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  • check if directory exists c#

    - by Ant
    I am trying to see if a directory exists based on an input field from the user. When the user types in the path, I want to check if the path actually exists. I have some c# code already. It returns 1 for any local path, but always returns 0 when I am checking a network path. static string checkValidPath(string path) { //Insert your code that runs under the security context of the authenticating user here. using (ImpersonateUser user = new ImpersonateUser(user, "", password)) { //DirectoryInfo d = new DirectoryInfo(quotelessPath); bool doesExist = Directory.Exists(path); //if (d.Exists) if(doesExist) { user.Dispose(); return "1"; } else { user.Dispose(); return "0"; } } } public class ImpersonateUser : IDisposable { [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr hObject); private IntPtr userHandle = IntPtr.Zero; private WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; public ImpersonateUser(string user, string domain, string password) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(user)) { // Call LogonUser to get a token for the user bool loggedOn = LogonUser(user, domain, password, 9 /*(int)LogonType.LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS*/, 3 /*(int)LogonProvider.LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50*/, out userHandle); if (!loggedOn) throw new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()); // Begin impersonating the user impersonationContext = WindowsIdentity.Impersonate(userHandle); } } public void Dispose() { if (userHandle != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(userHandle); if (impersonationContext != null) impersonationContext.Undo(); } } Any help is appreciated. Thanks! EDIT 3: updated code to use BrokenGlass's impersonation functions. However, I need to initialize "password" to something... EDIT 2: I updated the code to try and use impersonation as suggested below. It still fails everytime. I assume I am using impersonation improperly... EDIT: As requested by ChrisF, here is the function that calls the checkValidPath function. Frontend aspx file... $.get('processor.ashx', { a: '7', path: x }, function(o) { alert(o); if (o=="0") { $("#outputPathDivValid").dialog({ title: 'Output Path is not valid! Please enter a path that exists!', width: 500, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { 'Close': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); } }); Backend ashx file... public void ProcessRequest (HttpContext context) { context.Response.Cache.SetExpires(DateTime.Now); string sSid = context.Request["sid"]; switch (context.Request["a"]) {//a bunch of case statements here... case "7": context.Response.Write(checkValidPath(context.Request["path"].ToString())); break;

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  • Implementing a logging library in .NET with a database as the storage medium

    - by Dave
    I'm just starting to work on a logging library that everyone can use to keep track of any sort of system information while the user is running our application. The simplest example so far is to track Info, Warnings, and Errors. I want all plugins to be able to use this feature, but since each developer might have a different idea of what's important to report, I want to keep this as generic as possible. In the C++ world, I would normally use something like a stl::pair<string,string> to act as a key value pair structure, and have a stl::list of these to act as a "row" in the log. The log cache would then be a list<list<pair<string,string>>> (ugh!). This way, the developers can use a const string key like INFO, WARNING, ERROR to have a consistent naming for a column in the database (for SELECTing specific types of information). I'd like the database to be able to deal with any number of distinct column names. For example, John might have an INFO row with a column called USER, and Bill might have an INFO row with a column called FILENAME. I want the log viewer to be able to display all information, and if one report doesn't have a value for INFO / FILENAME, those fields should just appear blank. So one option is to use List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>, and the another is to have the log library consumer somehow "register" its schema, and then have the database do an ALTER TABLE to handle this situation. Yet another idea is to have a table that's just for key value pairs, with a foreign key that maps the key value pairs back to the original log entry. I obviously don't want logging to bog down the system, so I only lock the log cache to make a copy of the data (and remove the already-copied data), then a background thread will dump the information to the database. My specific questions regarding this are: Do you see any performance issues? In other words, have you ever tried something like this and found that certain things just don't work well in practice? Is there a more .NETish way to implement the key value pairs, other than List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>>? Even if there is a way to do #2 better, is the ALTER TABLE idea I proposed above a Bad Thing? Would you recommend multiple databases over a single one? I don't yet have an idea of how frequently the log would get written to, but we ideally would like to have lots of low level information. Perhaps there should be a DB with a fixed schema only for the low level stuff, and then another DB that's more flexible for reporting information back to users.

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  • ZF: Form array field - how to display values in the view correctly

    - by Wojciech Fracz
    Let's say I have a Zend_Form form that has a few text fields, e.g: $form = new Zend_Form(); $form->addElement('text', 'name', array( 'required' => true, 'isArray' => true, 'filters' => array( /* ... */ ), 'validators' => array( /* ... */ ), )); $form->addElement('text', 'surname', array( 'required' => true, 'isArray' => true, 'filters' => array( /* ... */ ), 'validators' => array( /* ... */ ), )); After rendering it I have following HTML markup (simplified): <div id="people"> <div class="person"> <input type="text" name="name[]" /> <input type="text" name="surname[]" /> </div> </div> Now I want to have the ability to add as many people as I want. I create a "+" button that in Javascript appends next div.person to the container. Before I submit the form, I have for example 5 names and 5 surnames, posted to the server as arrays. Everything is fine unless somebody puts the value in the field that does not validate. Then the whole form validation fails and when I want to display the form again (with errors) I see the PHP Warning: htmlspecialchars() expects parameter 1 to be string, array given Which is more or less described in ticket: http://framework.zend.com/issues/browse/ZF-8112 However, I came up with a not-very-elegant solution. What I wanted to achieve: have all fields and values rendered again in the view have error messages only next to the fields that contained bad values Here is my solution (view script): <div id="people"> <?php $names = $form->name->getValue(); // will have an array here if the form were submitted $surnames= $form->surname->getValue(); // only if the form were submitted we need to validate fields' values // and display errors next to them; otherwise when user enter the page // and render the form for the first time - he would see Required validator // errors $needsValidation = is_array($names) || is_array($surnames); // print empty fields when the form is displayed the first time if(!is_array($names))$names= array(''); if(!is_array($surnames))$surnames= array(''); // display all fields! foreach($names as $index => $name): $surname = $surnames[$index]; // validate value if needed if($needsValidation){ $form->name->isValid($name); $form->surname->isValid($surname); } ?> <div class="person"> <?=$form->name->setValue($name); // display field with error if did not pass the validation ?> <?=$form->surname->setValue($surname);?> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> </div> The code work, but I want to know if there is an appropriate, more comfortable way to do this? I often hit this problem when there is a need for a more dynamic - multivalue forms and have not find better solution for a long time.

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  • Deserialization error in a new environment

    - by cerhart
    I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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  • train wreck. Rails requires RubyGems >= 1.3.2

    - by JZ
    I recently upgraded ruby to ruby 1.8.7 (2009-06-12 patchlevel 174) [i686-darwin10] and I think I broke rails. When I attempt to load rails. I get an odd message. Please help! $ ruby script/server Rails requires RubyGems = 1.3.2. Please install RubyGems and try again: http://rubygems.rubyforge.org $ rails -v Rails 3.0.0.beta $ gem -v 1.3.6 $ which gem /usr/bin/gem $ whereis gem /usr/bin/gem $ which rails /usr/bin/rails $ whereis rails /usr/bin/rails $ /usr/bin/gem -v 1.3.6 $ /usr/bin/rails -v Rails 3.0.0.beta $ ruby script/console Rails requires RubyGems >= 1.3.2. Please install RubyGems and try again: http://rubygems.rubyforge.org $ gem list rails *** LOCAL GEMS *** rails (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.2.6) $ gem list *** LOCAL GEMS *** abstract (1.0.0) actionmailer (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.3.6) actionpack (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.13.6) actionwebservice (1.2.6) activemerchant (1.4.1) activemodel (3.0.0.beta) activerecord (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.15.6) activerecord-tableless (0.1.0) activeresource (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2) activesupport (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.4.4) acts_as_ferret (0.4.3) arel (0.2.pre) authlogic (2.1.3) builder (2.1.2) bundler (0.9.3) calendar_date_select (1.15) capistrano (2.5.2) cgi_multipart_eof_fix (2.5.0) chronic (0.2.3) columnize (0.3.1) compass (0.8.17) daemons (1.0.10) dnssd (0.6.0) erubis (2.6.5) fastercsv (1.5.0) fastthread (1.0.1) fcgi (0.8.7) ferret (0.11.6) flay (1.4.0) flog (2.4.0) gbarcode (0.98.16) gem_plugin (0.2.3) git (1.2.5) haml (2.2.15) haml-edge (2.3.100) highline (1.5.0) hoe (2.4.0) hpricot (0.6.164) i18n (0.3.3) javan-whenever (0.3.7) jeweler (1.4.0) jscruggs-metric_fu (1.1.5) json_pure (1.2.0) libxml-ruby (1.1.2) linecache (0.43) mail (2.1.2) mechanize (0.9.3) memcache-client (1.7.8) mime-types (1.16) mislav-will_paginate (2.3.11) mocha (0.9.7) mojombo-chronic (0.3.0) mongrel (1.1.5) needle (1.3.0) net-scp (1.0.1) net-sftp (2.0.1, 1.1.1) net-ssh (2.0.4, 1.1.4) net-ssh-gateway (1.0.0) nifty-generators (0.3.0) nokogiri (1.4.0) openrain-action_mailer_tls (1.1.3) passenger (2.2.5) polyglot (0.2.9) prawn (0.6.3) prawn-core (0.6.3) prawn-format (0.2.3) prawn-layout (0.3.2) prawn-security (0.1.1) rack (1.1.0, 1.0.1) rack-mount (0.4.5) rack-test (0.5.3) rails (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.2.6) railties (3.0.0.beta) rake (0.8.7, 0.8.3) rake-compiler (0.6.0) RedCloth (4.1.1) reek (1.2.6) relevance-rcov (0.9.2.1) rmagick (2.12.2) roodi (2.1.0) rsl-stringex (1.0.3) rspec (1.2.9) rspec-rails (1.2.9) ruby-debug (0.10.3) ruby-debug-base (0.10.3) ruby-openid (2.1.2) ruby-yadis (0.3.4) ruby2ruby (1.2.4) ruby_parser (2.0.4) rubyforge (2.0.3) rubygems-update (1.3.6, 1.3.5) rubynode (0.1.5) searchlogic (2.3.9) sexp_processor (3.0.3) spree (0.9.4) sqlite3-ruby (1.2.5, 1.2.4) termios (0.9.4) test-unit (2.0.5) text-format (1.0.0) text-hyphen (1.0.0) thor (0.13.0) tlsmail (0.0.1) topfunky-gruff (0.3.5) treetop (1.4.3) tzinfo (0.3.16) xmpp4r (0.4)

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  • How can I create a Base64-Encoded string from an GDI+ Image in C++?

    - by Schnapple
    I asked a question recently, How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?, which got a response that led me to the answer. Now I need to do the opposite - I have an Image in GDI+ whose image data I need to turn into a Base64-Encoded string. Due to its nature, it's not straightforward. The crux of the issue is that an Image in GDI+ can save out its data to either a file or an IStream*. I don't want to save to a file, so I need to use the resulting stream. Problem is, this is where my knowledge breaks down. This first part is what I figured out in the other question // Initialize GDI+. GdiplusStartupInput gdiplusStartupInput; ULONG_PTR gdiplusToken; GdiplusStartup(&gdiplusToken, &gdiplusStartupInput, NULL); // I have this decode function from elsewhere std::string decodedImage = base64_decode(Base64EncodedImage); // Allocate the space for the stream DWORD imageSize = decodedImage.length(); HGLOBAL hMem = ::GlobalAlloc(GMEM_MOVEABLE, imageSize); LPVOID pImage = ::GlobalLock(hMem); memcpy(pImage, decodedImage.c_str(), imageSize); // Create the stream IStream* pStream = NULL; ::CreateStreamOnHGlobal(hMem, FALSE, &pStream); // Create the image from the stream Image image(pStream); // Cleanup pStream->Release(); GlobalUnlock(hMem); GlobalFree(hMem); (Base64 code) And now I'm going to perform an operation on the resulting image, in this case rotating it, and now I want the Base64-equivalent string when I'm done. // Perform operation (rotate) image.RotateFlip(Gdiplus::Rotate180FlipNone); IStream* oStream = NULL; CLSID tiffClsid; GetEncoderClsid(L"image/tiff", &tiffClsid); // Function defined elsewhere image.Save(oStream, &tiffClsid); // And here's where I'm stumped. (GetEncoderClsid) So what I wind up with at the end is an IStream* object. But here's where both my knowledge and Google break down for me. IStream shouldn't be an object itself, it's an interface for other types of streams. I'd go down the road from getting string-Image in reverse, but I don't know how to determine the size of the stream, which appears to be key to that route. How can I go from an IStream* to a string (which I will then Base64-Encode)? Or is there a much better way to go from a GDI+ Image to a string?

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • What to name 2 methods with same signatures

    - by coffeeaddict
    Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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  • What would you suggest as a high school first language?

    - by ldigas
    Edit by OA: After reading some answers I'll just update the question a little. At first I put it a little bluntly, but some of those gave me some good arguments which have to be taken into consideration while making a stand on this one. (these are mostly picked up from comments and answers below). A few things to take into account: to many pupils this is a first programming language - at this stage most of them have trouble grasping a difference between data types, variable passing, ... and whatnot, less alone pointers and similar 'low level stuff' :) they will all have to pass this to get into next grade (well, big majority of them anyway) not all of them have computers at home, not all of them are willing to learn this, less alone interested in - so the concepts have to be taught on a finite time scale in school hours (as well as practice on computers) free literature is a bonus - the teacher will make some scripts and handaways, but still ... I wouldn't like to bear the parents with the burden of buying expensive literature (also, english is not a native language here ... and although they are all learning it, their ability to read it fluently is somewhat questionable) somebody gave an argument - "a language which does not get in the way of ideas" - good one accessibility on different platforms in not expecially important at this point - although most of the suggested ones are available on win as well as linux - not many macs in this part of europe (their prices are sky high for anything but specialised usage) I will check what are the licencing issues on ms express editions about using it massively in high schools for purposes like this - if someone has any info about this, please, do not be shy with it :) A friend of mine, informatics teacher - in EU it comes as something as junior cs teacher, in a local high school asked me what I thought about what should be the first language pupils should be taught? It is a technical school (a little more oriented towards mathematics than the gymnasium, but not computer oriented totally). So I'm asking you - what do you think should be the first language pupils are exposed to in highschool? They have been teaching Pascal so far, but she's not sure that's a good course. She thought about switching to C (which I resented; considering not all pupils have interests in programming, to start with, and should be taught something higher level since they are just gripping the idea of a loop and such ... for a start), I suggested python or ruby (preferably py since it handles all paradigms). What is your opinion on this one? I looked, but didn't find a similar question on SO, so if there is one, please just point me towards it. Edit: The assumption is that none of the pupils have been exposed to any programming in junior school. See also: What is the best way to teach young kids some basic programming concepts? Best ways to teach a beginner to program How and when do you teach a kid to code What is the easiest language to start with? High School Programming

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  • Class template specializations with shared functionality

    - by Thomas
    I'm writing a simple maths library with a template vector type: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector { public: Vector<T, N> &operator+=(Vector<T, N> const &other); // ... more operators, functions ... }; Now I want some additional functionality specifically for some of these. Let's say I want functions x() and y() on Vector<T, 2> to access particular coordinates. I could create a partial specialization for this: template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> { public: Vector<T, 3> &operator+=(Vector<T, 3> const &other); // ... and again all the operators and functions ... T x() const; T y() const; }; But now I'm repeating everything that already existed in the generic template. I could also use inheritance. Renaming the generic template to VectorBase, I could do this: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { }; template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> : public VectorBase<T, 3> { public: T x() const; T y() const; }; However, now the problem is that all operators are defined on VectorBase, so they return VectorBase instances. These cannot be assigned to Vector variables: Vector<float, 3> v; Vector<float, 3> w; w = 5 * v; // error: no conversion from VectorBase<float, 3> to Vector<float, 3> I could give Vector an implicit conversion constructor to make this possible: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { public: Vector(VectorBase<T, N> const &other); }; However, now I'm converting from Vector to VectorBase and back again. Even though the types are the same in memory, and the compiler might optimize all this away, it feels clunky and I don't really like to have potential run-time overhead for what is essentially a compile-time problem. Is there any other way to solve this?

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  • Binding Entity Framework Collections Simply Using ASP.NET MVC

    - by jpcmorton
    To begin with: Using Entity Framework v4.0. ASP.NET MVC 2.0. Visual Studio 2010. I have a model that consists simply of an order & order items. What I want to do is simply bind that model without too much hassle where possible (avoiding type converters, etc). Simply the model looks like this: public class Order { public int ID { get; set; } public string OrderNumber { get; set; } public EntityCollection<OrderItem> Items { get; set; } } public class OrderItem { public int ID { get; set; } public string Qty { get; set; } } This is as simple as I want to keep it. This model is coming directly from the code generated by the entity framework generator. I would prefer to use the model directly from the entity framework (I know there are views saying this is a bad thing, but alas). I then have the View looking like this: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%: Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.ID) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.ID) %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ID) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.OrderNumber) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.OrderNumber)%> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.OrderNumber)%> </div> <div id="lineItems"> Where I need to put my line items to be edited, inserted </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> What I want to do is have a situation where I can use dynamic line items (using javascript). Problems are this: How to go about inserting the initial line item (within the lineItems div). This need to be strongly typed and use the built in validation framework of MVC. Best way to go about inserting line items dynamically so that on the postback there is a complete bind to the model without too much messing around (id = 1,2,3,4, etc). Any help, examples, tips, etc would be appreciated.

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  • How to make a correct if-statement to filter out values from a xml-file

    - by Garreth 00
    Edit 3: As requested, I'm trying to simplify my question. Here is a sample of some of my data from a xml file: <entry> <title>Entry 1</title> <f:max_value_a>499 999</f:max_value_a> <f:max_value_b>999 999</f:max_value_b> <f:min_value_a>0</f:min_value_a> <f:min_value_b>500 000</f:min_value_b> <f:min_value_c>1 000 000</f:min_value_c> <f:value_for_a>5,10</f:value_for_a> <f:value_for_b>4,50</f:value_for_b> <f:value_for_c>3,90</f:value_for_c> </entry> <entry> <title>Entry 2</title> <f:min_value_a>0</f:min_value_a> <f:value_for_a>4,20</f:value_for_a> </entry> <entry> <title>Entry 3</title> <f:max_value_a>1 999 999</f:max_value_a> <f:min_value_a>100 000</f:min_value_a> <f:min_value_b>2 000 000</f:min_value_b> <f:value_for_a>3,735</f:value_for_a> <f:value_for_b>3,445</f:value_for_b> </entry> f:value_for_d is the highest value, and f:value_for_c is lower than d, and so on. I have a dynamic targetvalue (lets just go with 2 000 000 in this example) I want to get the value where max_value is greater than the targetvalue, but sometimes max_value is not defined and then set to "0". "0" in max_value should mean unlimited "roof". The min_value can not be greater than targetvalue, but sometimes min_value is not defined and then set to "0". "0" min_value should mean a unlimited "floor". I have tried with this code if ($value_for_d > 0 ){ if (($min_value_d <= $targetvalue) xor ($min_value_d == 0)){ if (($max_value_d >= $targetvalue) xor ($max_value_d == 0)){ $query_result = TRUE; $value = $value_for_d; } } }elseif ($value_for_c > 0 ){ if (($min_value_c <= $targetvalue) xor ($min_value_c == 0)){ if (($max_value_c >= $targetvalue) xor ($max_value_c == 0)){ $query_result = TRUE; $value = $value_for_c; } } }elseif ($value_for_b > 0 ){ if (($min_value_b <= $targetvalue) xor ($min_value_b == 0)){ if (($max_value_b >= $targetvalue) xor ($max_value_b == 0)){ $query_result = TRUE; $value = $value_for_b; } } }elseif ($value_for_a > 0 ){ if (($min_value_a <= $targetvalue) xor ($min_value_a == 0)){ if (($max_value_a >= $targetvalue) xor ($max_value_a == 0)){ $query_result = TRUE; $value = $value_for_a; } } } If I run this code with a targetvalue of "2 000 000", I get this result: Entry 1 - 3.9 (correct value is 3.9) Entry 2 - 0 (correct value is 4.2) Entry 3 - 3.445 (correct value is 3.445) If I set the targetvalue to even lower, to 500 000, I get 0 on all my entries.

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  • Foreign key pointing to different tables

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm implementing a table per subclass design I discussed in a previous question. It's a product database where products can have very different attributes depending on their type, but attributes are fixed for each type and types are not manageable at all. I have a master table that holds common attributes: product_type ============ product_type_id INT product_type_name VARCHAR E.g.: 1 'Magazine' 2 'Web site' product ======= product_id INT product_name VARCHAR product_type_id INT -> Foreign key to product_type.product_type_id valid_since DATETIME valid_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine' 1 '1998-12-01' NULL 2 'Bar Weekly Review' 1 '2005-01-01' NULL 3 'E-commerce App' 2 '2009-10-15' NULL 4 'CMS' 2 '2010-02-01' NULL ... and one subtable for each product type: item_magazine ============= item_magazine_id INT title VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id issue_number INT pages INT copies INT close_date DATETIME release_date DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine Regular Issue' 1 89 52 150000 '2010-06-25' '2010-06-31' 2 'Foo Magazine Summer Special' 1 90 60 175000 '2010-07-25' '2010-07-31' 3 'Bar Weekly Review Regular Issue' 2 12 16 20000 '2010-06-01' '2010-06-02' item_web_site ============= item_web_site_id INT name VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id bandwidth INT hits INT date_from DATETIME date_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'The Carpet Store' 3 10 90000 '2010-06-01' NULL 2 'Penauts R Us' 3 20 180000 '2010-08-01' NULL 3 'Springfield Cattle Fair' 4 15 150000 '2010-05-01' '2010-10-31' Now I want to add some fees that relate to one specific item. Since there are very little subtypes, it's feasible to do this: fee === fee_id INT fee_description VARCHAR item_magazine_id INT -> Foreign key to item_magazine.item_magazine_id item_web_site_id INT -> Foreign key to item_web_site.item_web_site_id net_price DECIMAL E.g.: 1 'Front cover' 2 NULL 1999.99 2 'Half page' 2 NULL 500.00 3 'Square banner' NULL 3 790.50 4 'Animation' NULL 3 2000.00 I have tight foreign keys to handle cascaded editions and I presume I can add a constraint so only one of the IDs is NOT NULL. However, my intuition suggests that it would be cleaner to get rid of the item_WHATEVER_id columns and keep a separate table: fee_to_item =========== fee_id INT -> Foreign key to fee.fee_id product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id item_id INT -> ??? But I can't figure out how to create foreign keys on item_id since the source table varies depending on product_id. Should I stick to my original idea?

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • drupal jQuery 1.4 on specific pages

    - by Mark
    I'm looking for a way to force drupal to use 1.4 on specific pages. This is the same as this old question:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2842792/drupal-jquery-1-4-on-specific-pages It look me a while to try the answer which I marked correct. But because I'm new to module dev overall I couldn't figure it out based on the answer. The code from that answer looked like this: /** * Implementation of hook_theme_registry_alter(). * Based on the jquery_update module. * * Make this page preprocess function runs *last*, * so that a theme can't call drupal_get_js(). */ function MYMODULE_theme_registry_alter(&$theme_registry) { if (isset($theme_registry['page'])) { // See if our preprocess function is loaded, if so remove it. if ($key = array_search('MYMODULE_preprocess_page', $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'])) { unset($theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][$key]); } // Now add it on at the end of the array so that it runs last. $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][] = 'MYMODULE_preprocess_page'; } } /** * Implementation of moduleName_preprocess_hook(). * Based on the jquery_update module functions. * * Strips out JS and CSS for a path. */ function MYMODULE_preprocess_page(&$variables, $arg = 'my_page', $delta=0) { // I needed a one hit wonder. Can be altered to use function arguments // to increase it's flexibility. if(arg($delta) == $arg) { $scripts = drupal_add_js(); $css = drupal_add_css(); // Only do this for pages that have JavaScript on them. if (!empty($variables['scripts'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($scripts['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.js']); $variables['scripts'] = drupal_get_js('header', $scripts); } // Similar process for CSS but there are 2 Css realted variables. // $variables['css'] and $variables['styles'] are both used. if (!empty($variables['css'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.css']); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.color.css']); $variables['styles'] = drupal_get_css($css); } } } I need the jquery_update 1.3.2 to be unset on the node-types of 'blog' and 'video'. Can someone help me out? Thank you.

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  • Searching in Ruby on Rails - How do I search on each word entered and not the exact string?

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a blog application w/ ruby on rails and I am trying to implement a search feature. The blog application allows for users to tag posts. The tags are created in their own table and belong_to :post. When a tag is created, so is a record in the tag table where the name of the tag is tag_name and associated by post_id. Tags are strings. I am trying to allow a user to search for any word tag_name in any order. Here is what I mean. Lets say a particular post has a tag that is 'ruby code controller'. In my current search feature, that tag will be found if the user searches for 'ruby', 'ruby code', or 'ruby code controller'. It will not be found if the user types in 'ruby controller'. Essentially what I am saying is that I would like each word entered in the search to be searched for, not necessarily the 'string' that is entered into the search. I have been experimenting with providing multiple textfields to allow the user to type in multiple words, and also have been playing around with the code below, but can't seem to accomplish the above. I am new to ruby and rails so sorry if this is an obvious question and prior to installing a gem or plugin I thought I would check to see if there was a simple fix. Here is my code: View: /views/tags/index.html.erb <% form_tag tags_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search], :class => "textfield-search" %> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil, :class => "search-button" %> </p> <% end %> TagsController def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end Tag Model class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post validates_length_of :tag_name, :maximum=>42 validates_presence_of :tag_name def self.search(search) if search find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ['tag_name LIKE ?', "%#{search}%"]) else find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC") end end end

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  • Linq query challenge - can this be done?

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • Change Label Control Property Based on Data from SqlDataSource Inside a Repeater

    - by Furqan Muhammad Khan
    I am using a repeater control to populate data from SqlDataSource into my custom designed display-box. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" OnDataBinding="Repeater_ItemDataBound"> <HeaderTemplate> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <div class="bubble-content"> <div style="float: left;"> <h2 class="bubble-content-title"><%# Eval("CommentTitle") %></h2> </div> <div style="text-align: right;"> <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %> </asp:Label> </div> <div style="float: left;"> <p><%# Eval("CommentContent") %></p> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="mySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:myConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT [CommentTitle],[CommentType],[CommentContent] FROM [Comments] WHERE ([PostId] = @PostId)"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="PostId" QueryStringField="id" Type="String" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> Now, there can be three types of "CommentTypes" in the database. I want to change the CssClass property of "lbl_category" based on the value of [CommentType]. I tried doing this: <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" CssClass="<%# Eval("CommentType") %>" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %></asp:Label> But this gives an error: "The server control is not well formed" and haven't been able to find a way to achieve this in the code behind. Can someone please help?

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  • basic operations for modifying a source document with XSLT

    - by SpliFF
    All the tutorials and examples I've found of XSLT processing seem to assume your destination will be a significantly different format/structure to your source and that you know the structure of the source in advance. I'm struggling with finding out how to perform simple "in-place" modifications to a HTML document without knowing anything else about its existing structure. Could somebody show me a clear example that, given an arbitrary unknown HTML source will: 1.) delete the classname 'foo' from all divs 2.) delete a node if its empty (ie <p></p>) 3.) delete a <p> node if its first child is <br> 4.) add newattr="newvalue" to all H1 5.) replace 'heading' in text nodes with 'title' 6.) wrap all <u> tags in <b> tags (ie, <u>foo</u> -> <b><u>foo</u></b>) 7.) output the transformed document without changing anything else The above examples are the primary types of transform I wish to accomplish. Understanding how to do the above will go a long way towards helping me build more complex transforms. To help clarify/test the examples here is a sample source and output, however I must reiterate that I want to work with arbitrary samples without rewriting the XSLT for each source: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1>heading</h1> <p></p> <p><br>line</p> <div class="foo bar"><u>baz</u></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html> output: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1 newattr="newvalue">title</h1> <div class="bar"><b><u>baz</u></b></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html>

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  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • Best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using LINQ-to-SQL

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO: public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although I feel that returning IQueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches: First approach public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the DataContext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { List<RoleDTO> roleDTO = new List<RoleDTO>(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } } Please let me know, if there is a better approach.

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  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

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  • Event handle in drop-down menu.

    - by QLiu
    Hello fellows, I am trying to develop a dynamic drop down menu by a customized widget style The custom widget has two main features: Read user's location cookies variable to set the proper contact phone number in the CP pages When users select on the drop down menu, it triggers onChange event, it re-select the contact phone number based on users' selections, but it won't reset the location cookies. My widgets conatins two files: Controller.php: Simply one, it uses to handle get cookies variables class serial extends Widget { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } function generateWidgetInformation() { $this->info['notes'] = "Serial Number search Box"; } function getData() { //Get cookies code will go here, and pass to view.php $this->data['locale'] = 'gb';// for test purpose now } } view.php is about Presentation layer contains HTML, which get the data from my controller <div style="border: 1px solid black; display: block;" id="<?=$this->instanceID;?>"></div> <script>locale2contact('<?=$this->data['locale']?>', '<?=$this->instanceID;?>');</script> And then the Javascript function, call locale2contact var element_id =''; //Define Global Variables, //Receive the cookies locale, and instance id from view.php function locale2contact(locale, instance_id) { var details = ''; this.element_id=instance_id; //assing the instance id into global variable // alert(instance_id); //Check whether we got the instance id from view files if (locale == 'gb') details = 'UK Contact Details<br>' + build_dropdown(locale); else if (locale == 'fr') details = 'French Contact Details<br>'+build_dropdown(locale); else if (locale == 'be') details = 'Belgian Contact Details<br>'+ build_dropdown(locale); else details = 'Unknown Contact Detail'; writeContactInfo(details); } //Build the drop down menu with pre-selected option by using cookies. function build_dropdown(locale) { var dropdown = '<select onChange=changeContactInfo(this.options[selectedIndex].text)>'; dropdown += '<option' + (locale == 'gb' ? ' selected' : '') + '>UK</option>'; dropdown += '<option' + (locale == 'be' ? ' selected' : '') + '>Belgium</option>'; dropdown += '</select>'; return dropdown; } // Not smart way in here, once the people select the drop down box, it reselect the drop down menu and reset the contact info function changeContactInfo(selected) { var details =''; //alert(this.element_id); //alert(locale); if (selected == 'UK') details = 'UK Contact Details<br>' + build_dropdown2(selected); else if (selected == 'fr') details = 'French Contact Details<br>'+ build_dropdown2(selected); else if (selected == 'Belgium') details = 'Belgian Contact Details<br>'+ build_dropdown2(selected); else details = 'Unknown Contact Detail'; writeContactInfo(details); } //Build the drop down menu function build_dropdown2(selected) { var dropdown = '<select onChange=changeContactInfo(this.options[selectedIndex].text)>'; dropdown += '<option' + (selected == 'UK' ? ' selected' : '') + '>UK</option>'; dropdown += '<option' + (selected == 'Belgium' ? ' selected' : '') + '>Belgium</option>'; dropdown += '</select>'; return dropdown; } //Back to view function writeContactInfo(details) { document.getElementById(this.element_id).innerHTML = details; //update the instance field in view } Javascript function is not efficient. As you see, I got two similar duplicate functions to handle events. Users go to the page, the widget read the cookies variable to display contact info (locale2contact)and preselect the drop-down menu (function build_dropdown) If users select the drop down menu, the displya contact info change (function changeContactInfo), and then I need to rebuild the drop down menu with user previously selection (function build_dropdown2). I am looking for best practices for adding this functionality to RightNow widget. Thank you. I really do not like the way i am doing now. It works; but the code looks bad.

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  • JNA array structure

    - by Burny
    I want to use a dll (IEC driver) in Java, for that I am using JNA. The problem in pseudo code: start the server allocate new memory for an array (JNA) client connect writing values from an array to the memory sending this array to the client client disconnect new client connect allocate new memory for an array (JNA) - JVM crash (EXCEPTION_ACCESS_VIOLATION) The JVM crash not by primitve data types and if the values will not writing from the array to the memory. the code in c: struct DataAttributeData CrvPtsArrayDAData = {0}; CrvPtsArrayDAData.ucType = DATATYPE_ARRAY; CrvPtsArrayDAData.pvData = XYValDAData; XYValDAData[0].ucType = FLOAT; XYValDAData[0].uiBitLength = sizeof(Float32)*8; XYValDAData[0].pvData = &(inUpdateValue.xVal); XYValDAData[1].ucType = FLOAT; XYValDAData[1].uiBitLength = sizeof(Float32)*8; XYValDAData[1].pvData = &(inUpdateValue.yVal); Send(&CrvPtsArrayDAData, 1); the code in Java: DataAttributeData[] data_array = (DataAttributeData[]) new DataAttributeData() .toArray(d.bitLength); for (DataAttributeData d_temp : data_array) { d_temp.data = new Memory(size / 8); d_temp.type = type_iec; d_temp.bitLength = size; d_temp.write(); } d.data = data_array[0].getPointer(); And then writing values whith this code: for (int i = 0; i < arraySize; i++) { DataAttributeData dataAttr = new DataAttributeData(d.data.share(i * d.size())); dataAttr.read(); dataAttr.data.setFloat(0, f[i]); dataAttr.write(); } the struct in c: struct DataAttributeData{ unsigned char ucType; int iArrayIndex; unsigned int uiBitLength; void * pvData;}; the struct in java: public static class DataAttributeData extends Structure { public DataAttributeData(Pointer p) { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub super(p); } public DataAttributeData() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub super(); } public byte type; public int iArrayIndex; public int bitLength; public Pointer data; @Override protected List<String> getFieldOrder() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return Arrays.asList(new String[] { "type", "iArrayIndex", "bitLength", "data" }); } } Can anybody help me?

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