL?

    - by Prashant
    I am having comment reply (only till one level) functionality. All comments can have as many as replies but no replies can have their further replies. So my database table structure is like below Id ParentId Comment 1 0 this is come sample comment text 2 0 this is come sample comment text 3 0 this is come sample comment text 4 1 this is come sample comment text 5 0 this is come sample comment text 6 3 this is come sample comment text 7 1 this is come sample comment text In the above structures, commentid, 1 (has 2 replies) and 3 (1 reply) has replies. So to fetch the comments and their replies, one simple method is first I fetch all the comments having ParentId as 0 and then by running a while loop fetch all the replies of that particular commentId. But that seems to be running hundreds of queries if I'll have around 200 comments on a particular record. So I want to make a query which will fetch Comments with their replies sequentially as following; Id ParentId Comment 1 0 this is come sample comment text 4 1 this is come sample comment text 7 1 this is come sample comment text 2 0 this is come sample comment text 3 0 this is come sample comment text 6 3 this is come sample comment text 5 0 this is come sample comment text I also have a comment date column in my comment table, if anyone wants to use this with comment query. So finally I want to fetch all the comments and their replies by using one single mysql query. Please tell me how I can do that? Thanks

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  • XML generation with java, trying to copy the whole node

    - by Pawel Mysior
    I've got an xml document that filled with people (parent node is "students", and there are 25+ "student" nodes). Each student looks like this: <student> <name></name> <surname></surname> <grades> <subject name=""> <small_grades></small_grades> <final_grade></final_grade> </subject> <subject name=""> <small_grades></small_grades> <final_grade></final_grade> </subject> </grades> <average></average> </student> Basically, what I want to do ('ve been asked to do) is to make a program that would get 3 students with the best average. While parsing the document and getting three best students isn't too difficult, the XML generation is a pain in the ass. Right now, what I'm doing is getting every single node from student and recreating it to a new file. Is there a way to copy the whole student node with everything that's in it? Regards, Paul

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  • Circular dependecy in winforms app using Castle Windsor

    - by Sven
    Hello, I was experimenting a little bit with Castle winforms in a winforms project. I wanted to register all my form dependencies with Castle windsor. This way I would have a single instance for all my forms. Now I have some problem though. I'm in a situation that form x has a dependency on form y and form y has a dependency on form x. Practical example maybe: form x is used to create an order, form y is the screen that has a list of customers. From form x there is a button to select a customer for the order. This will open form y where ou can search the customer. There is a button that lets you add the found customer to the order. It will call a method on form x and passes the selected customer object. I could do this with events. Raise an event in form y and listen for that in form x. But isn't there a way around the circular dependency in Castle Windsor, lazy registration or something? Can anyone help me out? Thanks in advance

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  • Why does trying to unit test with two .NET 4.0 assemblies under NUnit 2.5.4 fail?

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I have an MSBuild script that uses NUnit to run tests in two assemblies. These were on .NET Framework 3.5 and it worked perfectly for a long time. The command line was: (actual paths & names simplified) nunit-console tests1\bin\debug\tests1.dll tests2\bin\tests2.dll I've upgraded to VS2010 and have now made the two test assemblies target .NET 4.0. I've also upgraded to NUnit 2.5.4. I can unit test a single assembly with the following: nunit-console tests1\bin\debug\tests1.dll /framework=4.0.30319 It works fine with either tests1.dll or tests2.dll. If I try to specify both like before, it now fails. nunit-console tests1\bin\debug\tests1.dll tests2\bin\debug\tests2.dll /framework=4.0.30319 The error is: Could not load file or assembly 'tests2' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I've had a look in fuslogvw and it shows tests2 being searched for in the tests1\bin\debug and nunit-console folders. It never searches tests2\bin\debug even though it's specified on the command line. What's up with that?

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