Search Results

Search found 61986 results on 2480 pages for 'launch time'.

Page 539/2480 | < Previous Page | 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546  | Next Page >

• Custom URL protocol in Windows to serve HTML content

  - by Jen

  This question addresses how to register a custom URL protocol to launch an application in response to a link, but I want my handler to serve dynamic content. Essentially, I'm looking to create a web application that runs on the user's machine instead of a web server. I could set up a localhost, but I want to use a "friendly" URL format that the user can reference elsewhere, e.g. a hypothetical cats protocol: cats:fluffy/cheeseburger-consumption-stats How can I accomplish this? Also, do you see any pitfalls with this approach, such as security warnings from browsers? Thanks!

  Read the article

• PreferenceActivity not showing twice on android

  - by Andrea

  Hello there, i've a PreferenceActivity which works perfectly the first time i launch it. But if i close it ( with the back button ) and then i re open it ( through a menu click in the main activity ) then i get a black screen. There is no preferences at all.. I can't figure it out why it should not working. It seems all the code is being called normally as the working one but no preferences are showing on the screen. Did someone had the same behaviour ?

  Read the article

• Activity triggered by a click on a Notification

  - by Zelig63

  From a Service, I trigger a Notification which, when clicked, has to launch an Activity. To do this, I use the following code : notification=new Notification(icone,title,System.currentTimeMillis()); intent=new Intent(getApplicationContext(),myActivity.class); intent.putExtra("org.mypackage.name",true); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); pendingIntent=PendingIntent.getActivity(getApplicationContext(),0,intent,PendingIntent.FLAG_ONE_SHOT); notification.setLatestEventInfo(getApplicationContext(),title,"Message",pendingIntent); notification.flags|=Notification.FLAG_AUTO_CANCEL; ((NotificationManager)contexte.getSystemService(Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE)).notify("label,0,notification); When I click on the Notification, the Activity is correctly launched. But it's Intent doesn't contain the extra boolean added with the line intent.putExtra("org.mypackage.name",true);. Does anyone have an idea of this behaviour? I can add that I use Android 4. Thanks in advance for the time you will spend trying to help me.

  Read the article

• Is there a FAST way to export and install an app on my phone, while signing it with my own keystore?

  - by Alexei Andreev

  So, I've downloaded my own application from the market and installed it on my phone. Now, I am trying to install a temporary new version from Eclipse, but here is the message I get: Re-installation failed due to different application signatures. You must perform a full uninstall of the application. WARNING: This will remove the application data! Please execute 'adb uninstall com.applicationName' in a shell. Launch canceled! Now, I really really don't want to uninstall the application, because I will lose all my data. One solution I found is to Export my application, creating new .apk, and then install it via HTC Sync (probably a different program based on what phone you have). The problem is this takes a long time to do, since I need to enter the password for the keystore each time and then wait for HTC Sync. It's a pain in the ass! So the question is: Is there a way to make Eclipse automatically use my keystore to sign the application (quickly and automatically)? Or perhaps to replace debug keystore with my own? Or perhaps just tell it to remember the password, so I don't have to enter it every time...? Or some other way to solve this problem?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC URL Routing problem

  - by Sadegh

  hi, i have defined a route as below: context.MapRoute("SearchEngineWebSearch", "search/web/{query}/{index}/{size}", new { controller = "search", action = "web", query = "", index = 0, size = 5 }); and action method to handle request match with that: public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Web(string query = "", int index = 0, int size = 5) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) return RedirectToRoute("SearchEngineBasicSearch"); var search = new Search(); var results = search.PerformSearch(query, index, size); ViewData["Query"] = query; if (results != null && results.Count() > 0) { ViewData["Results"]= results; return View("Web"); } else return View("Not-Found"); } and form to sent parameter to action method: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Web", "Search", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <input name="query" type="text" value="<%: ViewData["Query"]%>" class="search-field" /> <input type="submit" value="Search" class="search-button" /> <input type="hidden" name="index" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="size" value="2" /> <%} %> now after click on submit and sending value to action method all route values updated but url values still is equals to first time of sending parameter. for example if i sent for first time request such as http://localhost/search/web/google and for next time http://localhost/search/web/yahoo, query parameter which passed to action method is yahoo but url after postback is http://localhost/search/web/google still! can anybody help me plz? ;)

  Read the article

• Get a list of Android phone contacts only on Eclair and above?

  - by Rob Kent

  I want to show the user a flattened pick list of all their contacts phone numbers and it must work from versions 1.6 up. I have read the related questions on SO and the Android documentation for Eclair (http://developer.android.com/resources/articles/contacts.html#legacy). The problem is, even splitting my code into a factory class and specific implementations does not work for me because using Contacts.CONTENT_URI only shows contacts not individual numbers. What I need is this for version 1.6 Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_PICK, Phones.CONTENT_URI); startActivityForResult(intent, REQUEST_PICK_CONTACT); And the equivalent for 2.0 and above. Even if I get their example to work, by building against the 2.1 API am I not stopping my app being visible on the Market to users with earlier versions of the OS? I can't launch it against a 1.6 emulator, for example.

  Read the article

• Fast way to manually mod a number

  - by Nikolai Mushegian

  I need to be able to calculate (a^b) % c for very large values of a and b (which individually are pushing limit and which cause overflow errors when you try to calculate a^b). For small enough numbers, using the identity (a^b)%c = (a%c)^b%c works, but if c is too large this doesn't really help. I wrote a loop to do the mod operation manually, one a at a time: private static long no_Overflow_Mod(ulong num_base, ulong num_exponent, ulong mod) { long answer = 1; for (int x = 0; x < num_exponent; x++) { answer = (answer * num_base) % mod; } return answer; } but this takes a very long time. Is there any simple and fast way to do this operation without actually having to take a to the power of b AND without using time-consuming loops? If all else fails, I can make a bool array to represent a huge data type and figure out how to do this with bitwise operators, but there has to be a better way.

  Read the article

• What hash algorithms are paralellizable? Optimizing the hashing of large files utilizing on mult-co

  - by DanO

  I'm interested in optimizing the hashing of some large files (optimizing wall clock time). The I/O has been optimized well enough already and the I/O device (local SSD) is only tapped at about 25% of capacity, while one of the CPU cores is completely maxed-out. I have more cores available, and in the future will likely have even more cores. So far I've only been able to tap into more cores if I happen to need multiple hashes of the same file, say an MD5 AND a SHA256 at the same time. I can use the same I/O stream to feed two or more hash algorithms, and I get the faster algorithms done for free (as far as wall clock time). As I understand most hash algorithms, each new bit changes the entire result, and it is inherently challenging/impossible to do in parallel. Are any of the mainstream hash algorithms parallelizable? Are there any non-mainstream hashes that are parallelizable (and that have at least a sample implementation available)? As future CPUs will trend toward more cores and a leveling off in clock speed, is there any way to improve the performance of file hashing? (other than liquid nitrogen cooled overclocking?) or is it inherently non-parallelizable?

  Read the article

• Building out a well-structured service layer

  - by Chris Stewart

  First, I want to say that it has been awhile since I've gotten into the kind of detail I am at currently. Lately, I've been very much in the SharePoint world and my entire thought process was focused there for quite some time. I'm very glad to be creating databases again, writing "lower level" code to deal with data access, and so forth. I'm working on a very simple web application and taking the opportunity to reacquaint myself with the way I used to structure my projects and various layers of code. For instance, I might have created something like this the last time I went about building something basic from scratch: - MyProject/ -- Domain/ --- Impl/ ---- Person -- Model/ --- IPersonRepository --- Impl/ ---- PersonRepository : IPersonRepository -- Services --- IPersonService --- Impl/ ---- PersonService : IPersonService That would have been the project I did the real work in, and then referenced in the ASP.NET project. My approach was very much inspired by what I saw from the CodeCampServer project as at that time ASP.NET MVC was still very new and it was the only open project I could find actively being developed, and by solid people at that. What ways are you going about structuring your projects and code, when it comes to a general problem you're working on? Certainly various problems can put constraints on this, but assume it's a basic problem without specific needs that affect the structure and layout of your code.

  Read the article

• After pip installing uWSGI there's no /etc/uwsgi/ directory - how can I use apps-enabled?

  - by orokusaki

  I've been using apt-get install uwsgi to install uWSGI. Today, I realized I needed a feature that's not available until uWSGI 1.1, and Ubuntu 12.04.1 doesn't have anything after 1.0.x, at least according to my apt-get install uwsgi=1.1 attempt. So, I used: pip install http://projects.unbit.it/downloads/uwsgi-lts.tar.gz After doing so, I get a message prescribing the use of /usr/local/bin/uwsgi to launch the program. I'm not a guru when it comes to compiling from source, but my understanding is that when you do so, nothing will be changed in the /etc/ directory. Is this correct? If not, why don't I have a /etc/uwsgi/ directory and, more specifically, a /etc/uwsgi/apps-enabled/ directory? Should I simply create the directories when installing uWSGI from source? I was hesitant to do so, considering there is no mention of this in the docs (I don't want something that accidentally works, etc.).

  Read the article

• Changing the onClick area when adding an event

  - by Josh Breslow

  Is there anyway to change what a user clicks on to add an event? Right now the entire day is clickable. This becomes an issue when the user needs to put focus back on that window, requiring a mouse click. If they click on the calendar, which takes up most of the page, then they launch the "Add Event" function. Is there a way to have a Plus sign (+), or whatever symbol in each day that when clicked, launches the "Add Event" function? Or... Is there a way to have a button across the top that said, "Add Event"?

  Read the article

• Debug a local maven dependency with eclipse

  - by mcamier

  i have two maven projects, the first one is a library and the other one use it to works properly, the both have to elvolve regardless each other, this is why i use two different project. But breakpoints on my library code doesn't work when i launch my app (the second application). This is how i include my library in the second project's POM (my IDE is eclipse and projects are in the same workspaces) <dependency> <groupId>com.mcamier</groupId> <artifactId>lazyEngine</artifactId> <version>0.0.1-SNAPSHOT</version> <scope>system</scope> <systemPath>${basedir}/../lazyEngine/target/lazyEngine-0.0.1-SNAPSHOT-jar-with-dependencies.jar</systemPath> </dependency>

  Read the article

• Flushing writes in buffer of Memory Controller to DDR device

  - by Rohit

  At some point in my code, I need to push the writes in my code all the way to the DIMM or DDR device. My requirement is to ensure the write reaches the row,ban,column of the DDR device on the DIMM. I need to read what I've written to the main memory. I do not want caching to get me the value. Instead after writing I want to fetch this value from main memory(DIMM's). So far I've been using Intel's x86 instruction wbinvd(write back and invalidate cache). However this means the caches and TLB are flushed. Write-back requests go to the main memory. However, there is a reasonable amount of time this data might reside in the write buffer of the Memory Controller( Intel calls it integrated memory controller or IMC). The Memory Controller might take some more time depending on the algorithm that runs in the Memory Controller to handle writes. Is there a way I force all existing or pending writes in the write buffer of the memory controller to the DRAM devices ?? What I am looking for is something more direct and more low-level than wbinvd. If you could point me to right documents or specs that describe this I would be grateful. Generally, the IMC has a several registers which can be written or read from. From looking at the specs for that for the chipset I could not find anything useful. Thanks for taking the time to read this.

  Read the article

• When to drop an IT job

  - by Nippysaurus

  In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

  Read the article

• Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';'

  - by sufoid

  Hallo I have this script: <? require("lib2/config.inc.php"); require("lib2/tpl.class.php"); require("lib2/db.class.php"); require("lib2/um.class.php"); $tpl = new template("templates", "tpl"); $db = new db($db['location'], $db['username'], $db['passwort'], $db['database']); $um = new usermanagment(); /** User login **/ $checklogin = $um->check_login(); $userdata = $um->getuserdata(); if(!$checklogin && !$guest) { header("LOCATION: ./index2.php"); } eval("\$header .= \" ".$tpl->get("header")."\";"); eval("\$footer .= \" ".$tpl->get("footer")."\";"); $time = time(); $db->Query("UPDATE userdaten SET lastaction = '$time' WHERE userid = '".$userdata['userid']."'"); ?> And get this error: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';' in /home/httpd/html/login/global.php(22) : eval()'d code on line 96 Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Concurrent Programming:Should I write a sequential program first, then add thread safety?

  - by evthim

  I'm working on a project where we have to create a number of threads(actual number will be inputted in by testers (TA's)). I'm having trouble not only with the programming but also with the design, I can't wrap my head around all of the threads that will be invoked and where I might cause errors. The project is due soon so I don't want to waste time on this if it'll actually set me back, but I was wondering if I should write the program like only one thread will be running and everything should be sequential and then later go back and try to add the thread safety parts of the code? Would that take twice the original amount of time? Project Description: Note:I'm going to be as vague as possible so I don't violate any honor codes, sorry :( your program should accept n number of objectA threads, m number of objectB threads, and r number of objectC objectB threads interact with code in objectA. objectA threads interact with code in objectB and objectC objectB and objectC don't directly interact, but do so indirectly through objectA -ex: objectB needs something from objectA. objectA gets the result for that something by calling objectC my confusion stems mostly from the fact that all of this interactions will be done by m+n threads and there are various restrictions throughout the descriptions, like objectB can request something from objectA, and objectA has to wait for objectC to finish that something before returning it to objectB. Also each objectA thread can only work on one instruction from objectB at a time, etc. etc. I just want to know if I write the code so that there is only 1 objectA, 1 objectB and 1 object C, can I go back and easily modify it so that those 1's can be changed to m, n and r? Sorry again, if my description is a little bit confusing.

  Read the article

• Regular expression, excluding .. in suffix of email addy

  - by user1754700

  This is homework, I've been working on it for a while, I've done lots of reading and feel I have gotten pretty familiar with regex for a beginner. I am trying to find a regular expression for validating/invalidating a list of emails. There are two addresses which are giving me problems, I can't get them both to validate the correct way at the same time. I've gone through a dozen different expressions that work for all the other emails on the list but I can't get those two at the same time. First, the addresses. [email protected] - invalid [email protected] - valid The part of my expression which validates the suffix I originally started with @.+\\.[[a-z]0-9]+ And had a second pattern for checking some more invalid addresses and checked the email against both patterns, one checked for validity the other invalidity but my professor said he wanted it all in on expression. @[[\\w]+\\.[\\w]+]+ or @[\\w]+\\.[\\w]+ I've tried it written many, many different ways but I'm pretty sure I was just using different syntax to express these two expressions. I know what I want it to do, I want it to match a character class of "character+"."character+"+ The plus sign being at least one. It works for the invalid class when I only allow the character class to repeat one time(and obviously the ip doesn't get matched), but when I allow the character class to repeat itself it matches the second period even thought it isn't preceded by a character. I don't understand why.

  Read the article

• Using excel import wizard through code?

  - by baron

  I am creating a Generate Report button for some data in my application. The report will just generate a CSV file, which I then automatically launch in excel. Problem is with one of the data fields, is text and has leading zeroes (which I need to keep). When the file is automatically opened in excel, excel automatically trims these. Is there anyway I can get it so that it opens with the data in the format I want it. I know you achieve this normally by opening the CSV file from within excel and can do the import wizard. So one potential solution would be to auto open the import wizard when the app launches this file. I don't know if this is possible. Thanks for reading.

  Read the article

• Help with why my app crashed?

  - by Moshe

  I'm writing an iPad app that is a "kiosk" app. The iPad should be hanging on the wall and the app should just run. I did a test, starting the app last night (Friday, December 31) and letting it run. This morning, when I woke up, it was not running. I just checked the iPad's console and I can't figure out why it crashed. The iPad was plugged in and so the battery is not the issued. I did disable the idleTimer in my application delegate. The app was seen running as late as midnight last night. I would like to note that my app acts as a Bluetooth server through Game Kit and large portion of the console output is occupied by bluetooth status messages. When I opened the iPad, the app was paused and there was a system alert which prompted me to check an "Expiring Provisioning Profile". I tapped "dismiss" and the alert went away. The app crashed about a second after I dismissed the system alert. Any ideas how I can diagnose this problem? Why would my app crash? Here is my iPad's Console log, as copied from Xcode's organizer. Edit: A bit of Googling lead me to this site which says that alert views cause the app to lose focus. Could that be involved? What can I do to fix the problem? EDIT2: My Crash log describes the situation as: Application Specific Information: appname failed to resume in time Elapsed total CPU time (seconds): 10.010 (user 8.070, system 1.940), 100% CPU Elapsed application CPU time (seconds): 9.470, 95% CPU

  Read the article

• Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

  - by Evgeny

  I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

  Read the article

• Populating and Using Dynamic Classes in C#/.NET 4.0

  - by Bob

  In our application we're considering using dynamically generated classes to hold a lot of our data. The reason for doing this is that we have customers with tables that have different structures. So you could have a customer table called "DOG" (just making this up) that contains the columns "DOGID", "DOGNAME", "DOGTYPE", etc. Customer #2 could have the same table "DOG" with the columns "DOGID", "DOG_FIRST_NAME", "DOG_LAST_NAME", "DOG_BREED", and so on. We can't create classes for these at compile time as the customer can change the table schema at any time. At the moment I have code that can generate a "DOG" class at run-time using reflection. What I'm trying to figure out is how to populate this class from a DataTable (or some other .NET mechanism) without extreme performance penalties. We have one table that contains ~20 columns and ~50k rows. Doing a foreach over all of the rows and columns to create the collection take about 1 minute, which is a little too long. Am I trying to come up with a solution that's too complex or am I on the right track? Has anyone else experienced a problem like this? Create dynamic classes was the solution that a developer at Microsoft proposed. If we can just populate this collection and use it efficiently I think it could work.

  Read the article

• What's the correct way to stop a background process on Mac OS X?

  - by mcsheffrey

  I have an application with 2 components: a desktop application that users interact with, and a background process that can be enabled from the desktop application. Once the background process is enabled, it will run as a user launch agent independently of the desktop app. However, what I'm wondering is what to do when the user disables the background process. At this point I want to stop the background process but I'm not sure what the best approach is. The 3 options that I see are: Use the 'kill' command. Direct, but not reliable and just seems somewhat "wrong". Use an NSMachPort to send an exit request from the desktop app to the background process. This is the best approach I've thought of but I've run into an implementation problem (I'll be posting this in a separate query) and I'd like to be sure that the approach is right before going much further. Something else??? Thank you in advance for any help/insight that you can offer.

  Read the article

• Why is this linq extension method hit the database twice?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I have an extension method called ToListIfNotNullOrEmpty(), which is hitting the DB twice, instead of once. The first time it returns one result, the second time it returns all the correct results. I'm pretty sure the first time it hits the database, is when the .Any() method is getting called. here's the code. public static IList<T> ToListIfNotNullOrEmpty<T>(this IEnumerable<T> value) { if (value.IsNullOrEmpty()) { return null; } if (value is IList<T>) { return (value as IList<T>); } return new List<T>(value); } public static bool IsNullOrEmpty<T>(this IEnumerable<T> value) { if (value != null) { return !value.Any(); } return true; } I'm hoping to refactor it so that, before the .Any() method is called, it actually enumerates through the entire list. If i do the following, only one DB call is made, because the list is already enumerated. var pewPew = (from x in whatever select x) .ToList() // This enumerates. .ToListIsNotNullOrEmpty(); // This checks the enumerated result. I sorta don't really want to call ToList() then my extension method. Any ideas, folks?

  Read the article

• How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

  - by Khnle

  I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

  Read the article

• Problem: connecting to drupal on hostgator without pointed domain.

  - by Kirk

  I need to connect to drupal on a website that I'm programming on a hostgator account. The website that I'm working on currently receives a lot of traffic, and I would like to make sure that it is fully functional before I launch the new website. The old website was programmed with .asp which hostgator doesn't support, and the old webhost doesn't support drupal or .php which are integral to the new web design. Drupal 6 has been freshly installed on my website, but when I try to login, it redirects me to http://gator83.hostgator.com/?q=node&destination=node instead of the drupal control panel. Is it possible to work around this? Thank you in advance.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546  | Next Page >