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  • What to name 2 methods with same signatures

    - by coffeeaddict
    Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • client-side validation in custom validation attribute - asp.net mvc 4

    - by Giorgos Manoltzas
    I have followed some articles and tutorials over the internet in order to create a custom validation attribute that also supports client-side validation in an asp.net mvc 4 website. This is what i have until now: RequiredIfAttribute.cs [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true)] //Added public class RequiredIfAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private readonly string condition; private string propertyName; //Added public RequiredIfAttribute(string condition) { this.condition = condition; this.propertyName = propertyName; //Added } protected override ValidationResult IsValid(object value, ValidationContext validationContext) { PropertyInfo propertyInfo = validationContext.ObjectType.GetProperty(this.propertyName); //Added Delegate conditionFunction = CreateExpression(validationContext.ObjectType, _condition); bool conditionMet = (bool)conditionFunction.DynamicInvoke(validationContext.ObjectInstance); if (conditionMet) { if (value == null) { return new ValidationResult(FormatErrorMessage(null)); } } return ValidationResult.Success; } private Delegate CreateExpression(Type objectType, string expression) { LambdaExpression lambdaExpression = System.Linq.Dynamic.DynamicExpression.ParseLambda(objectType, typeof(bool), expression); //Added Delegate function = lambdaExpression.Compile(); return function; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var modelClientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule { ValidationType = "requiredif", ErrorMessage = ErrorMessage //Added }; modelClientValidationRule.ValidationParameters.Add("param", this.propertyName); //Added return new List<ModelClientValidationRule> { modelClientValidationRule }; } } Then i applied this attribute in a property of a class like this [RequiredIf("InAppPurchase == true", "InAppPurchase", ErrorMessage = "Please enter an in app purchase promotional price")] //Added "InAppPurchase" public string InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice { get; set; } public bool InAppPurchase { get; set; } So what i want to do is display an error message that field InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice is required when InAppPurchase field is true (that means checked in the form). The following is the relevant code form the view: <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="InAppPurchase">Does your app include In App Purchase?</label> <div class="controls"> @Html.CheckBoxFor(o => o.InAppPurchase) @Html.LabelFor(o => o.InAppPurchase, "Yes") </div> </div> <div class="control-group" id="InAppPurchasePromotionalPriceDiv" @(Model.InAppPurchase == true ? Html.Raw("style='display: block;'") : Html.Raw("style='display: none;'"))> <label class="control-label" for="InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice">App Friday Promotional Price for In App Purchase: </label> <div class="controls"> @Html.TextBoxFor(o => o.InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice, new { title = "This should be at the lowest price tier of free or $.99, just for your App Friday date." }) <span class="help-inline"> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(o => o.InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice) </span> </div> </div> This code works perfectly but when i submit the form a full post is requested on the server in order to display the message. So i created JavaScript code to enable client-side validation: requiredif.js (function ($) { $.validator.addMethod('requiredif', function (value, element, params) { /*var inAppPurchase = $('#InAppPurchase').is(':checked'); if (inAppPurchase) { return true; } return false;*/ var isChecked = $(param).is(':checked'); if (isChecked) { return false; } return true; }, ''); $.validator.unobtrusive.adapters.add('requiredif', ['param'], function (options) { options.rules["requiredif"] = '#' + options.params.param; options.messages['requiredif'] = options.message; }); })(jQuery); This is the proposed way in msdn and tutorials i have found Of course i have also inserted the needed scripts in the form: jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.min.js jquery.validate.min.js jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js requiredif.js BUT...client side validation still does not work. So could you please help me find what am i missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • Class template specializations with shared functionality

    - by Thomas
    I'm writing a simple maths library with a template vector type: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector { public: Vector<T, N> &operator+=(Vector<T, N> const &other); // ... more operators, functions ... }; Now I want some additional functionality specifically for some of these. Let's say I want functions x() and y() on Vector<T, 2> to access particular coordinates. I could create a partial specialization for this: template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> { public: Vector<T, 3> &operator+=(Vector<T, 3> const &other); // ... and again all the operators and functions ... T x() const; T y() const; }; But now I'm repeating everything that already existed in the generic template. I could also use inheritance. Renaming the generic template to VectorBase, I could do this: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { }; template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> : public VectorBase<T, 3> { public: T x() const; T y() const; }; However, now the problem is that all operators are defined on VectorBase, so they return VectorBase instances. These cannot be assigned to Vector variables: Vector<float, 3> v; Vector<float, 3> w; w = 5 * v; // error: no conversion from VectorBase<float, 3> to Vector<float, 3> I could give Vector an implicit conversion constructor to make this possible: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { public: Vector(VectorBase<T, N> const &other); }; However, now I'm converting from Vector to VectorBase and back again. Even though the types are the same in memory, and the compiler might optimize all this away, it feels clunky and I don't really like to have potential run-time overhead for what is essentially a compile-time problem. Is there any other way to solve this?

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  • Foreign key pointing to different tables

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm implementing a table per subclass design I discussed in a previous question. It's a product database where products can have very different attributes depending on their type, but attributes are fixed for each type and types are not manageable at all. I have a master table that holds common attributes: product_type ============ product_type_id INT product_type_name VARCHAR E.g.: 1 'Magazine' 2 'Web site' product ======= product_id INT product_name VARCHAR product_type_id INT -> Foreign key to product_type.product_type_id valid_since DATETIME valid_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine' 1 '1998-12-01' NULL 2 'Bar Weekly Review' 1 '2005-01-01' NULL 3 'E-commerce App' 2 '2009-10-15' NULL 4 'CMS' 2 '2010-02-01' NULL ... and one subtable for each product type: item_magazine ============= item_magazine_id INT title VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id issue_number INT pages INT copies INT close_date DATETIME release_date DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine Regular Issue' 1 89 52 150000 '2010-06-25' '2010-06-31' 2 'Foo Magazine Summer Special' 1 90 60 175000 '2010-07-25' '2010-07-31' 3 'Bar Weekly Review Regular Issue' 2 12 16 20000 '2010-06-01' '2010-06-02' item_web_site ============= item_web_site_id INT name VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id bandwidth INT hits INT date_from DATETIME date_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'The Carpet Store' 3 10 90000 '2010-06-01' NULL 2 'Penauts R Us' 3 20 180000 '2010-08-01' NULL 3 'Springfield Cattle Fair' 4 15 150000 '2010-05-01' '2010-10-31' Now I want to add some fees that relate to one specific item. Since there are very little subtypes, it's feasible to do this: fee === fee_id INT fee_description VARCHAR item_magazine_id INT -> Foreign key to item_magazine.item_magazine_id item_web_site_id INT -> Foreign key to item_web_site.item_web_site_id net_price DECIMAL E.g.: 1 'Front cover' 2 NULL 1999.99 2 'Half page' 2 NULL 500.00 3 'Square banner' NULL 3 790.50 4 'Animation' NULL 3 2000.00 I have tight foreign keys to handle cascaded editions and I presume I can add a constraint so only one of the IDs is NOT NULL. However, my intuition suggests that it would be cleaner to get rid of the item_WHATEVER_id columns and keep a separate table: fee_to_item =========== fee_id INT -> Foreign key to fee.fee_id product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id item_id INT -> ??? But I can't figure out how to create foreign keys on item_id since the source table varies depending on product_id. Should I stick to my original idea?

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  • Searching in Ruby on Rails - How do I search on each word entered and not the exact string?

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a blog application w/ ruby on rails and I am trying to implement a search feature. The blog application allows for users to tag posts. The tags are created in their own table and belong_to :post. When a tag is created, so is a record in the tag table where the name of the tag is tag_name and associated by post_id. Tags are strings. I am trying to allow a user to search for any word tag_name in any order. Here is what I mean. Lets say a particular post has a tag that is 'ruby code controller'. In my current search feature, that tag will be found if the user searches for 'ruby', 'ruby code', or 'ruby code controller'. It will not be found if the user types in 'ruby controller'. Essentially what I am saying is that I would like each word entered in the search to be searched for, not necessarily the 'string' that is entered into the search. I have been experimenting with providing multiple textfields to allow the user to type in multiple words, and also have been playing around with the code below, but can't seem to accomplish the above. I am new to ruby and rails so sorry if this is an obvious question and prior to installing a gem or plugin I thought I would check to see if there was a simple fix. Here is my code: View: /views/tags/index.html.erb <% form_tag tags_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search], :class => "textfield-search" %> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil, :class => "search-button" %> </p> <% end %> TagsController def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end Tag Model class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post validates_length_of :tag_name, :maximum=>42 validates_presence_of :tag_name def self.search(search) if search find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ['tag_name LIKE ?', "%#{search}%"]) else find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC") end end end

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  • Binding Entity Framework Collections Simply Using ASP.NET MVC

    - by jpcmorton
    To begin with: Using Entity Framework v4.0. ASP.NET MVC 2.0. Visual Studio 2010. I have a model that consists simply of an order & order items. What I want to do is simply bind that model without too much hassle where possible (avoiding type converters, etc). Simply the model looks like this: public class Order { public int ID { get; set; } public string OrderNumber { get; set; } public EntityCollection<OrderItem> Items { get; set; } } public class OrderItem { public int ID { get; set; } public string Qty { get; set; } } This is as simple as I want to keep it. This model is coming directly from the code generated by the entity framework generator. I would prefer to use the model directly from the entity framework (I know there are views saying this is a bad thing, but alas). I then have the View looking like this: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%: Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.ID) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.ID) %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ID) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.OrderNumber) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.OrderNumber)%> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.OrderNumber)%> </div> <div id="lineItems"> Where I need to put my line items to be edited, inserted </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> What I want to do is have a situation where I can use dynamic line items (using javascript). Problems are this: How to go about inserting the initial line item (within the lineItems div). This need to be strongly typed and use the built in validation framework of MVC. Best way to go about inserting line items dynamically so that on the postback there is a complete bind to the model without too much messing around (id = 1,2,3,4, etc). Any help, examples, tips, etc would be appreciated.

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  • How to get Media Picker Field via proxy record of many-to-many in orchard

    - by Sergey Schipanov
    I need to access mediapickerfield in Widget view. This field is relative to 'ActionPart'. I have a problem, when I create many-to-many relationships to display my 'ActionPart' in the widget. When I mapped many-to-many I take an 'ActionPart' and but cannot access the mediapickerfield. Records classes public class ActionPartRecord : ContentPartRecord { public virtual string Text { get; set; } public virtual double Price { get; set; } public virtual int TextPosX { get; set; } public virtual int TextPosY { get; set; } public virtual String TextSale { get; set; } public virtual int Color { get; set; } } public class ActionListRecord { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual ActionPartRecord ActionPartRecord { get; set; } public virtual ActionWidgetPartRecord ActionWidgetPartRecord { get; set; } } public class ActionWidgetPartRecord : ContentPartRecord { public ActionWidgetPartRecord() { ActionList = new List<ActionListRecord>(); } public virtual IList<ActionListRecord> ActionList { get; set; } } public class ActionWidgetPart : ContentPart<ActionWidgetPartRecord> { public IEnumerable<ActionPartRecord> ActionList { get { return Record.ActionList.Select(x => x.ActionPartRecord); } } } ActionPart class public class ActionPart : ContentPart<ActionPartRecord> { public String Text { get { return Record.Text; } set { Record.Text = value; } } /*other field*/ } Migrations public int Create() { SchemaBuilder.CreateTable("ActionPartRecord", table => table .ContentPartRecord() .Column<string>("Text") .Column<double>("Price") .Column<int>("TextPosX") .Column<int>("TextPosY") .Column<string>("TextSale") .Column<int>("Color") ); ContentDefinitionManager.AlterPartDefinition("ActionPart", builder => builder .WithField("BaseImage", fieldBuilder => fieldBuilder.OfType("MediaPickerField").WithDisplayName("Action Image")) .WithField("PatternImage", fieldBuilder => fieldBuilder.OfType("MediaPickerField").WithDisplayName("Pattern Image")) .WithField("TimeExp", fieldBuilder => fieldBuilder.OfType("DateTimeField").WithDisplayName("Expecting date")) .Attachable()); ContentDefinitionManager.AlterTypeDefinition("Action", cfg => cfg .WithPart("CommonPart") .WithPart("TitlePart") .WithPart("RoutePart") .WithPart("BodyPart") .WithPart("ActionPart") .Creatable() .Indexed()); SchemaBuilder.CreateTable("ActionListRecord", table => table .Column<int>("Id", column => column.PrimaryKey().Identity()) .Column<int>("ActionPartRecord_Id") .Column<int>("ActionWidgetPartRecord_Id") ); SchemaBuilder.CreateTable("ActionWidgetPartRecord", table => table .ContentPartRecord() ); ContentDefinitionManager.AlterPartDefinition( "ActionWidgetPart", builder => builder.Attachable()); ContentDefinitionManager.AlterTypeDefinition("ActionWidget", cfg => cfg .WithPart("ActionWidgetPart") .WithPart("WidgetPart") .WithPart("CommonPart") .WithSetting("Stereotype", "Widget")); return 1; } Driver Display method protected override DriverResult Display( ActionWidgetPart part, string displayType, dynamic shapeHelper) { return ContentShape("Parts_ActionWidget", () => shapeHelper.Parts_ActionWidget( ContentPart: part, ActionList: part.ActionList)); } Widget View @foreach (var action in Model.ActionList) { <div class="item"> *How to access BaseImage Field in this row* <div class="sale-pattern"></div> <div class="container"> <div class="carousel-caption"> <h1>@action.Text</h1> <h1 class="price">@action.Price</h1> </div> </div> </div> }

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  • check if directory exists c#

    - by Ant
    I am trying to see if a directory exists based on an input field from the user. When the user types in the path, I want to check if the path actually exists. I have some c# code already. It returns 1 for any local path, but always returns 0 when I am checking a network path. static string checkValidPath(string path) { //Insert your code that runs under the security context of the authenticating user here. using (ImpersonateUser user = new ImpersonateUser(user, "", password)) { //DirectoryInfo d = new DirectoryInfo(quotelessPath); bool doesExist = Directory.Exists(path); //if (d.Exists) if(doesExist) { user.Dispose(); return "1"; } else { user.Dispose(); return "0"; } } } public class ImpersonateUser : IDisposable { [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr hObject); private IntPtr userHandle = IntPtr.Zero; private WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; public ImpersonateUser(string user, string domain, string password) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(user)) { // Call LogonUser to get a token for the user bool loggedOn = LogonUser(user, domain, password, 9 /*(int)LogonType.LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS*/, 3 /*(int)LogonProvider.LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50*/, out userHandle); if (!loggedOn) throw new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()); // Begin impersonating the user impersonationContext = WindowsIdentity.Impersonate(userHandle); } } public void Dispose() { if (userHandle != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(userHandle); if (impersonationContext != null) impersonationContext.Undo(); } } Any help is appreciated. Thanks! EDIT 3: updated code to use BrokenGlass's impersonation functions. However, I need to initialize "password" to something... EDIT 2: I updated the code to try and use impersonation as suggested below. It still fails everytime. I assume I am using impersonation improperly... EDIT: As requested by ChrisF, here is the function that calls the checkValidPath function. Frontend aspx file... $.get('processor.ashx', { a: '7', path: x }, function(o) { alert(o); if (o=="0") { $("#outputPathDivValid").dialog({ title: 'Output Path is not valid! Please enter a path that exists!', width: 500, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { 'Close': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); } }); Backend ashx file... public void ProcessRequest (HttpContext context) { context.Response.Cache.SetExpires(DateTime.Now); string sSid = context.Request["sid"]; switch (context.Request["a"]) {//a bunch of case statements here... case "7": context.Response.Write(checkValidPath(context.Request["path"].ToString())); break;

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  • Jquery: how to trigger td a when tr is clicked

    - by Poku
    Hey, I have a table where the first td in the trs contains a link. I want this anchor to be triggered (clicked) no matter where i click in the containing tr. I have read and tried alot of recents post and suggentions on this topic but i can't get this to work. I tried the trigger() and triggerHandle() functions, but it does not trigger the anchor click that i want. There must be others who have had the need to trigger a anchor click when a tr is clicked, so that the user doesn't have to click the tds anchor link. It sure is a nice UI feature if its possible? Here is the code i have tried: <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="javascripts/jquery-1.4.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> /* Initialise the table with the required column sorting data types */ jQuery(document).ready(function () { jQuery("#rowClick tr").click(function (e) { jQuery("#clickevent", this).trigger("click"); }); }); </script> </head> <body id="dt_example"> <table id="rowClick"> <thead> <tr> <th style="width: 30px">id</th> <th style="width: 200px">navn</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=1" id="clickevent">1</a></td> <td>Jesper</td> </tr> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=2" id="clickevent">2</a></td> <td>Bjarne</td> </tr> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=3" id="clickevent">3</a></td> <td>Søren</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> </body>

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  • [c++] upload image to imageshack

    - by cinek1lol
    Hi! I would like to send pictures via a program written in C + +. - OK WinExec("C:\\curl\\curl.exe -H Expect: -F \"fileupload=@C:\\curl\\ok.jpg\" -F \"xml=yes\" -# \"http://www.imageshack.us/index.php\" -o data.txt -A \"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.1) Gecko/20061204 Firefox/2.0.0.1\" -e \"http://www.imageshack.us\"", NULL); It works, but I would like to send the pictures from pre-loaded carrier to a variable char (you know what I mean? First off, I load the pictures into a variable and then send the variable), cause now I have to specify the path of the picture on a disk. I wanted to write this program in c++ by using the curl library, not through exe. extension. I have also found such a program (which has been modified by me a bit) #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <iostream> #include <curl/curl.h> #include <curl/types.h> #include <curl/easy.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { CURL *curl; CURLcode res; struct curl_httppost *formpost=NULL; struct curl_httppost *lastptr=NULL; struct curl_slist *headerlist=NULL; static const char buf[] = "Expect:"; curl_global_init(CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); /* Fill in the file upload field */ curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "send", CURLFORM_FILE, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "submit", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "send", CURLFORM_END); curl = curl_easy_init(); headerlist = curl_slist_append(headerlist, buf); if(curl) { curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.imageshack.us/index.php"); if ( (argc == 2) && (!strcmp(argv[1], "xml=yes")) ) curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headerlist); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPPOST, formpost); res = curl_easy_perform(curl); curl_easy_cleanup(curl); curl_formfree(formpost); curl_slist_free_all (headerlist); } system("pause"); return 0; }

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  • Best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using LINQ-to-SQL

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO: public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although I feel that returning IQueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches: First approach public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the DataContext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { List<RoleDTO> roleDTO = new List<RoleDTO>(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } } Please let me know, if there is a better approach.

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  • Linq query challenge - can this be done?

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

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  • How do I handle the Maybe result of at in Control.Lens.Indexed without a Monoid instance

    - by Matthias Hörmann
    I recently discovered the lens package on Hackage and have been trying to make use of it now in a small test project that might turn into a MUD/MUSH server one very distant day if I keep working on it. Here is a minimized version of my code illustrating the problem I am facing right now with the at lenses used to access Key/Value containers (Data.Map.Strict in my case) {-# LANGUAGE OverloadedStrings, GeneralizedNewtypeDeriving, TemplateHaskell #-} module World where import Control.Applicative ((<$>),(<*>), pure) import Control.Lens import Data.Map.Strict (Map) import qualified Data.Map.Strict as DM import Data.Maybe import Data.UUID import Data.Text (Text) import qualified Data.Text as T import System.Random (Random, randomIO) newtype RoomId = RoomId UUID deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read, Random) newtype PlayerId = PlayerId UUID deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read, Random) data Room = Room { _roomId :: RoomId , _roomName :: Text , _roomDescription :: Text , _roomPlayers :: [PlayerId] } deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read) makeLenses ''Room data Player = Player { _playerId :: PlayerId , _playerDisplayName :: Text , _playerLocation :: RoomId } deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read) makeLenses ''Player data World = World { _worldRooms :: Map RoomId Room , _worldPlayers :: Map PlayerId Player } deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read) makeLenses ''World mkWorld :: IO World mkWorld = do r1 <- Room <$> randomIO <*> (pure "The Singularity") <*> (pure "You are standing in the only place in the whole world") <*> (pure []) p1 <- Player <$> randomIO <*> (pure "testplayer1") <*> (pure $ r1^.roomId) let rooms = at (r1^.roomId) ?~ (set roomPlayers [p1^.playerId] r1) $ DM.empty players = at (p1^.playerId) ?~ p1 $ DM.empty in do return $ World rooms players viewPlayerLocation :: World -> PlayerId -> RoomId viewPlayerLocation world playerId= view (worldPlayers.at playerId.traverse.playerLocation) world Since rooms, players and similar objects are referenced all over the code I store them in my World state type as maps of Ids (newtyped UUIDs) to their data objects. To retrieve those with lenses I need to handle the Maybe returned by the at lens (in case the key is not in the map this is Nothing) somehow. In my last line I tried to do this via traverse which does typecheck as long as the final result is an instance of Monoid but this is not generally the case. Right here it is not because playerLocation returns a RoomId which has no Monoid instance. No instance for (Data.Monoid.Monoid RoomId) arising from a use of `traverse' Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (Data.Monoid.Monoid RoomId) In the first argument of `(.)', namely `traverse' In the second argument of `(.)', namely `traverse . playerLocation' In the second argument of `(.)', namely `at playerId . traverse . playerLocation' Since the Monoid is required by traverse only because traverse generalizes to containers of sizes greater than one I was now wondering if there is a better way to handle this that does not require semantically nonsensical Monoid instances on all types possibly contained in one my objects I want to store in the map. Or maybe I misunderstood the issue here completely and I need to use a completely different bit of the rather large lens package?

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • ZF: Form array field - how to display values in the view correctly

    - by Wojciech Fracz
    Let's say I have a Zend_Form form that has a few text fields, e.g: $form = new Zend_Form(); $form->addElement('text', 'name', array( 'required' => true, 'isArray' => true, 'filters' => array( /* ... */ ), 'validators' => array( /* ... */ ), )); $form->addElement('text', 'surname', array( 'required' => true, 'isArray' => true, 'filters' => array( /* ... */ ), 'validators' => array( /* ... */ ), )); After rendering it I have following HTML markup (simplified): <div id="people"> <div class="person"> <input type="text" name="name[]" /> <input type="text" name="surname[]" /> </div> </div> Now I want to have the ability to add as many people as I want. I create a "+" button that in Javascript appends next div.person to the container. Before I submit the form, I have for example 5 names and 5 surnames, posted to the server as arrays. Everything is fine unless somebody puts the value in the field that does not validate. Then the whole form validation fails and when I want to display the form again (with errors) I see the PHP Warning: htmlspecialchars() expects parameter 1 to be string, array given Which is more or less described in ticket: http://framework.zend.com/issues/browse/ZF-8112 However, I came up with a not-very-elegant solution. What I wanted to achieve: have all fields and values rendered again in the view have error messages only next to the fields that contained bad values Here is my solution (view script): <div id="people"> <?php $names = $form->name->getValue(); // will have an array here if the form were submitted $surnames= $form->surname->getValue(); // only if the form were submitted we need to validate fields' values // and display errors next to them; otherwise when user enter the page // and render the form for the first time - he would see Required validator // errors $needsValidation = is_array($names) || is_array($surnames); // print empty fields when the form is displayed the first time if(!is_array($names))$names= array(''); if(!is_array($surnames))$surnames= array(''); // display all fields! foreach($names as $index => $name): $surname = $surnames[$index]; // validate value if needed if($needsValidation){ $form->name->isValid($name); $form->surname->isValid($surname); } ?> <div class="person"> <?=$form->name->setValue($name); // display field with error if did not pass the validation ?> <?=$form->surname->setValue($surname);?> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> </div> The code work, but I want to know if there is an appropriate, more comfortable way to do this? I often hit this problem when there is a need for a more dynamic - multivalue forms and have not find better solution for a long time.

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  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

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  • C++ game designing & polymorphism question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I'm trying to implement some sort of 'just-for-me' game engine and the problem's plot goes the following way: Suppose I have some abstract interface for a renderable entity, e.g. IRenderable. And it's declared the following way: interface IRenderable { // (...) // Suppose that Backend is some abstract backend used // for rendering, and it's implementation is not important virtual void Render(Backend& backend) = 0; }; What I'm doing right now is something like declaring different classes like class Ball : public IRenderable { virtual void Render(Backend& backend) { // Rendering implementation, that is specific for // the Ball object // (...) } }; And then everything looks fine. I can easily do something like std::vector<IRenderable*> items, push some items like new Ball() in this vector and then make a call similiar to foreach (IRenderable* in items) { item->Render(backend); } Ok, I guess it is the 'polymorphic' way, but what if I want to have different types of objects in my game and an ability to manipulate their state, where every object can be manipulated via it's own interface? I could do something like struct GameState { Ball ball; Bonus bonus; // (...) }; and then easily change objects state via their own methods, like ball.Move(...) or bonus.Activate(...), where Move(...) is specific for only Ball and Activate(...) - for only Bonus instances. But in this case I lose the opportunity to write foreach IRenderable* simply because I store these balls and bonuses as instances of their derived, not base classes. And in this case the rendering procedure turns into a mess like ball.Render(backend); bonus.Render(backend); // (...) and it is bad because we actually lose our polymorphism this way (no actual need for making Render function virtual, etc. The other approach means invoking downcasting via dynamic_cast or something with typeid to determine the type of object you want to manipulate and this looks even worse to me and this also breaks this 'polymorphic' idea. So, my question is - is there some kind of (probably) alternative approach to what I want to do or can my current pattern be somehow modified so that I would actually store IRenderable* for my game objects (so that I can invoke virtual Render method on each of them) while preserving the ability to easily change the state of these objects? Maybe I'm doing something absolutely wrong from the beginning, if so, please point it out :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Feedback on Optimizing C# NET Code Block

    - by Brett Powell
    I just spent quite a few hours reading up on TCP servers and my desired protocol I was trying to implement, and finally got everything working great. I noticed the code looks like absolute bollocks (is the the correct usage? Im not a brit) and would like some feedback on optimizing it, mostly for reuse and readability. The packet formats are always int, int, int, string, string. try { BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(clientStream); int packetsize = reader.ReadInt32(); int requestid = reader.ReadInt32(); int serverdata = reader.ReadInt32(); Console.WriteLine("Packet Size: {0} RequestID: {1} ServerData: {2}", packetsize, requestid, serverdata); List<byte> str = new List<byte>(); byte nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // Password Sent to be Authenticated string string1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); str.Clear(); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // NULL string string string2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("String1: {0} String2: {1}", string1, string2); // Reply to Authentication Request MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream); writer.Write((int)(1)); // Packet Size writer.Write((int)(requestid)); // Mirror RequestID if Authenticated, -1 if Failed byte[] buffer = stream.ToArray(); clientStream.Write(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); clientStream.Flush(); } I am going to be dealing with other packet types as well that are formatted the same (int/int/int/str/str), but different values. I could probably create a packet class, but this is a bit outside my scope of knowledge for how to apply it to this scenario. If it makes any difference, this is the Protocol I am implementing. http://developer.valvesoftware.com/wiki/Source_RCON_Protocol

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • DNS no longer works after server reboot

    - by Burning the Codeigniter
    Strangely enough, when I reboot my Ubuntu 12.04 server, the DNS no longer works, which makes the domain unavailable to access to my site. Normally the DNS should be working after a reboot, but this doesn't happen anymore. I use nginx to serve content, but nginx is already configured to work with my domains. What are the typical practises must I do after a reboot and how can I solve this issue I experience? I already have BIND, networking and resolvconf to boot when the server boots up. ; <<>> DiG 9.8.1-P1 <<>> mysite.com ;; global options: +cmd ;; connection timed out; no servers could be reached This is my output with dig $ttl 38400 mysite.com. IN SOA ns1.mysite.com. webmaster.mysite.com. ( 1055026205 6H 1H 5D 20M ) mysite.com. IN A xx.xx.xx.xx # Server IP *.mysite.com. IN A xx.xx.xx.xx # Server IP www.mysite.com. IN CNAME mysite.com. ns1.mysite.com. IN A xx.xx.xx.xx # Server 2nd IP ns2.mysite.com. IN A xx.xx.xx.xx # Server 3rd IP mysite.com. IN NS ns1.mysite.com. mysite.com. IN NS ns2.mysite.com. mail.mysite.com. IN MX 1 mysite.com. This is the contents of /etc/resolv.conf # Dynamic resolv.conf(5) file for glibc resolver(3) generated by resolvconf(8) # DO NOT EDIT THIS FILE BY HAND -- YOUR CHANGES WILL BE OVERWRITTEN nameserver 85.17.150.123 nameserver 85.17.96.69 nameserver 62.212.64.122 search localdomain After using more dig commands, outputs: ; <<>> DiG 9.7.3-P3 <<>> @85.17.150.123 mysite.com ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: REFUSED, id: 24847 ;; flags: qr rd; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; WARNING: recursion requested but not available ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;mysite.com. IN A ;; Query time: 2145 msec ;; SERVER: 85.17.150.123#53(85.17.150.123) ;; WHEN: Mon Nov 5 16:31:32 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 30 ; <<>> DiG 9.7.3-P3 <<>> @85.17.96.69 mysite.com ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: REFUSED, id: 27879 ;; flags: qr rd; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; WARNING: recursion requested but not available ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;mysite.com. IN A ;; Query time: 949 msec ;; SERVER: 85.17.96.69#53(85.17.96.69) ;; WHEN: Mon Nov 5 16:32:59 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 30 ; <<>> DiG 9.7.3-P3 <<>> @62.212.64.122 mysite.com ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: REFUSED, id: 29293 ;; flags: qr rd; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; WARNING: recursion requested but not available ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;mysite.com. IN A ;; Query time: 825 msec ;; SERVER: 62.212.64.122#53(62.212.64.122) ;; WHEN: Mon Nov 5 16:33:39 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 30 With Google DNS (8.8.8.8): ; <<>> DiG 9.7.3-P3 <<>> @8.8.8.8 mysite.com ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: SERVFAIL, id: 38498 ;; flags: qr rd ra; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;mysite.com. IN A ;; Query time: 3982 msec ;; SERVER: 8.8.8.8#53(8.8.8.8) ;; WHEN: Mon Nov 5 16:37:27 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 30

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  • basic operations for modifying a source document with XSLT

    - by SpliFF
    All the tutorials and examples I've found of XSLT processing seem to assume your destination will be a significantly different format/structure to your source and that you know the structure of the source in advance. I'm struggling with finding out how to perform simple "in-place" modifications to a HTML document without knowing anything else about its existing structure. Could somebody show me a clear example that, given an arbitrary unknown HTML source will: 1.) delete the classname 'foo' from all divs 2.) delete a node if its empty (ie <p></p>) 3.) delete a <p> node if its first child is <br> 4.) add newattr="newvalue" to all H1 5.) replace 'heading' in text nodes with 'title' 6.) wrap all <u> tags in <b> tags (ie, <u>foo</u> -> <b><u>foo</u></b>) 7.) output the transformed document without changing anything else The above examples are the primary types of transform I wish to accomplish. Understanding how to do the above will go a long way towards helping me build more complex transforms. To help clarify/test the examples here is a sample source and output, however I must reiterate that I want to work with arbitrary samples without rewriting the XSLT for each source: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1>heading</h1> <p></p> <p><br>line</p> <div class="foo bar"><u>baz</u></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html> output: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1 newattr="newvalue">title</h1> <div class="bar"><b><u>baz</u></b></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html>

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  • [Reloaded] Error while sorting filtered data from a GridView

    - by Bogdan M
    Hello guys, I have an error I cannot solve, on a ASP.NET website. One of its pages - Countries.aspx, has the following controls: a CheckBox called "CheckBoxNAME": < asp:CheckBox ID="CheckBoxNAME" runat="server" Text="Name" /> a TextBox called "TextBoxName": < asp:TextBox ID="TextBoxNAME" runat="server" Width="100%" Wrap="False"> < /asp:TextBox> a SQLDataSource called "SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES", that selects all records from a Table with 3 columns - ID (Number, PK), NAME (Varchar2(1000)), and POPULATION (Number) called COUNTRIES < asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES" runat="server" ConnectionString="< %$ ConnectionStrings:myDB %> " ProviderName="< %$ ConnectionStrings:myDB.ProviderName %> " SelectCommand="SELECT COUNTRIES.ID, COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.POPULATION FROM COUNTRIES ORDER BY COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.ID"> < /asp:SqlDataSource> a GridView called GridViewCOUNTRIES: < asp:GridView ID="GridViewCOUNTRIES" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES" DataKeyNames="ID" DataMember="DefaultView"> < Columns> < asp:CommandField ShowSelectButton="True" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="ID" HeaderText="Id" SortExpression="ID" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="NAME" HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="NAME" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="POPULATION" HeaderText="Population" SortExpression="POPULATION" /> < /Columns> < /asp:GridView> a Button called ButtonFilter: < asp:Button ID="ButtonFilter" runat="server" Text="Filter" onclick="ButtonFilter_Click"/> This is the onclick event: protected void ButtonFilter_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("Countries.aspx?" + (this.CheckBoxNAME.Checked ? string.Format("NAME={0}", this.TextBoxNAME.Text) : string.Empty)); } Also, this is the main onload event of the page: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Page.IsPostBack == false) { if (Request.QueryString.Count != 0) { Dictionary parameters = new Dictionary(); string commandTextFormat = string.Empty; if (Request.QueryString["NAME"] != null) { if (commandTextFormat != string.Empty && commandTextFormat.EndsWith("AND") == false) { commandTextFormat += "AND"; } commandTextFormat += " (UPPER(COUNTRIES.NAME) LIKE '%' || :NAME || '%') "; parameters.Add("NAME", Request.QueryString["NAME"].ToString()); } this.SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES.SelectCommand = string.Format("SELECT COUNTRIES.ID, COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.POPULATION FROM COUNTRIES WHERE {0} ORDER BY COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.ID", commandTextFormat); foreach (KeyValuePair parameter in parameters) { this.SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES.SelectParameters.Add(parameter.Key, parameter.Value.ToUpper()); } } } } Basicly, the page displays in the GridViewCOUNTRIES all the records of table COUNTRIES. The scenario is the following: - the user checks the CheckBox; - the user types a value in the TextBox (let's say "ch"); - the user presses the Button; - the page loads displaying only the records that match the filter criteria (in this case, all the countries that have names containing "Ch"); - the user clicks on the header of the column called "Name" in order to sort the data in the GridView Then, I get the following error: ORA-01036: illegal variable name/number. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException: ORA-01036: illegal variable name/number Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Any help is greatly appreciated, tnks. PS: I'm using ASP.NET 3.5, under Visual Studio 2008, with an OracleXE database.

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  • xmlns='' was not expected when deserializing nested classes

    - by Mavrik
    I have a problem when attempting to serialize class on a server, send it to the client and deserialize is on the destination. On the server I have the following two classes: [XmlRoot("StatusUpdate")] public class GameStatusUpdate { public GameStatusUpdate() {} public GameStatusUpdate(Player[] players, Command command) { this.Players = players; this.Update = command; } [XmlArray("Players")] public Player[] Players { get; set; } [XmlElement("Command")] public Command Update { get; set; } } and [XmlRoot("Player")] public class Player { public Player() {} public Player(PlayerColors color) { Color = color; ... } [XmlAttribute("Color")] public PlayerColors Color { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("X")] public int X { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("Y")] public int Y { get; set; } } (The missing types are all enums). This generates the following XML on serialization: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <StatusUpdate> <Players> <Player Color="Cyan" X="67" Y="32" /> </Players> <Command>StartGame</Command> </StatusUpdate> On the client side, I'm attempting to deserialize that into following classes: [XmlRoot("StatusUpdate")] public class StatusUpdate { public StatusUpdate() { } [XmlArray("Players")] [XmlArrayItem("Player")] public PlayerInfo[] Players { get; set; } [XmlElement("Command")] public Command Update { get; set; } } and [XmlRoot("Player")] public class PlayerInfo { public PlayerInfo() { } [XmlAttribute("X")] public int X { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("Y")] public int Y { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("Color")] public PlayerColor Color { get; set; } } However, the deserializer throws an exception: There is an error in XML document (2, 2). <StatusUpdate xmlns=''> was not expected. What am I missing or doing wrong?

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