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  • zend_navigation and modules

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi, I am developing an application at the moment with zend and I have seperated the app into modules. The default module is the main site where unlogged in users access and have free reign to look around. When you log in, depending on the user type you either go to module A or module B, which is controlled by simple ACLs. If you have access to Module A you can not access Module B and visa versa. Both user types can see the default module. Now I want to use Zend_Navigation to manage the entire applications navigation in all modules. I am not sure how to go about this, as all the examples that I have seen work within a module or very simple application. I've tried to have my navigation.xml file look like this: <configdata> <navigation> <label>Home</label> <controller>index</controller> <action>index</action> <module>default</module> <pages> <tour> <label>tour</label> <controller>tour</controller> <action>index</action> <module>default</module> </tour> <blog> <label>blog</label> <url>http://blog.mysite.com</url> </blog> <support> <label>Support</label> <controller>support</controller> <action>index</action> <module>default</module> </support> </pages> </navigation> </configdata> This if fine for the default module, but how would I go about the other modules to this navigation page? Each module has it's own home page, and others etc. Would I be better off adding a unique navigation.xml file for each module that is loaded in the preDispatch plugin that I have written to handle my ACLs?? Or keep them in one massive navigation file? Any tips would be fantastic. Thanks, Grant

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  • Resolve Wrong IP from Domain Name only on certain networks

    - by Godric Seer
    I host a personal website on an old desktop that is LAMP based. There are several strange things about this problem so I will break it down into steps. Since I have a dynamic IP, I use no-ip to make sure I have a working domain name at all times. I use the automatic update client, but logged in and checked and my no-ip domain has the proper IP tied to it. Here is a link to the homepage through the no-ip domain for reference. Also, I do a ping and a traceroute on the no-ip domain and get: [eckertzs@localhost ~]$ ping -c 1 endradil.noip.me PING endradil.noip.me (65.24.215.99) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from endradil.noip.me (65.24.215.99): icmp_seq=1 ttl=64 time=2.23 ms --- endradil.noip.me ping statistics --- 1 packets transmitted, 1 received, 0% packet loss, time 104ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 2.233/2.233/2.233/0.000 ms [eckertzs@localhost ~]$ traceroute endradil.noip.me traceroute to endradil.noip.me (65.24.215.99), 30 hops max, 60 byte packets 1 . (192.168.2.1) 1.755 ms 5.409 ms 5.380 ms 2 endradil.noip.me (65.24.215.99) 6.297 ms 9.543 ms 10.324 ms Using this domain, I can connect to my webserver without issue or interruption(the https is required to avoid a redirect serverside, but it works). I also have a domain I have bought on GoDaddy where I have a CNAME record forwarding the www subdomain to my no-ip domain. CNAME Record Host: www Points to: endradil.noip.me TTL: 1 hour For the past several weeks, I never had an issue using the GoDaddy domain to connect (ssh or https). As of the past few days, however, the GoDaddy domain has only worked intermittently, for a few minutes at a time and then will go down for hours at a time. I get server not found errors most of the time. Also, if I happen to be using the GoDaddy domain for an ssh connection, the connection will freeze. I have run online tests of the DNS and have seen that the website is visible by external servers and resolved to the correct IP. I also contacted GoDaddy support but they had no issues connecting to the website, and therefore did not see any issues. My personal computers (Windows desktop, linux laptop, android phone) all fail to connect when on my personal wifi. If I disconnect my phone from the wifi and use my AT&T wireless data, it can connect with both domains without issue. When I attempt to use Google webmaster tools to crawl the site using the GoDaddy domain, Google can not find the site. From my linux laptop, I have found some interesting results when I ping or traceroute the domain. The results from these: [eckertzs@localhost ~]$ ping -c 1 www.endradil.com PING www.endradil.com.Belkin (198.105.244.228) 56(84) bytes of data. --- www.endradil.com.Belkin ping statistics --- 1 packets transmitted, 0 received, 100% packet loss, time 10000ms [eckertzs@localhost ~]$ traceroute www.endradil.com traceroute to www.endradil.com (198.105.244.228), 30 hops max, 60 byte packets 1 . (192.168.2.1) 1.918 ms 2.806 ms 2.772 ms 2 cpe-65-24-208-1.insight.res.rr.com (65.24.208.1) 29.247 ms 29.654 ms 30.094 ms 3 cpe-69-23-24-117.new.res.rr.com (69.23.24.117) 15.597 ms 23.218 ms 23.581 ms 4 agg24.clmcohib01r.midwest.rr.com (65.29.1.52) 30.581 ms 30.556 ms 31.192 ms 5 be27.clevohek01r.midwest.rr.com (65.29.1.38) 30.580 ms 31.062 ms 31.038 ms 6 bu-ether25.atlngamq47w-bcr01.tbone.rr.com (107.14.19.38) 37.863 ms 68.844 ms 43.773 ms 7 107.14.17.178 (107.14.17.178) 51.866 ms 51.019 ms 50.989 ms 8 ae0.pr1.dca10.tbone.rr.com (107.14.17.200) 48.467 ms ae-4-0.a0.lax91.tbone.rr.com (66.109.1.113) 49.912 ms * 9 v413.core1.ash1.he.net (209.51.175.33) 60.270 ms 50.842 ms 50.819 ms 10 100ge5-1.core1.nyc4.he.net (184.105.223.166) 55.597 ms 56.045 ms 56.020 ms 11 xerocole-inc.10gigabitethernet12-4.core1.nyc4.he.net (216.66.41.242) 56.001 ms 55.969 ms 55.992 ms 12 * * * both show the incorrect IP. Also, the traceroute timesout on hops 12 through 255 (output truncated above). The traceroute using site24x7 works and shows reasonable results when run from their california server. From another linux box on a different network but in the same city as me (10 miles away), I still get timeout for traceroute, however the IP resolves correctly for the domain. From this I believe that the DNS result is incorrectly cached in either my router/modem or perhaps even at my ISP level. My question is, first, how do I find out exactly what is wrong, and second, how do I resolve it.

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  • About fork system call and global variables

    - by lurks
    I have this program in C++ that forks two new processes: #include <pthread.h> #include <iostream> #include <unistd.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/wait.h> #include <cstdlib> using namespace std; int shared; void func(){ extern int shared; for (int i=0; i<10;i++) shared++; cout<<"Process "<<getpid()<<", shared " <<shared<<", &shared " <<&shared<<endl; } int main(){ extern int shared; pid_t p1,p2; int status; shared=0; if ((p1=fork())==0) {func();exit(0);}; if ((p2=fork())==0) {func();exit(0);}; for(int i=0;i<10;i++) shared++; waitpid(p1,&status,0); waitpid(p2,&status,0);; cout<<"shared variable is: "<<shared<<endl; cout<<"Process "<<getpid()<<", shared " <<shared<<", &shared " <<&shared<<endl; } The two forked processes make an increment on the shared variables and the parent process does the same. As the variable belongs to the data segment of each process, the final value is 10 because the increment is independent. However, the memory address of the shared variables is the same, you can try compiling and watching the output of the program. How can that be explained ? I cannot understand that, I thought I knew how the fork() works, but this seems very odd.. I need an explanation on why the address is the same, although they are separate variables.

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  • Java: repetition, overuse -- ?

    - by HH
    I try to be as minimalist as possible. Repetition is a problem. I hate it. When is it really a problem? what is static-overuse? what is field-method overuse? what is class-overuse? are there more types of overuse? Problem A: when it is too much to use of static? private static class Data { private static String fileContent; private static SizeSequence lineMap; private static File fileThing; private static char type; private static boolean binary; private static String name; private static String path; } private static class Print { //<1st LINE, LEFT_SIDE, 2nd LINE, RIGHT_SIDE> private Integer[] printPositions=new Integer[4]; private static String fingerPrint; private static String formatPrint; } Problem B: when it is too much to get field data with private methods? public Stack<Integer> getPositions(){return positions;} public Integer[] getPrintPositions(){return printPositions;} private Stack<String> getPrintViews(){return printViews;} private Stack<String> getPrintViewsPerFile(){return printViewsPerFile;} public String getPrintView(){return printView;} public String getFingerPrint(){return fingerPrint;} public String getFormatPrint(){return formatPrint;} public String getFileContent(){return fileContent;} public SizeSequence getLineMap(){return lineMap;} public File getFile(){return fileThing;} public boolean getBinary(){return binary;} public char getType(){return type;} public String getPath(){return path;} public FileObject getData(){return fObj;} public String getSearchTerm(){return searchTerm;} Related interface overuse

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  • Fixing up an entity framework query

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • KVM Virtual guest Paused on Reboot

    - by David Hamilton
    I'm running REHL 6 and just installed a Ubuntu Server Guest via KVM set to start at boot. This works correctly and the guest loads, but it loads "paused" and requires that I manually un-pause it. Can someone give me a hint as to how I can I get the Guest OS to actually become active on boot? Here is the libvert dump as requested...Also tried libvert auto-start --- no effect. <domain type='kvm' id='1'> <name>MailServer</name> <uuid>a61dae75-1f5c-d536-718f-3c615d9b4868</uuid> <memory>4194304</memory> <currentMemory>4194304</currentMemory> <vcpu>4</vcpu> <os> <type arch='x86_64' machine='rhel6.0.0'>hvm</type> <boot dev='hd'/> </os> <features> <acpi/> <apic/> <pae/> </features> <clock offset='utc'/> <on_poweroff>destroy</on_poweroff> <on_reboot>restart</on_reboot> <on_crash>restart</on_crash> <devices> <emulator>/usr/libexec/qemu-kvm</emulator> <disk type='file' device='disk'> <driver name='qemu' type='raw' cache='none'/> <source file='/home/MailServer/MailServer-1.img'/> <target dev='hda' bus='ide'/> <alias name='ide0-0-0'/> <address type='drive' controller='0' bus='0' unit='0'/> </disk> <disk type='block' device='cdrom'> <driver name='qemu' type='raw'/> <target dev='hdc' bus='ide'/> <readonly/> <alias name='ide0-1-0'/> <address type='drive' controller='0' bus='1' unit='0'/> </disk> <controller type='ide' index='0'> <alias name='ide0'/> <address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x01' function='0x1'/> </controller> <interface type='bridge'> <mac address='52:54:00:cd:f9:9f'/> <source bridge='br0'/> <target dev='vnet0'/> <model type='virtio'/> <alias name='net0'/> <address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x03' function='0x0'/> </interface> <serial type='pty'> <source path='/dev/pts/1'/> <target port='0'/> <alias name='serial0'/> </serial> <console type='pty' tty='/dev/pts/1'> <source path='/dev/pts/1'/> <target port='0'/> <alias name='serial0'/> </console> <input type='mouse' bus='ps2'/> <graphics type='vnc' port='5900' autoport='yes'/> <sound model='ac97'> <alias name='sound0'/> <address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x04' function='0x0'/> </sound> <video> <model type='cirrus' vram='9216' heads='1'/> <alias name='video0'/> <address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x02' function='0x0'/> </video> <memballoon model='virtio'> <alias name='balloon0'/> <address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x05' function='0x0'/> </memballoon> </devices> <seclabel type='dynamic' model='selinux'> <label>system_u:system_r:svirt_t:s0:c211,c271</label> <imagelabel>system_u:object_r:svirt_image_t:s0:c211,c271</imagelabel> </seclabel></domain>

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  • HttpClient response handler always returns closed stream

    - by Alex Ciminian
    I'm new to Java development so please bear with me. Also, I hope I'm not the champion of tl;dr :). I'm using HttpClient to make requests over Http (duh!) and I'd gotten it to work for a simple servlet that receives an URL as a query string parameter. I realized that my code could use some refactoring, so I decided to make my own HttpResponseHandler, to clean up the code, make it reusable and improve exception handling. I currently have something like this: public class HttpResponseHandler implements ResponseHandler<InputStream>{ public InputStream handleResponse(HttpResponse response) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { int statusCode = response.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(); InputStream in = null; if (statusCode != HttpStatus.SC_OK) { throw new HttpResponseException(statusCode, null); } else { HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if (entity != null) { in = entity.getContent(); // This works // for (int i;(i = in.read()) >= 0;) System.out.print((char)i); } } return in; } } And in the method where I make the actual request: HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(target); ResponseHandler<InputStream> httpResponseHandler = new HttpResponseHandler(); try { InputStream in = httpclient.execute(httpget, httpResponseHandler); // This doesn't work // for (int i;(i = in.read()) >= 0;) System.out.print((char)i); return in; } catch (HttpResponseException e) { throw new HttpResponseException(e.getStatusCode(), null); } The problem is that the input stream returned from the handler is closed. I don't have any idea why, but I've checked it with the prints in my code (and no, I haven't used them both at the same time :). While the first print works, the other one gives a closed stream error. I need InputStreams, because all my other methods expect an InputStream and not a String. Also, I want to be able to retrieve images (or maybe other types of files), not just text files. I can work around this pretty easily by giving up on the response handler (I have a working implementation that doesn't use it), but I'm pretty curious about the following: Why does it do what it does? How do I open the stream, if something closes it? What's the right way to do this, anyway :)? I've checked the docs and I couldn't find anything useful regarding this issue. To save you a bit of Googling, here's the Javadoc and here's the HttpClient tutorial (Section 1.1.8 - Response handlers). Thanks, Alex

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  • jQuery sortable Div's

    - by kai lange
    is it possible to sort direct between two or more div's/boxe's and return the complete data (var order = ...) ? Online Demo: http://jsbin.com/alegu4 <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>jQuery Dynamic Drag'n Drop</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://cdn.jquerytools.org/1.2.5/jquery.tools.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.8/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <style> body { font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; margin-top: 10px; } ul { margin: 0; } #s1,#s2 { float: left; width: 400px; } #s1 li,#s2 li { list-style: none; margin: 0 0 4px 0; padding: 10px; background-color:#00CCCC; border: #CCCCCC solid 1px; color:#fff; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(function() { $("#s1 ul,#s2 ul").sortable({ opacity: 0.6, cursor: 'move', update: function() { var order = $(this).sortable("serialize") + '&action=updateRecordsListings'; //$.post("updateDB.php", order); alert(order); } }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="box"> <div class="box" id="s1"> <ul> <li id="recordsArray_1">1. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur</li> <li id="recordsArray_2">2. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur</li> <li id="recordsArray_3">3. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur</li> <li id="recordsArray_4">4. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur</li> </ul> </div> <div class="box" id="s2"> <ul> <li id="recordsArray_5">5. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur</li> <li id="recordsArray_6">6. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur</li> <li id="recordsArray_7">7. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur</li> <li id="recordsArray_8">8. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur</li> </ul> </div> </div> </body> </html> Please note it's not the same like my other post - thanks!

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  • Visual Studio soft-crashing when encountering XAML Errors in initialize.

    - by Aren
    I've been having some serious issues with Visual Studio 2010 as of late. It's been crashing in a peculiar way when I encounter certain types of XAML errors during the InitializeComponent() of a control/window. The program breaks and visual studio gears up like it's catching an exception (because it is) and then stops midway displaying a broken highlight in my XAML file with no details as to what is wrong. Example: There is not pop outs, or details Anywhere about what is wrong, only a callstack that points to my InitializeComponent() call. Now normally I'd just do some trial and error to fix this problem, and find out where i messed up, but the real problem isn't my code. Visual Studio is rendered completely useless at this point. It reports my application still in "Running" mode. The Stop/Break/Restart buttons on the toolbar or in the menus don't do anything (but grey out). Closing the application does not stop this behaviour, closing visual studio gets it stuck in a massive loop where it yells at me complaining every file open is not in the debug project, then repeats this process when i have exausted every open file. I have to force-close devenv.exe, and after this happening 3-4 times in a row it's a lot of wasted time (as my projects are usually pretty big and studio can be quite slow @ loading). To the point Has anyone else experienced this? How can I stop studio from locking up. Can I at LEAST get information out of this beast another way so i can fix my XAML error sooner rather than after 3-4 trial-and-error compiles yielding the same crash? Any & All help would be appreciated. Visual Studio 2010 version: 10.0.30319.1RTM Edit & Update FWIW, mostly the errors that cause this are XamlParseExceptions (I figured this out after i found what was wrong with my XAML). I think I need to be clearer though, Im not looking for the solution to my code problem, as these are usually typos / small things, I'm looking for a solution to VStudio getting all buggered up as a result. The particular error in the above image that 100% for sure caused this was a XamlParseException caused by forgetting a Value attribute on a data trigger. I've fixed that part but it still doesn't tell my why my studio becomes a lump of neutered program when a perfectly normal exception is thrown in the parsing of the XAML. Code that will cause this issue (at least for me) This is the base template WPF Application, with the following Window.xaml code. The problem is a missing Value="True" on the <DataTrigger ...> in the template. It generates a XamlParseException and Visual Studio Crashes as described above when debugging it. Final Notes The following solutions did not help me: Restarting Visual Studio Rebooting Reinstalling Visual Studio

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  • Cocoa XML reader app

    - by Miskia
    Hello, I'm a newbie to Cocoa, just develop some little apps with C/C++ on Windows. I want to make a "simple" app on Cocoa. When the user specific XML file, the file nodes are represented "enduser viewable". I made an interface with some NSTextField. I made a subclass of NSDocument called "XMLFile" so i got "XMLFile.h" and "XMLFile.m" in my Xcode project. In the plist of my app i setup a new "Document Types": XML File - extensions: xml - role: view - class: XMLFile - store type: XML Here is my "XMLFile.h": #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface FichierXML : NSDocument { } IBOutlet NSTextField *dateField; IBOutlet NSTextField *titleField; IBOutlet NSTextField *descField; IBOutlet NSTextField *vidfileField; IBOutlet NSTextField *imgfileField; IBOutlet NSObjectController *object; NSUInteger *mask; @end And here is my "XMLFile.m": #import "XMLFile.h" @implementation XMLFile - (BOOL)readFromData:(NSData *)datafile ofType:(NSString *)typeName error:(NSError **)outerror { NSMutableArray* ReportCreationDate = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSMutableArray* ReportTitle = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSMutableArray* ReportDescription = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSMutableArray* VideoPath = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSMutableArray* VideoThumbnailImageName = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSXMLDocument* doc = [[NSXMLDocument alloc] initWithData:datafile options:mask error:outerror]; NSXMLElement* root = [doc rootElement]; NSArray* dateElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/ReportCreationDate" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in dateElement) [dateElement setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; NSArray* titleElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/ReportTitle" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in titleElement) [titleField setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; NSArray* descElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/ReportDescription" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in descElement) [descField setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; NSArray* vidfileElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/Videos/Video/VideoPath" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in vidfileElement) [vidfileField setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; NSArray* imgfileElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/Videos/Video/VideoThumbnailImageName" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in imgfileElement) [imgfileField setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; [doc release]; [ReportCreationDate release]; [ReportTitle release]; [ReportDescription release]; [VideoPath release]; [VideoThumbnailImageName release]; return YES; } @end So. The user open the XMLFile, and XMLDocument analyse the file to extract nodes' data and send it to the differents NSTextField... But it doesn't work :( If someone can help me... I'm a newbie so don't be too rude if I made big mistakes :) Miskia.

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  • Jquery validation does not stop execution of "code behind" code of asp.net button

    - by shahk26
    Hi, I have a asp.net button which has click event which basically adds data into datbase. I also have a radiobuttonlist(i.e Approve / Decline) and a textbox. If user selects decline, the textbox becomes visible. I want to run validation that when user clicks on submit button, if the decline is selected then the textbox can not blank. I have used jquery validation for that. when I click button, the message apppears next to textbox that the field is required but it does not stop the execution of code behind. i.e.It adds data into database. Here is my code. <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(function() { $('#declinediv').hide(); //////// var $radBtn = $("table.rblist input:radio"); $radBtn.click(function() { var $radChecked = $(':radio:checked'); var value = $radChecked.val(); if (value == 'Decline' || value == 'Approve') { if (value == 'Decline') $('#declinediv').show(); else $('#declinediv').hide(); } else { $('#declinediv').hide(); } }); ////////////////////////// $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtdeclinereason.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 2, required: true } }, messages: { <%=txtdeclinereason.UniqueID %>:{ required: "* Required Field *", minlength: "* Please enter atleast 2 characters *" } }, onsubmit: true }); ////////////////////////////////// $('#btnsubmit').click(function(evt){ var isValid = $("#aspnetForm").valid(); if (!isValid) { evt.preventDefault(); } }); }); function myredirect(v, m, f) { window.location.href = v; } </script> <table style="border: 1px black solid; text-align: center; vertical-align: middle" width="100%"> <tr> <td> <asp:RadioButtonList ID="rbtnlstapprover" runat="server" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" CssClass="rblist" DataTextField="username" DataValueField="emailaddress"> <asp:ListItem Text="Approve" Value="Approve" /> <asp:ListItem Text="Decline" Value="Decline" /> </asp:RadioButtonList> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="RequiredFieldValidator1" runat="server" ControlToValidate="rbtnlstapprover" Text="*" ErrorMessage="Please select atleast one Approver" ValidationGroup="approvalgroup" Display="Dynamic" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <div id="declinediv"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtdeclinereason" runat="server" TextMode="MultiLine" Columns="80" Rows="5" /> </div> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <asp:Button ID="btnsubmit" runat="server" Text="Submit" CssClass="RegularButton" CausesValidation="true" ValidationGroup="approvalgroup" OnClick="btnsubmit_Click" /> </td> </tr> </table> How do I stop the execution of code behind? Thanks for your help.

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  • C++ vs. C++/CLI: Const qualification of virtual function parameters

    - by James McNellis
    [All of the following was tested using Visual Studio 2008 SP1] In C++, const qualification of parameter types does not affect the type of a function (8.3.5/3: "Any cv-qualifier modifying a parameter type is deleted") So, for example, in the following class hierarchy, Derived::Foo overrides Base::Foo: struct Base { virtual void Foo(const int i) { } }; struct Derived : Base { virtual void Foo(int i) { } }; Consider a similar hierarchy in C++/CLI: ref class Base abstract { public: virtual void Foo(const int) = 0; }; ref class Derived : public Base { public: virtual void Foo(int i) override { } }; If I then create an instance of Derived: int main(array<System::String ^> ^args) { Derived^ d = gcnew Derived; } it compiles without errors or warnings. When I run it, it throws the following exception and then terminates: An unhandled exception of type 'System.TypeLoadException' occurred in ClrVirtualTest.exe Additional information: Method 'Foo' in type 'Derived'...does not have an implementation. That exception seems to indicate that the const qualification of the parameter does affect the type of the function in C++/CLI (or, at least it affects overriding in some way). However, if I comment out the line containing the definition of Derived::Foo, the compiler reports the following error (on the line in main where the instance of Derived is instantiated): error C2259: 'Derived': cannot instantiate abstract class If I add the const qualifier to the parameter of Derived::Foo or remove the const qualifier from the parameter of Base::Foo, it compiles and runs with no errors. I would think that if the const qualification of the parameter affects the type of the function, I should get this error if the const qualification of the parameter in the derived class virtual function does not match the const qualification of the parameter in the base class virtual function. If I change the type of Derived::Foo's parameter from an int to a double, I get the following warning (in addition to the aforementioned error, C2259): warning C4490: 'override': incorrect use of override specifier; 'Derived::Foo' does not match a base ref class method So, my question is, effectively, does the const qualification of function parameters affect the type of the function in C++/CLI? If so, why does this compile and why are there no errors or warnings? If not, why is an exception thrown?

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  • jQuery .append() not working in IE, Safari, and Chrome

    - by mkmcdonald
    So I'm using jQuery's AJAX function to read some XML for me and it's worked just fine. But now I'm trying to manipulate the display property of 4 different dynamically generated divs. The size and x/y of the divs are determined by the XML and are parsed through. My problem lies in the face that these divs either aren't being generated or just don't show up in IE, Safari, and Chrome. In Firefox and Opera, they do work. I'm using jQuery's .append() to create the divs and then the .css() functino to manipulate them. Looking in Chrome's developer tools, I am seeing that the css property being changed in the script is being overridden by the property in the stylesheet. Any fixes? $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "generate?test", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('template').each(function(){ var portion = $(this).attr('portion'); var select; var name = $(this).find('$(this):first').text(); var mutability = $(this).attr('mutability'); var x = (parseInt($(this).find('x:first').text())*96)/72; var y = (parseInt($(this).find('y:first').text())*96)/72; switch(portion){ case "stub": select = $('#StubTemplates'); select.append(""+name+""); break; case "body": select = $('#BodyTemplates'); select.append(""+name+""); y = y + 90; break; } switch(mutability){ case "dynamic": var width = (parseInt($(this).find('width:first').text())*96)/72; var height = (parseInt($(this).find('height:first').text())*96)/72; var n = name; switch(portion){ case "stub": $('.ticket').append("") break; case "body": $('.ticket').append(""); break; } var top = $('#'+n).position().top; var left = parseInt($('#'+n).css('margin-left')); $('#'+n).css('top', (y+top)+"px"); $('#'+n).css('margin-left', (x+left)+"px"); $('#'+n).css('width', width+"px"); $('#'+n).css('height', height+"px"); break; case "static": var n = name; switch(portion){ case "stub": $('.ticket').append(""); break; case "body": $('.ticket').append(""); break; } break; } }); var stubActive = false; var bodyActive = false; $('#StubTemplates').find('.ddindent').mouseup(function(){ var tVal = $(this).val(); var tTitle = $(this).attr('title'); if(!stubActive){ $('.stubEditable').css('display', 'none'); $('#'+tVal).css('display', 'block'); stubActive = true; }else{ $('.stubEditable').css('display', 'none'); $('#'+tVal).css('display', 'block'); stubActive = false; } }); $('#StubTemplates').find('#stubTempNone').mouseup(function(){ $('.stubEditable').css('display', 'none'); }); $('#BodyTemplates').find('.ddindent').mouseup(function(){ var tVal = $(this).val(); var tTitle = $(this).attr('title'); if(!bodyActive){ $('.bodyEditable').css('display', 'none'); $('#'+tVal).css('display', 'block'); bodyActive = true; }else{ $('.bodyEditable').css('display', 'none'); $('#'+tVal).css('display', 'block'); bodyActive = false; } }); $('#BodyTemplates').find('#bodyTempNone').mouseup(function(){ $('.bodyEditable').css('display', 'none'); }); } }); });

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  • DRUPAL probl [tid] field : in View how to link Taxonomy term to MY view (and not to taxonomy/term)

    - by davezen
    SUMMARY : I have a view where I need to replace the term link "taxonomy/term" by my view link, because the view uses arguments to find content with terms how can I put in link argument the term which is display : [term_name1] link "display_view/term_name1", [term_name2] link "display_view/term_name2" I used [tid] field to put argument in link display_view/[tid] but it only display the first term, and not the real term (for example if multiple taggs it only display the first) and put all the terms in one single link : [term_name1 term_name2] link "display_view/term_name1" so why [tid] or [tid_1] don't run ? is there another field, or do I need php ? really need help ! :) DESCRIPTION : Hello, I made a view table to display store content it display : user name, title, taxonomy term to type (book, disc...), taxonomy term for taggs (subject of objects) for example : USER | TITLE | TERM TYPE (only one) | TERM SUBJECTS (taggs) user1 | James Brown disc | disc | soul jamesbrown user2 | rolls book | book | cars rolls travel so I display different types of terms and in subjects it can have a multiple because it's taggs I use arguments so it can have display for example only store from an user, or from an taxonomy (for examples only the disc, or the disc about soul) so I can link display_view/argtermtype/argtermsubject (I separate the type and subject) MY NEED : what i want is the terms of the view don't redirect on taxonomy/term but on my view so I have to : change the link of terms in view to redirect on display_texts/all/all replace [all] with the [term] argument MY PROBLEM : I can't have the right field of terms displayed in the links of terms in fields, I : checked "Output this field as a link" put the link "display_view/[tid]" for term type and "display_view/all/[tid]" for term subjects NOT checked "Link this field to its term page" what it does : [tid] put in link FOR ALL THE LINE the SAME TERM and it put all the terms in one single link ! that's to say, it creates the links : USER | TITLE | TERM TYPE (only one) | TERM SUBJECTS (taggs) user1 | James Brown disc| [disc] display_texts/disc (ok !) | [soul jamesbrown] (BAD only one link!) display_texts/all/disc (BAD it's not the new term !) what I need : USER | TITLE | TERM TYPE (only one) | TERM SUBJECTS (taggs) user1 | James Brown disc| [disc] display_texts/disc| [soul] display_texts/all/soul [jamesbrown] display_texts/all/jamesbrown) MY QUESTION : so how can I put in argument the term which is display ? I try things like [tid_1] but doesn't work is there any list of fields somewhere ? or do i have to use php code ? how to separate link terms ? if I check "Link this field to its term page" links are separate but it replace my link by "taxonomy/term" link think's in advance for any idea !

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  • Error trying to run rails server

    - by David87
    I am trying to get a basic Rails application to run on my Mac OS X 10.6.5. I created a new app called demo (rails new demo), then went into the demo directory and tried to start the app with rails server. Here is the error message I received: "/Users/dpetrovi/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2/lib/sqlite3/sqlite3_native.bundle: [BUG] Segmentation fault ruby 1.8.7 (2010-12-23 patchlevel 330) [i686-darwin10] Abort trap" I checked bundle install in the demo folder: "Using rake (0.8.7) Using abstract (1.0.0) Using activesupport (3.0.3) Using builder (2.1.2) Using i18n (0.5.0) Using activemodel (3.0.3) Using erubis (2.6.6) Using rack (1.2.1) Using rack-mount (0.6.13) Using rack-test (0.5.6) Using tzinfo (0.3.23) Using actionpack (3.0.3) Using mime-types (1.16) Using polyglot (0.3.1) Using treetop (1.4.9) Using mail (2.2.13) Using actionmailer (3.0.3) Using arel (2.0.6) Using activerecord (3.0.3) Using activeresource (3.0.3) Using bundler (1.0.7) Using thor (0.14.6) Using railties (3.0.3) Using rails (3.0.3) Using sqlite3-ruby (1.3.2) Your bundle is complete! Use bundle show [gemname] to see where a bundled gem is installed." Ruby, RubyGems, and sqlite3 were installed using MacPorts. Then I used gem to try to install the sqlite3-ruby interface. (sudo gem install sqlite3-ruby). Here is where I first noticed something could be off: "Successfully installed sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2... No definition for libversion Enclosing class/module 'mSqlite3' for class Statement not known Installing RDoc documentation for sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2... No definition for libversion Enclosing class/module 'mSqlite3' for class Statement not known " I had rails running well on my system a few months ago, so I figured maybe I had some duplicates and it was trying to use the wrong one. I ran: "for cmd in ruby irb gem rake; do which $cmd; done" and got: "/opt/local/bin/ruby /opt/local/bin/irb /opt/local/bin/gem /opt/local/bin/rake" Checking where sqlite3 also gets me: "/opt/local/bin/sqlite3" so they all seem to be in the right place. Obviously /opt/local/bin is in my system path. If I check gems server, it shows that I have installed sqlite3-ruby 1.3.2 gem. Not sure what the problem could be? I am using ruby 1.8.7 (2010-12-23 patchlevel 330) [i686-darwin10]. Macports claims this is the latest (although ive seen 1.9.1) One more thing-- in irb, I tried to check which version of sqlite3 my sqlite3-ruby is bound to, but I can only get this far: ":irb(main):001:0 require 'rubygems' = true irb(main):002:0 require 'sqlite3' /Users/dpetrovi/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2/lib/sqlite3/sqlite3_native.bundle: [BUG] Segmentation fault ruby 1.8.7 (2010-12-23 patchlevel 330) [i686-darwin10] Abort trap" Any suggestions? Im hoping I overlooked something obvious. Thanks

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  • Can you pass by reference in Java?

    - by dbones
    Hi. Sorry if this sounds like a newbie question, but the other day a Java developer mentioned about passing a paramter by reference (by which it was ment just pass a Reference object) From a C# perspective I can pass a reference type by value or by reference, this is also true to value types I have written a noddie console application to show what i mean.. can i do this in Java? namespace ByRefByVal { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { //Creating of the object Person p1 = new Person(); p1.Name = "Dave"; PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //should not be null //A copy of the Reference is made and sent to the method PrintUserNameByValue(p1); PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //the actual reference is passed to the method PrintUserNameByRef(ref p1); //<-- I know im passing the Reference PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); Console.ReadLine(); } private static void PrintIfObjectIsNull(Object o) { if (o == null) { Console.WriteLine("object is null"); } else { Console.WriteLine("object still references something"); } } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by value /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByValue(Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //<- this cannot affect the orginal reference, as it was passed in by value. } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by reference /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByRef(ref Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //this has access to the orginonal reference, allowing us to alter it, either make it point to a different object or to nothing. } } class Person { public string Name { get; set; } } } If it java cannot do this, then its just passing a reference type by value? (is that fair to say) Many thanks Bones

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  • How do I solve "Two different CRTLDLLs are loaded" when using packages in C++ Builder 2010?

    - by David M
    Hi, We are trying to split up our monolithic EXE into a combination of an EXE and several packages. So far, we have one package that we're trying to use, and when running the EXE Codeguard shows the following error on startup: CG Error Two different CRTLDLLs are loaded. CG might report false errors (C:\Windows\system32\CC32100MT.DLL) (D:\Projects\Foo\Bar.bpl) OK I read this as two different runtime libraries being loaded - one, the correct one (CC32100MT.dll), one incorrect, which is the package we're trying to use. Continuing to run the program shows odd errors, especially casting between classes or passing a pointer to a class as a parameter in a method that crosses the EXE/DLL boundary. Codeguard itself doesn't show any other errors at all though. How do we solve this? Some more details We've looked at as many things as we (the developer working on this and I) can collectively think of: Each project is built using runtime packages. The EXE host lists Bar in its package list. Each project is set to compile with dynamic RTL. However, changing this does not solve the problem. The package is linked to the EXE via its BPI file, but linking via a LIB makes no difference either. The EXE and BPL are compiled with the same project settings, where the same options exist for both types of project. We think, anyway :) There is only one copy of the BPL and BPI on the system: it's definitely linking to the right one. Examining the EXE and BPL with Depends and TDump show they are both using C:\Windows\system32\CC32100MT.DLL. They should both be using the one RTL. Creating a new project (a plain VCL forms application) and linking to the BPL (via its BPI) works fine. Something in the process of adding all the files and LIBs that make our EXE contain the code it needs to changes this, but we haven't been able to figure out what. The LIBs all either correspond to DLLs we use (flat C interface, usually look as though they were built with MSVC) or are simple projects with lots of related files, compiled to a lib for the purpose of linking into the EXE - these correspond roughly to the areas of the program we want to split to BPLs, by the way. There don't seem to be project options for the LIB projects that would affect RTL linking, unless we've missed them. I have exhaustively hunted through Depends and looked at all RTL and CC32*.dll files the EXE and every single DLL references. All are identical: rtl140.bpl and CC32100MT.DLL. Fully qualified paths show they are the same files, too. Everything should be using the one same run-time library. We're stumped. Absolutely stumped. We've had other problems using BPLs (they seem to be surprisingly tricky things, especially using C++) but have managed to solve them all. This one we've had no luck at all and we'd really appreciate any insights :) We're using C++Builder 2010 (as part of RAD Studio actually, but with little Delphi code apart from components.)

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  • What is a good platform for building a game framework targetting both web and native languages?

    - by fuzzyTew
    I would like to develop (or find, if one is already in development) a framework with support for accelerated graphics and sound built on a system flexible enough to compile to the following: native ppc/x86/x86_64/arm binaries or a language which compiles to them javascript actionscript bytecode or a language which compiles to it (actionscript 3, haxe) optionally java I imagine, for example, creating an API where I can open windows and make OpenGL-like calls and the framework maps this in a relatively efficient manner to either WebGL with a canvas object, 3d graphics in Flash, OpenGL ES 2 with EGL, or desktop OpenGL in an X11, Windows, or Cocoa window. I have so far looked into these avenues: Building the game library in haXe Pros: Targets exist for php, javascript, actionscript bytecode, c++ High level, object oriented language Cons: No support for finally{} blocks or destructors, making resource cleanup difficult C++ target does not allow room for producing highly optimized libraries -- the foreign function interface requires all primitive types be boxed in a wrapper object, as if writing bindings for a scripting language; these feel unideal for real-time graphics and audio, especially exporting low-level functions. Doesn't seem quite yet mature Using the C preprocessor to create a translator, writing programs entirely with macros Pros: CPP is widespread and simple to use Cons: This is an arduous task and probably the wrong tool for the job CPP implementations differ widely in support for features (e.g. xcode cpp has no variadic macros despite claiming C99 compliance) There is little-to-no room for optimization in this route Using llvm's support for multiple backends to target c/c++ to web languages Pros: Can code in c/c++ LLVM is a very mature highly optimizing compiler performing e.g. global inlining Targets exist for actionscript (alchemy) and javascript (emscripten) Cons: Actionscript target is closed source, unmaintained, and buggy. Javascript targets do not use features of HTML5 for appropriate optimization (e.g. linear memory with typed arrays) and are immature An LLVM target must convert from low-level bytecode, so high-level constructs are lost and bloated unreadable code is created from translating individual instructions, which may be more difficult for an unprepared JIT to optimize. "jump" instructions cause problems for languages with no "goto" statements. Using libclang to write a translator from C/C++ to web languages Pros: A beautiful parsing library providing easy access to the code structure Can code in C/C++ Has sponsored developer effort from Apple Cons: Incomplete; current feature set targets IDEs. Basic operators are unexposed and must be manually parsed from the returned AST element to be identified. Translating code prior to compilation may forgo optimizations assumed in c/c++ such as inlining. Creating new code generators for clang to translate into web languages Pros: Can code in C/C++ as libclang Cons: There is no API; code structure is unstable A much larger job than using libclang; the innards of clang are complex Building the game library in Common Lisp Pros: Flexible, ancient, well-developed language Extensive introspection should ease writing translators Translators exist for at least javascript Cons: Unfamiliar language No standardized library functions, widely varying implementations Which of these avenues should I pursue? Do you know of any others, or any systems that might be useful? Does a general project like this exist somewhere already? Thank you for any input.

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  • Create class instance in assembly from string name

    - by Arcadian
    I'm not sure if this is possible, and I'm quite new to using assemblies in C#.NET. What I would like to do is to create an instance of a class when supplied the string name of that class. Something like this: using MyAssembly; namespace MyNameSpace { Class MyClass { int MyValue1; int MyValue2; public MyClass(string myTypeName) { foreach(Type type in MyAssembly) { if((string)type == myTypeName) { //create a new instance of the type } } AssignInitialValues(//the type created above) } //Here I use an abstract type which the type above inherits from private void AssignInitialValues(AbstractType myClass) { this.value1 = myClass.value1; this.value2 = myClass.value2; } } } Obviously you cannot compare strings to types but it illustrates what I'm trying to do: create a type from a supplied string. Any thoughts? EDIT: After attempting: var myObject = (AbstractType) Activator.CreateInstance(null, myTypeName); AssignInitialValues(myObject); I get a number of errors: Inconsistent accessibility: parameter type 'MyAssembly.AbstractType' is less accessible than method 'MyNameSpace.MyClass.AssignInitialValues(MyAssembly.AstractType)' 'MyAssembly.AstractType' is inaccessible due to it's protection level The type or namespace name 'MyAssembly' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) The type or namespace name 'AbstractType' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Not exactly sure why it can't find the assembly; I've added a reference to the assembly and I use a Using Directive for the namespace in the assembly. As for the protection level, it's calling classes (or rather the constructors of classes) which can only be public. Any clues on where the problem is? UPDATE: After looking through several articles on SO I came across this: http://stackoverflow.com/a/1632609/360627 Making the AbstractTypeclass public solved the issue of inconsistent accessibility. The new compiler error is this: Cannot convert type 'System.Runtime.Remoting.ObjectHandle' to 'MyAssembly.AbstractType' The line it references is this one: var myObject = (AbstractType) Activator.CreateInstance(null, myTypeName); Using .Unwrap() get's me past this error and I think it's the right way to do it (uncertain). However, when running the program I then get a TypeLoadException when this code is called. TypeLoadException: Could not load type ‘AbstractType’ from assembly ‘MyNameSpace'... Right away I can spot that the type its looking for is correct but the assembly it's looking in is wrong. Looking up the Activator.CreateInstance(String, String) method revealed that the null as the first argument means that the method will look in the executing assembly. This is contrary to the required behavior as in the original post. I've tried using MyAssembly as the first argument but this produces the error: 'MyAssembly' is a 'namespace' but is used like a 'variable' Any thoughts on how to fix this?

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  • Serious Memory Clash: Variables clashing in C

    - by Soham
    int main(int argc, char*argv[]) { Message* newMessage; Asset* Check; //manipulation and initialization of Check, so that it holds proper values. newMessage = parser("N,2376,01/02/2011 09:15:01.342,JPASSOCIAT FUTSTK 24FEB2011,B,84.05,2000,0,0",newMessage); // MessageProcess(newMessage,AssetMap); printf("LAST TRADE ADDRESS %p LAST TRADE TIME %s\n",Check->TradeBook,Check->Time); } Message* parser(char *message,Message* new_Message) { char a[9][256]; char* tmp =message; bool inQuote=0; int counter=0; int counter2=0; new_Message = (Message*)malloc(sizeof(Message)); while(*tmp!='\0') { switch(*tmp) { case ',': if(!inQuote) { a[counter][counter2]='\0'; counter++; counter2=0; } break; case '"': inQuote=!inQuote; break; default: a[counter][counter2]=*tmp; counter2++; break; } tmp++; } a[counter][counter2]='\0'; new_Message->type = *a[0]; new_Message->Time = &a[2][11]; new_Message->asset = a[3]; if(*a[4]=='S') new_Message->BS = 0; else new_Message->BS = 1; new_Message->price1=atof(a[5]); new_Message->shares1=atol(a[6]); new_Message->price2=atof(a[7]); new_Message->shares2=atol(a[8]); new_Message->idNum = atoi(a[1]); return(new_Message); } Here there is a serious memory clash, in two variables of different scope. I have investigated using gdb and it seems the address of new_Message->Time is equalling to the address of Check->Time. They both are structures of different types I am trying to resolve this issue, because, when parser changes the value of new_Message->Time it manipulates the contents of Check-Time Please do suggest how to solve this problem. I have lost(spent) around 10 hours and counting to resolve this issue, and tons of hair. Soham

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  • Repeating fields in similar database tables

    - by user1738833
    I have been tasked with working on a database that I have never seen before and I'm looking at the DB structure. Some of the central and most heavily queried and joined tables look like virtual duplicates of each other. Here's a massively simplified representation of the situation, with business-sensitive information changed, listing hypothetical table names and fields: TopLevelGroup: PK_TLGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubGroup: PK_SubGroupId, FK_ParentTopLevelGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubSubGroup: PK_SubSUbGroupId, FK_ParentSubGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK I haven't listed the types of the fields as I don't think it's particularly important to the situation. In addition, it's worth saying that rather than four repeated fields as in the example above, I'm looking at 86 repeated fields. For the most part, those fields genuinely do represent "facts" about the primary table entity, so it's not automatically wrong for that reason. In addition, the "groups" represented here have a property inheritance relationship. If DisplaysXOnBill is NULL in the SubSubGroup, it takes the value of DisplaysXOnBillfrom it's parent, the SubGroup, and so-on up to the TopLevelGroup. Further, the requirements will never require that the model extends beyond three levels, so there is no need for flexibility in that area. Is there a design smell from several tables which describe very similar entities having almost identical fields? If so, what might be a better design of the example above? I'm using the phrase "design smell" to indicate a possible problem. Of course, in any given situation, a particular design might well be the best solution. I'm looking for a more general answer - wondering what might be wrong with this design and what might be the better design were that the case. Possibly related, but not primary questions: Is this database schema in a reasonably normal form (e.g. to 3NF), insofar as can be told from the information I've provided. I can't see a problem with the requirements of 2NF and 3NF, except in their inheriting the requirements of 1NF. Is 1NF satisfied though? Are repeating groups allowed in different tables? Is there a best-practice method for implementing the inheritance relationship in a database as I require? The method above feels clunky to me because any query on the SubSubGroup necessarily needs to join onto the SubGroup and the TopLevelGroup tables to collect inherited facts, which can make even trivial joins requiring facts from the SubSubGroup table rather long-winded. There are, of course, political considerations to making a relatively large change like this. For the purpose of this question, I'm happy to ignore that fact in the interests of keeping the answers ring-fenced to the technical problem.

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  • Many DIVs inside parent DIV, CSS height issue

    - by Benjamin
    Hi everyone, I am putting together a dynamic photo gallery and getting stuck trying to place thumbnails. Basically I am trying to place each thumbnail and caption in its own DIV, floated to the left. The thumbnails are working just as I want them to but for some reason the parent DIV refuses to cover the height of the thumbnail area. Here is the CSS I am using.. #galleryBox { width: 650px; background: #fff; margin: auto; padding: 5px; text-align: center; } .item { display: block; margin: 10px; padding: 10px; float: left; background: #353535; min-width: 120px; } .label { display: block; color: #fff; } I have tried height: auto and that hasn't done anything. Here is what I am trying to style: <div id="galleryBox" class="ui-corner-all"> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/images/ajax-loader.gif" alt="test"/><br/> <p><span class="label">Testing</span></p> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/images/ajax-loader.gif" alt="test"/><br/> <p><span class="label">Testing</span></p> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/images/ajax-loader.gif" alt="test"/><br/> <p><span class="label">Testing</span></p> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/images/ajax-loader.gif" alt="test"/><br/> <p><span class="label">Testing</span></p> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/images/ajax-loader.gif" alt="test"/><br/> <p><span class="label">Testing</span></p> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/images/ajax-loader.gif" alt="test"/><br/> <p><span class="label">Testing</span></p> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/images/ajax-loader.gif" alt="test"/><br/> <p><span class="label">Testing</span></p> </div> </div> Thanks!

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  • GAE Datastore: persisting referenced objects

    - by David
    Two "I'm sorries" to begin with: 1) I've looked for a solution (here, and elsewhere), and couldn't find the answer. 2) English is not my mother tongue, so I may have some typos and the sort - please ignore them. To the point: I am trying to persist Java objects to the GAE datastore. I am not sure as to how to persist object having ("non-trivial") referenced object. That is, assume I have the following. public class Father { String name; int age; Vector<Child> offsprings; //this is what I call "non-trivial" reference //ctor, getters, setters... } public class Child { String name; int age; Father father; //this is what I call "non-trivial" reference //ctor, getters, setters... } The name field is unique in each type domain, and is considered a Primary-Key. In order to persist the "trivial" (String, int) fields, all I need is to add the correct annotation. So far so good. However, I don't understand how should I persist the home-brewed (Child, Father) types referenced. Should I: Convert each such reference to hold the Primary-Key (a name String, in this example) instead of the "actual" object. So, Vector<Child> offsprings; becomes Vector<String> offspringsNames; ? If that is the case, how do I handle the object at run-time? Do I just query for the Primary-Key from Class.getName, to retrieve the refrenced objects? Convert each such reference to hold the actual Key provided to me by the Datastore upon the proper put() operation? So, Vector<Child> offsprings; becomes Vector<Key> offspringsHashKeys; ? I would very much appreciate all kinds of comments. I have read ALL the offical relevant GAE docs/example. Throughout, they always persist "trivial" references, natively supported by the Datastore (e.g. in the Guestbook example, only Strings, and Longs). Many thanks, David

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  • Stuck on an ASP.NET/WCF WSDL Parsing Error

    - by Vaccano
    I have a WCF Web Service that my ASP.NET app uses. It has been working fine for quite some time. I just added in a Dev Express Grid (and the Dev Express DLLs) and a new page that uses them and now I am getting parsing errors on the WSDL. But the weird part is that it works fine on my machine but fails on the web server machine. (Both are connecting to the same web services WSDL.) Here is the error message I am getting: Server Error in '/MyWebAppWebDev' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Reference.svcmap: Failed to generate code for the service reference 'MyWebAppService'. Cannot import wsdl:portType Detail: An exception was thrown while running a WSDL import extension: System.ServiceModel.Description.DataContractSerializerMessageContractImporter Error: Referenced type 'WebClientApp.MyWebAppService.ReferenceUpdatesDataContract, WebClientApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' with data contract name 'ReferenceUpdatesDataContract' in namespace 'http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/MyWebAppServiceLibrary.DataContracts' cannot be used since it does not match imported DataContract. Need to exclude this type from referenced types. XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='IMyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib'] Cannot import wsdl:binding Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:portType that the wsdl:binding is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:portType: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='IMyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] Cannot import wsdl:port Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:binding that the wsdl:port is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:binding: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:service[@name='MyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib']/wsdl:port[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] Source Error: [No relevant source lines] Source File: /MyWebAppWebDev/App_WebReferences/MyWebAppService/ Line: 1 I am completely stumped on this. I have checked my web.config endpoint address and it is spot on (and notably is not in the error message above). Any ideas would be welcomed. Things I have tried: Giving permissions to C:\Windows\temp to my Website user name Giving permissions to C:\Windows\temp to my App pool user name Checking to see that none of my data contracts are generic and have IsReference=true in them.

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  • Unique_ptr compiler errors

    - by Godric Seer
    I am designing and entity-component system for a project, and C++ memory management is giving me a few issues. I just want to make sure my design is legitimate. So to start I have an Entity class which stores a vector of Components: class Entity { private: std::vector<std::unique_ptr<Component> > components; public: Entity() { }; void AddComponent(Component* component) { this -> components.push_back(std::unique_ptr<Component>(component)); } ~Entity(); }; Which if I am not mistaken means that when the destructor is called (even the default, compiler created one), the destructor for the Entity, will call ~components, which will call ~std::unique_ptr for each element in the vector, and lead to the destruction of each Component, which is what I want. The component class has virtual methods, but the important part is its constructor: Component::Component(Entity parent) { parent.addComponent(this) // I am not sure if this would work like I expect // Other things here } As long as passing this to the method works, this also does what I want. My confusion is in the factory. What I want to do is something along the lines of: std::shared_ptr<Entity> createEntity() { std::shared_ptr<Entity> entityPtr(new Entity()); new Component(*parent); // Initialize more, and other types of Components return entityPtr; } Now, I believe that this setup will leave the ownership of the Component in the hands of its Parent Entity, which is what I want. First a small question, do I need to pass the entity into the Component constructor by reference or pointer or something? If I understand C++, it would pass by value, which means it gets copied, and the copied entity would die at the end of the constructor. The second, and main question is that code based on this sample will not compile. The complete error is too large to print here, however I think I know somewhat of what is going on. The compiler's error says I can't delete an incomplete type. My Component class has a purely virtual destructor with an implementation: inline Component::~Component() { }; at the end of the header. However since the whole point is that Component is actually an interface. I know from here that a complete type is required for unique_ptr destruction. The question is, how do I work around this? For reference I am using gcc 4.4.6.

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