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  • gdb reverse debugging error

    - by Werner
    Hi, i started to try reverse debugging with gdb 7, followin the tutorial: http://www.sourceware.org/gdb/wiki/ProcessRecord/Tutorial and I thought, great! Then I started to debug a real program which gives an error at the end. So I run it with gdb, and I put a breakpoint just before the place I think the error appears. Then I type "record" in order to start to recrd actions for future reverse-debugging. But after some steps I get Process record doesn't support instruction 0xf0d at address 0x2aaaab4c4b4e. Process record: failed to record execution log. Program received signal SIGTRAP, Trace/breakpoint trap. 0x00002aaaab4c4b4e in memcpy () from /lib64/libc.so.6 (gdb) n Single stepping until exit from function memcpy, which has no line number information. Process record doesn't support instruction 0xf0d at address 0x2aaaab4c4b4e. Process record: failed to record execution log. Program received signal SIGABRT, Aborted. 0x00002aaaab4c4b4e in memcpy () from /lib64/libc.so.6 Before I look at in in detail, I wonder if this feature is still buggy, or if I should start to record from the beginning. Where this "record" error happens, just an object is created as a copy of other: Thanks

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  • What programming hack from your past are you most ashamed of?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    We've all been there (usually when we are young and inexperienced). Fixing it properly is too difficult, too risky or too time-consuming. So you go down the hack path. Which hack from your past are you most ashamed of, and why? I'm talking about the ones where you would be really embarrassed if someone could attribute the hack to you (quite easily if you are using revision control software). One hack per answer please. Mine was shortly after I started in my first job. I was working on a legacy C system, and there was this strange defect where a screen view failed to update properly under certain circumstances. I wasn't familiar with how to use the debugger at this time, so I added traces into the code to figure out what was going on. Then I realised that the defect didn't occur anymore with the traces in the code. I slowly backed out the traces one-by-one, until I realised that only a single trace was required to make the problem go away. My logic now would tell me that I was dealing with some sort of race-condition or timing related issue that the trace just "hid under the rug". But I checked in the code with the following line, and all was well: printf(""); Which hacks are you ashamed of?

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  • Understanding CSRF - Simple Question

    - by byronh
    I know this might make me seem like an idiot, I've read everything there is to read about CSRF and I still don't understand how using a 'challenge token' would add any sort of prevention. Please help me clarify the basic concept, none of the articles and posts here on SO I read seemed to really explicitly state what value you're comparing with what. From OWASP: In general, developers need only generate this token once for the current session. After initial generation of this token, the value is stored in the session and is utilized for each subsequent request until the session expires. If I understand the process correctly, this is what happens. I log in at http://example.com and a session/cookie is created containing this random token. Then, every form includes a hidden input also containing this random value from the session which is compared with the session/cookie upon form submission. But what does that accomplish? Aren't you just taking session data, putting it in the page, and then comparing it with the exact same session data? Seems like circular reasoning. These articles keep talking about following the "same-origin policy" but that makes no sense, because all CSRF attacks ARE of the same origin as the user, just tricking the user into doing actions he/she didn't intend. Is there any alternative other than appending the token to every single URL as a query string? Seems very ugly and impractical, and makes bookmarking harder for the user.

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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • HTML form with multiple submit options

    - by phimuemue
    Hi, I'm trying to create a small web app that is used to remove items from a MySQL table. It just shows the items in a HTML table and for each item a button [delete]: item_1 [delete] item_2 [delete] ... item_N [delete] To achieve this, I dynamically generate the table via PHP into a HTML form. This form has then obviously N [delete]-buttons. The form should use the POST-method for transfering data. For the deletion I wanted to submit the ID (primary key in the MySQL table) of the corresponding item to the executing php skript. So I introduced hidden fields (all these fields have the name='ID' that store the ID of the corresponding item. However, when pressing an arbitrary [delete], it seems to submit always just the last ID (i.e. the value of the last ID hidden field). Is there any way to submit just the ID field of the corresponding item without using multiple forms? Or is it possible to submit data from multiple forms with just one submit-button? Or should I even choose any completly different way? The point why I want to do it in just one single form is that there are some "global" parameters that shall not be placed next to each item, but just once for the whole table.

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  • Is there a PHP benchmark that meets these specific criteria? [closed]

    - by Alex R
    I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The PHP source needs to be in a single file. It should solve a real-world problem. No silly looping over empty methods etc. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

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  • MySql scoping problem with correlated subqueries

    - by Rolf
    Hi, I'm having this Mysql query, It works: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m WHERE m.id = 37 The result is: nom prenom categories areas Man Multi Carpentry,Paint,Walls Beirut,Baalbak,Saida It works correclty, but only when i hardcode into the query the id that I want (37). I want it to work for all entries in the m3allem table, so I try this: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m And I get an error: Unknown column 'm.id' in 'where clause' Why? From the MySql manual: 13.2.8.7. Correlated Subqueries [...] Scoping rule: MySQL evaluates from inside to outside. So... do this not work when the subquery is in a SELECT section? I did not read anything about that. Does anyone know? What should I do? It took me a long time to build this query... I know it's a monster query but it gets what I want in a single query, and I am so close to getting it to work! Can anyone help?

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  • Python: OSX Library for fast full screen jpg/png display

    - by Parand
    Frustrated by lack of a simple ACDSee equivalent for OS X, I'm looking to hack one up for myself. I'm looking for a gui library that accommodates: Full screen image display High quality image fit-to-screen (for display) Low memory usage Fast display Reasonable learning curve (the simpler the better) Looks like there are several choices, so which is the best? Here are some I've run across: PyOpenGL PyGame PyQT wxpython I don't have any particular experience with any of these, nor any strong desire to become an expert - I'm looking for the simplest solution. What do you recommend? [Update] For those not familiar with ACDSee, here's what it does that I care about: Simple list/thubmnail display of images in a directory Sort by name/size/type Ability to view images full screen Single-key delete while viewing full screen Move to next/previous image while viewing full screen Ability to select a group of images for: move to / copy to directory delete resize ACDSee has a bunch of niceties as well, such as remembering directories you've moved images to in the past, remembering your resize settings, displaying the total size of the images you've selected, etc. I've tried most of the options I could find (including Xee) and none of them quite get there. Please keep in mind that this is a programming/library question, not a criticism of any of the existing tools.

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • ASP.NET MVC on GoDaddy Not Working (Not Primary Domain Deployment)

    - by JPrescottSanders
    I am trying to get ASP.NET MVC working on GoDaddy and I'm not having much luck. I have read the post on SO that covers the subject, but I must have a slightly different configuration or must be missing somehting along the way because the main MVC page comes up, but all links seem to fail and no amount of tweaking the URLs seems to get it to work. A little back ground. I have a single hosting plan with many domains pointed to sub folders of the main domain. Basic ASP.NET web forms pages work just fine, but of course I wanted to try and host a sample MVC site in one of these non-primary domains. You can go to the URL here. As you can see this first page comes up, but if you click on Home or About it doesn't work. Clicking on Home creates this link "http://www.jprescottsanders.com/jps/" and clicking on about creates this link "http://www.jprescottsanders.com/jps/Home/About". As you can see JPS sneaks in there, this of course is the sub folder that i place my web app files in. I would like to know if this is a MVC related issue or a GoDaddy issue. I suspect that MVC may want to sit in the root directory of the site, and when it puts the "jps" into the URLs it breaks the routing mechanisms (but this is conjecture). I know Dan said this was possible so I'm hoping he sees this and helps me get to the bottom of this deployment strategy for MVC.

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  • Creating .ics file from code sometimes givs "The file <filename>[<index>].ics" is not a valid intern

    - by KaJo
    Hi! I am building an ASP site where i use response.write to create an ics file where user can choose open or save dialog for the event. When the user choose open, outlook sometimes gives the error "The file [].ics" is not a valid internet Calender file"? It is always the same event that is written to the response. The code looks like this: this.Response.ContentType = "text/calendar"; this.Response.AddHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache, must-revalidate"); this.Response.AddHeader("Pragma", "no-cache"); this.Response.Expires = -1; this.Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", string.Format("attachment; filename={0}.ics",filename)); this.Response.Write("BEGIN:VCALENDAR"); this.Response.Write("\nVERSION:2.0"); this.Response.Write("\nMETHOD:PUBLISH"); this.Response.Write("\nBEGIN:VEVENT"); this.Response.Write("\nType:Single Meeting"); this.Response.Write("\nORGANIZER:MAILTO:" + organizer); this.Response.Write("\nDTSTART:" + startDate.ToUniversalTime().ToString(DateFormat)); this.Response.Write("\nDTEND:" + endDate.ToUniversalTime().ToString(DateFormat)); this.Response.Write("\nLOCATION:" + location); this.Response.Write("\nUID:" + Guid.NewGuid().ToString()); this.Response.Write("\nDTSTAMP:" + DateTime.Now.ToUniversalTime().ToString(DateFormat)); this.Response.Write("\nSUMMARY:" + summary); this.Response.Write("\nDESCRIPTION:" + description); this.Response.Write("\nPRIORITY:5"); this.Response.Write("\nCLASS:PUBLIC"); this.Response.Write("\nEND:VEVENT"); this.Response.Write("\nEND:VCALENDAR"); this.Response.End(); I usually get the error the first time I try to open the event in outlook, and the it works the second time? Does anyone knows how to solve this problem?

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  • SharePoint Designer Workflow: Unruly 'Collect User Data' Action

    - by Jeremy
    I'm a student in a SharePoint class online. This problem has riddled everyone I've discussed it with, including the teacher. There seems to be some sort of problem when I create a workflow with the collect data action. I can create workflows that send e-mails and use the other actions just fine. What could be causing this problem? My reproduction steps are simple: Create a new Site Collection with the Blank Site template. Create a new Custom List. In SharePoint Designer, start a new workflow on the Custom List. Add the collect data action to the workflow. Set the user to the one that created the task. Set the data to anything. A single check box, a string, Choice, doesn't matter. Leave the output variable as default. Mystery error appears! When the Check Workflow button is pressed, nothing happens. No message box appears at all. The warning icon in the Steps panel merely points out that there are some errors, it isn't specific as to what they are. Additionally, when I click on the data object again after it's been created, it doesn't populate the form with the old values. It goes back to the default name with no fields. So there's definitely something going wrong here. I've narrowed the problem down to the data object, but I don't know what to do about it. The workflow acts like normal for other activities. For example, delete the Collect Data action and add a Send Email one instead and it compiles and runs successfully.

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  • LINQ to SQL and DataPager

    - by Jonathan S.
    I'm using LINQ to SQL to search a fairly large database and am unsure of the best approach to perform paging with a DataPager. I am aware of the Skip() and Take() methods and have those working properly. However, I'm unable to use the count of the results for the datapager, as they will always be the page size as determined in the Take() method. For example: var result = (from c in db.Customers where c.FirstName == "JimBob" select c).Skip(0).Take(10); This query will always return 10 or fewer results, even if there are 1000 JimBobs. As a result, the DataPager will always think there's a single page, and users aren't able to navigate across the entire result set. I've seen one online article where the author just wrote another query to get the total count and called that. Something like: int resultCount = (from c in db.Customers where c.FirstName == "JimBob" select c).Count(); and used that value for the DataPager. But I'd really rather not have to copy and paste every query into a separate call where I want to page the results for obvious reasons. Is there an easier way to do this that can be reused across multiple queries? Thanks.

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  • sybase - fails to use index unless string is hard-coded

    - by Garrett
    I'm using Sybase 12.5.3 (ASE); I'm new to Sybase though I've worked with MSSQL pretty extensively. I'm running into a scenario where a stored procedure is really very slow. I've traced the issue to a single SELECT stmt for a relatively large table. Modifying that statement dramatically improves the performance of the procedure (and reverting it drastically slows it down; i.e., the SELECT stmt is definitely the culprit). -- Sybase optimizes and uses multi-column index... fast!<br> SELECT ID,status,dateTime FROM myTable WHERE status in ('NEW','SENT') ORDER BY ID -- Sybase does not use index and does very slow table scan<br> SELECT ID,status,dateTime FROM myTable WHERE status in (select status from allowableStatusValues) ORDER BY ID The code above is an adapted/simplified version of the actual code. Note that I've already tried recompiling the procedure, updating statistics, etc. I have no idea why Sybase ASE would choose an index only when strings are hard-coded and choose a table scan when choosing from another table. Someone please give me a clue, and thank you in advance.

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  • SubSonic 3.0 Simple Repository Adding a DateTime Property To An Object

    - by Blounty
    I am trying out SubSonic to see if it is viable to use on production projects. I seem to have stumbled upon an issue whith regards to updating the database with default values (String and DateTime) when a new column is created. If a new property of DateTime or String is added to an object. public class Bug { public int BugId { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Overview { get; set; } public DateTime TrackedDate { get; set; } public DateTime RemovedDate { get; set; } } When the code to add that type of object to the database is run var repository = new SimpleRepository(SimpleRepositoryOptions.RunMigrations); repository.Add(new Bug() { Title = "A Bug", Overview = "An Overview", TrackedDate = DateTime.Now }); it creates the following sql: UPDATE Bugs SET RemovedDate=''01/01/1900 00:00:00'' For some reason it is adding double 2 single quotes to each end of the string or DateTime. This is causing the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException - Incorrect syntax near '01' I am connecting to SQL Server 2005 Any help would be appreicated as apart from this issue i am finding SubSonic to be a great product. I have created a screen cast of my error here:

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  • EOL Special Char not matching

    - by Aurélien Ribon
    Hello, I am trying to find every "a - b, c, d" pattern in an input string. The pattern I am using is the following : "^[ \t]*(\\w+)[ \t]*->[ \t]*(\\w+)((?:,[ \t]*\\w+)*)$" This pattern is a C# pattern, the "\t" refers to a tabulation (its a single escaped litteral, intepreted by the .NET String API), the "\w" refers to the well know regex litteral predefined class, double escaped to be interpreted as a "\w" by the .NET STring API, and then as a "WORD CLASS" by the .NET Regex API. The input is : a -> b b -> c c -> d The function is : private void ParseAndBuildGraph(String input) { MatchCollection mc = Regex.Matches(input, "^[ \t]*(\\w+)[ \t]*->[ \t]*(\\w+)((?:,[ \t]*\\w+)*)$", RegexOptions.Multiline); foreach (Match m in mc) { Debug.WriteLine(m.Value); } } The output is : c -> d Actually, there is a problem with the line ending "$" special char. If I insert a "\r" before "$", it works, but I thought "$" would match any line termination (with the Multiline option), especially a \r\n in a Windows environment. Is it not the case ?

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  • Can someone copyright an SQL query?

    - by Samutz
    I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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  • Java operator overloading

    - by nimcap
    Not using operators makes my code obscure. (aNumber / aNother) * count is better than aNumber.divideBy(aNother).times(count) After 6 months of not writing a single comment I had to write a comment to the simple operation above. Usually I refactor until I don't need comment. And this made me realize that it is easier to read and perceive math symbols and numbers than their written forms. For example TWENTY_THOUSAND_THIRTEEN.plus(FORTY_TWO.times(TWO_HUNDERED_SIXTY_ONE)) is more obscure than 20013 + 42*261 So do you know a way to get rid of obscurity while not using operator overloading in Java? Update: I did not think my exaggeration on comments would cause such trouble to me. I am admitting that I needed to write comment a couple of times in 6 months. But not more than 10 lines in total. Sorry for that. Update 2: Another example: budget.plus(bonusCoefficient.times(points)) is more obscure than budget + bonusCoefficient * points I have to stop and think on the first one, at first sight it looks like clutter of words, on the other hand, I get the meaning at first look for the second one, it is very clear and neat. I know this cannot be achieved in Java but I wanted to hear some ideas about my alternatives.

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  • DQL delete from multiple tables (doctrine)

    - by singer
    Need to perform DQL delete from multple related tables. In SQL it is something like this: DELETE r1,r2 FROM ComRealty_objects r1, com_realty_objects_phones r2 WHERE r1.id IN (10,20) AND r2.id_object IN (10,20) I need to perform this statement using DQL, but I'm stuck on this :( <?php $dql = Doctrine_Query::create() ->delete('phones, comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjects comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjectsPhones phones') ->whereIn("comrealtyobjects.id", $ids) ->whereIn("phones.id_object", $ids); echo($dql->getSqlQuery()); ?> But DQL parser gives me this result: DELETE FROM `com_realty_objects_phones`, `ComRealty_objects` WHERE (`id` IN (?) AND `id_object` IN (?)) Searching google and stack overflow I found this(useful) topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2247905/what-is-the-syntax-for-a-multi-table-delete-on-a-mysql-database-using-doctrine But this is not exactly my case - there was delete from single table. If there is a way to override dql parser behaviour? Or maybe some other way to delete records from multiple tables using doctrine. Note: If you are using doctrine behaviours(Doctrine_Record_Generator) you need first to initialize those tables using Doctrine_Core::initializeModels() to perform DQL operations on them.

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  • Is it possible to alternate between two types in an XML Schema

    - by lief79
    I'm wondering if I am missing something obvious. I have a list of numbers, possibly including ranges (think of the print page option of a print dialog). Ideally I'd like to have the final XML output look like this, with page and pageRange in an order. <pages> <page> 1</page> <pageRange><start>3</start><end>6</end></pageRange> <page> 34</page> </pages> What would I have to put into a schema to allow this? From what I saw: Sequence with multiple page and page Range allowed doesn't permit alternation. Choice only allows one or the other. I tried messing with all, but I wasn't getting it to validate properly. My short term solution is to have a sequence of ranges, and to force single numbers into the range, but it seems potentially cumbersome. So am I missing something?

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  • java class creation dynamically and make it accessible across the network different jvms i.e. serial

    - by inj.rav
    Hi. I have a requirement of creating java classes dynamically and make it accessible different jvms across the network. I tried to use reflection and javassist tool,but nothing worked. Let me explain the scenario we are using Coherence distributed cache. It has a power of doing aggregation/filtering in parallel across the cluster. For example if a class has [dynamic class] has amount variable and getAmount/setAmount methods. Then if we execute COHERENCE queries, it will start process in parallel across the cluster. I tried to create classes at run time by using javassist and reflection. I am able to access it from single JVM, but when I tried to access the same class from other jvm [through coherence cluster]. I am getting exception of class not found [as remote jvm is not having idea of this class].I can over come this by creating same class dynamically on remote jvm also and access the methods. But coherence in built methods/functions are not able to find the class. could some one help me on this matter

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  • javascript to reference input IDs in php loop and pass values back to same input ID

    - by Smudger
    I have a form which is essentially an autocomplete input box. I can get this to work perfectly for a single text box. What I need to do is create unique input boxes by using a php for loop. This will use the counter $i to give each input box a unique name and id. The problem is that the unique value of the input box needs to be passed to the javascript. this will then pass the inputted data to the external php page and return the mysql results. As mentioned I have this working for a single input box but need assistance with passing the correct values to the javascript and returning it to correct input box. existing code for working solution (first row works only, all other rows update first row input box) <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(inputString) { if(inputString.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions').hide(); } else { $.post("autocompleteperson.php", {queryString: ""+inputString+""}, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions').show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList').html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(thisValue) { $('#inputString').val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions').hide();", 200); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" id="form1" action="addepartment.php" method="post"> <table> <? for ( $i = 1; $i <=10; $i++ ) { ?> <tr> <td> <? echo $i; ?></td> <td> <div> <input type="text" size="30" value="" id="inputString" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);" onblur="fill();" /> </div> <div class="suggestionsBox" id="suggestions" style="display: none;"> <img src="upArrow.png" style="position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px;" alt="upArrow" /> <div class="suggestionList" id="autoSuggestionsList"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </td> </tr> <? } ?> </table> </body> </html> code for autocompleteperson.php is: $query = $db->query("SELECT fullname FROM Persons WHERE fullname LIKE '$queryString%' LIMIT 10"); if($query) { while ($result = $query ->fetch_object()) { echo '<li onClick="fill(\''.$result->fullname.'\');">'.$result->fullname.'</li>'; } } in order to get it to work for all rows, I include the counter $i in each of the file names as below: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(inputString<? echo $i; ?>) { if(inputString<? echo $i; ?>.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions<? echo $i; ?>').hide(); } else { $.post("autocompleteperson.php", {queryString: ""+inputString<? echo $i; ?>+""}, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions<? echo $i; ?>').show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList<? echo $i; ?>').html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(thisValue) { $('#inputString<? echo $i; ?>').val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions<? echo $i; ?>').hide();", 200); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" id="form1" action="addepartment.php" method="post"> <table> <? for ( $i = 1; $i <=10; $i++ ) { ?> <tr> <td> <? echo $i; ?></td> <td> <div> <input type="text" size="30" value="" id="inputString<? echo $i; ?>" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);" onblur="fill();" /> </div> <div class="suggestionsBox" id="suggestions<? echo $i; ?>" style="display: none;"> <img src="upArrow.png" style="position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px;" alt="upArrow" /> <div class="suggestionList" id="autoSuggestionsList<? echo $i; ?>"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </td> </tr> <? } ?> </table> </body> </html> The autocomplete suggestion works (although always shown on first row) but when selecting the data always returns to row 1, even if input was on row 5. I have a feeling this has to do with the fill() but not sure? is it due the the autocomplete page code? or does the fill referencing ThisValue have something to do with it. example of this page (as above) can be found here Thanks for the assistance, much appreciated. UPDATE - LOLO <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(i, inputString) { if(inputValue.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions' + i).hide(); } else { $.post("autocompleteperson.php", {queryString: ""+inputString+""}, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions' + i).show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList' + i).html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(i, thisValue) { $('#inputString' + i).val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions' + i).hide();", 200); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" id="form1" action="addepartment.php" method="post"> <table> <? for ( $i = 1; $i <=10; $i++ ) { ?> <tr> <td> <? echo $i; ?></td> <td> <div> <input type="text" size="30" value="" id="inputString<?php echo $i; ?>" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);" onblur="fill();" /> </div> <div class="suggestionsBox" id="suggestions<? echo $i; ?>" style="display: none;"> <img src="upArrow.png" style="position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px;" alt="upArrow" /> <div class="suggestionList" id="autoSuggestionsList<? echo $i; ?>"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </td> </tr> <? } ?> </table> </body> </html> google chrome catched the following errors: first line on input, second line on loosing focus

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  • nServiceBus - No all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

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  • Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

    - by zoul
    Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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