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  • Zend_Controller_Router_Route: Could not find a translator

    - by Antonio
    I am developing a multilanguage application. In the bootstrap there is the routes setup: protected function _initRoutes() { $this->bootstrap('frontController'); $router = $this->frontController->getRouter(); // PAGES ROUTE $page = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( ':language/:ident', array( 'module' => 'core', 'controller' => 'pagine', 'action' => 'view' ), array( 'ident' => '[a-zA-Z-_0-9]{3,}', 'language' => '[a-z]{2}' ) ); $registrazione = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( ':language/@utenti/@registrati', array( 'module' => 'core', 'controller' => 'utenti', 'action' => 'registrazione' ), array( 'language' => '[a-z]{2}' ) ); $router->addRoute('page', $page); $router->addRoute('registrazione', $registrazione); ..... } I cannot set the default translator to Zend_Controller_Router_Route (for translated segments) because i don't know the language parameter in the request object. I get the language parameter in Multilanguage Plugin during the "routeShutdown": class Activa_Controller_Plugin_Multilanguage extends Zend_Controller_Plugin_Abstract { public function routeShutdown(Zend_Controller_Request_Abstract $request) { $language = $request->getParam("language"); $locale = new Zend_Locale($language); $translate = new Zend_Translate('array', APPLICATION_PATH.'/config/lang/'.$language.'.php', $locale); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Locale', $locale); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Translate', $translate); Zend_Controller_Router_Route::setDefaultTranslator($translate); //////////////////////// // BUT NOW IS TOO LATE //////////////////////// } When i type the address "http://servername/it/utenti/registrati" i get the exception with the message "Could not find a translator". How can i fix it? Antonio (Italy)

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  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

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  • How do I rewrite a for loop with a shared dependency using actors

    - by Thomas Rynne
    We have some code which needs to run faster. Its already profiled so we would like to make use of multiple threads. Usually I would setup an in memory queue, and have a number of threads taking jobs of the queue and calculating the results. For the shared data I would use a ConcurrentHashMap or similar. I don't really want to go down that route again. From what I have read using actors will result in cleaner code and if I use akka migrating to more than 1 jvm should be easier. Is that true? However, I don't know how to think in actors so I am not sure where to start. To give a better idea of the problem here is some sample code: case class Trade(price:Double, volume:Int, stock:String) { def value(priceCalculator:PriceCalculator) = (priceCalculator.priceFor(stock)-> price)*volume } class PriceCalculator { def priceFor(stock:String) = { Thread.sleep(20)//a slow operation which can be cached 50.0 } } object ValueTrades { def valueAll(trades:List[Trade], priceCalculator:PriceCalculator):List[(Trade,Double)] = { trades.map { trade => (trade,trade.value(priceCalculator)) } } def main(args:Array[String]) { val trades = List( Trade(30.5, 10, "Foo"), Trade(30.5, 20, "Foo") //usually much longer ) val priceCalculator = new PriceCalculator val values = valueAll(trades, priceCalculator) } } I'd appreciate it if someone with experience using actors could suggest how this would map on to actors.

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  • Why am I getting a permission denied error on my public folder?

    - by Robin Fisher
    Hi all, This one has got me stumped. I'm deploying a Rails 3 app to Slicehost running Apache 2 and Passenger. My server is running Ruby 1.9.1 using RVM. I am receiving a permission denied error on the "public" folder in my app. My Virtual Host is setup as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName sharerplane.com ServerAlias www.sharerplane.com ServerAlias *.sharerplane.com DocumentRoot /home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/current/public/ <Directory "/home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/public/"> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> PassengerDefaultUser robinjfisher </VirtualHost> I've tried the following things: trailing slash on public; no trailing slash on public; PassengerUserSwitching on and off; PassengerDefaultUser set and not set; with and without the block. The public folder is owned by robinjfisher:www-data and Passenger is running as robinjfisher so I can't see why there are permission issues. Does anybody have any thoughts? Thanks Robin PS. Have disabled the site for the time being to avoid indexing so what is there currently is not the site in question.

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  • ASP.NET Login Control rejects users who exist

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm having some trouble with the ASP.NET 2.0 Login Control. I've setup a database with the aspI.net regsql tool. I've checked the application name. It is set to "/". The application can access the SQL Server. In fact, when I go to retrieve the password, it will even send me the password. Despite this, the login control continues to reject logins. I added this to the web.config: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetSqlProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlProvider" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer" applicationName="/" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"/> </providers> And I added the following to my connection strings: <remove name="LocalSqlServer" /> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Data Source=IDC-4\EXCALIBUR;Initial Catalog=allied_nr;Integrated Security=True;Asynchronous Processing=True"/> (Note the "remove name" is to get rid of the default connection string in the App_Data directory.) Why won't the login control authenticate users?

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  • sizer.replace() paints "over" old sizercontent

    - by elbenfreund
    hi. I am rather new to wx/python so please excuse if this is stupid or ill described. I am substituting a nested sizer with a new one as shown in the snippet below. after some tinkering everything seems to work out but the re-drawing of the parent-sizer. the content of the old nested sizer remains and gets "painted" over with the new sizer content despite my sizer.Layout() system setup: - python 2.5.5.2 and 2.6.4 - wxpython 2.8 -- coding: utf8 -- import wx class Frame(wx.Frame): def init(self): wx.Frame.init(self, None, wx.ID_ANY, title='test') class Test(wx.App): def OnInit(self): frame = Frame() self.panel = wx.Panel(frame) self.panel.SetBackgroundColour('red') self.sizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.VERTICAL) button = wx.Button(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'TEST') self.hsizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.HORIZONTAL) self.hsizer.Add(wx.StaticText(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'nacknack')) self.sizer.Add(button) self.Bind(wx.EVT_BUTTON, self.on_test_button, button) self.text = wx.StaticText(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'FOOO') self.sizer.Add(self.text) self.sizer.Add(self.hsizer) self.panel.SetSizer(self.sizer) frame.Show() return True def on_test_button(self, evt): tmpsizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.VERTICAL) tmpsizer.Add(self.makesizer()) tmpitem = tmpsizer.GetChildren()[0] self.sizer.Replace(2, tmpitem) self.sizer.Layout() def makesizer(self): testsizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.HORIZONTAL) testsizer.Add(wx.StaticText(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'testsizer')) return testsizer if __name__ == '__main__': app = Test() app.MainLoop()

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  • Sourcing a shell script, while running with sudo

    - by WishCow
    I would like to write a shell script that sets up a mercurial repository, and allow all users in the group "developers" to execute this script. The script is owned by the user "hg", and works fine when ran. The problem comes when I try to run it with another user, using sudo, the execution halts with a "permission denied" error, when it tries to source another file. The script file in question: create_repo.sh #!/bin/bash source colors.sh REPOROOT="/srv/repository/mercurial/" ... rest of the script .... Permissions of create_repo.sh, and colors.sh: -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 551 2011-01-07 10:20 colors.sh -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 1137 2011-01-07 11:08 create_repo.sh Sudoers setup: %developer ALL = (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh What I'm trying to run: user@nebu:~$ id uid=1000(user) gid=1000(user) groups=4(adm),20(dialout),24(cdrom),46(plugdev),105(lpadmin),113(sambashare),116(admin),1000(user),1001(developer) user@nebu:~$ sudo -l Matching Defaults entries for user on this host: env_reset User user may run the following commands on this host: (ALL) ALL (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh: line 3: colors.sh: Permission denied So the script is executed, but halts when it tries to include the other script. I have also tried using: user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /bin/bash /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh Which gives the same result. What is the correct way to include another shell script, if the script may be ran with a different user, through sudo?

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • How to disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5 (asp net mvc3)

    - by troebr
    I'm struggling with my IIS setup regarding caching, here's a brief description of my problem: I'm making a site for mobile and non-mobile, sharing the same controllers. IE: mysite/page will serve either mysite/page.cshtml, or mysite/M/page.cshtml, depending on the device. Here's the catch, it worked fine with my local and integration environment (cassiini and iis 6), but on another machine (2008r2/iis 7.5), apparently there is an aggressive server-side caching policy: If I access the website from a desktop machine, I have the correct pages (desktop version) If now I use my mobile phone to access the site, I will have the desktop version, (which implies a server-side cache, my phone is not using the same network). On the contrary, if I were to restart the server and access the site using my phone first, then I will get the mobile version on my desktop (only for the pages I already visited of course). I tried 2 solutions so far: Disabling OutputCache from my Web.config: <httpModules> [..] <remove name="OutputCache" /> </httpModules> And unchecking "Enable output cache" in "Output Caching" for my site in IIS. What's bugging me is that I do not have this problem with my other server (iis 6.0), although caching is enabled on this one, which leads me to think it is related to iis 7 caching addition. My question is simple: how does one disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5? Thanks in advance for your iis lights!

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • TinyMCE is glitchy/unusable in IE8

    - by Force Flow
    I'm using the jQuery version of TinyMCE 3.3.9.3 In firefox, it works fine (10 sec video depicting it in use): http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TrAE0igfT3I In IE8 (in IE8 standards mode), I can't type or click any buttons. However, if I use ctrl+v to paste, then I can start typing, but the buttons still don't work (a 45 sec video depicting it in use): http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iBSRlE8D8F4 The jQuery TinyMCE demo on TinyMCE's site works for me in IE8. Here's the init code: $().ready(function(){ function tinymce_focus(){ $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout').css({'border-color' : '#6478D7'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceFirst td').css({'border-top-color' : '#6478D7'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceLast td').css({'border-bottom-color' : '#6478D7'}); } function tinymce_blur(){ $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout').css({'border-color' : '#93a6e1'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceFirst td').css({'border-top-color' : '#93a6e1'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceLast td').css({'border-bottom-color' : '#93a6e1'}); } $('textarea.tinymce').tinymce({ script_url : 'JS/tinymce/tiny_mce.js', theme : "advanced", mode : "exact", invalid_elements : "b,i,iframe,font,input,textarea,select,button,form,fieldset,legend,script,noscript,object,embed,table,img,a,h1,h2,h3,h4,h5,h6", //theme options theme_advanced_buttons1 : "cut,copy,paste,pastetext,pasteword,selectall,|,undo,redo,|,cleanup,removeformat,|", theme_advanced_buttons2 : "bold,italic,underline,|,bullist,numlist,|,forecolor,backcolor,|", theme_advanced_buttons3 : "", theme_advanced_buttons4 : "", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location : "none", theme_advanced_resizing : false, //plugins plugins : "inlinepopups,paste", dialog_type : "modal", paste_auto_cleanup_on_paste : true, setup: function(ed){ ed.onInit.add(function(ed){ //check for addEventListener -- primarily supported by firefox only var edDoc = ed.getDoc(); if ("addEventListener" in edDoc){ edDoc.addEventListener("focus", function(){ tinymce_focus(); }, false); edDoc.addEventListener("blur", function(){ tinymce_blur(); }, false); } }); } }); }); Any ideas as to why it's not working in IE8? [edit]: stripping everything out of the init (leaving just script_url and theme) results in the same symptoms

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  • Apache gettext windows does not work/translate

    - by Prashant Kandathil
    I am new to gettext. Here is my setup: /Apache 2.2 PHP 5.3.6 Windows 7/ I have following code in the Apache/htdocs/test/index.php <?php $language = 'de_DE'; $translatefile = 'messages'; setlocale(LC_ALL, $language); putenv("LANG=".$language); bindtextdomain($translatefile, 'C:/locale'); textdomain($translatefile); echo gettext("Hello World!"); ?> I used PoEdit to generate the necessary translations under locale/de_DE/LC_MESSAGES/messsages.po & messages.mo The charset I used was UTF-8 When I visit http://localhost/test, the result is Hello World! when it should be Hall Welt! As a test, I opened command prompt and navigated to the test folder. Then I typed in php index.php The result that appeared in the console was Hall Welt! I am not sure why it is not working with Apache.

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  • PHP JQuery: Where to specify uploadify destination folder

    - by Eamonn
    I have an uploadify script running, basic setup. Works fine when I hard code the destination folder for the images into uploadify.php - now I want to make that folder dynamic. How do I do this? I have a PHP variable $uploadify_path which contains the path to the folder I want. I have switched out my hard coded $targetPath = path/to/directory for $targetPath = $uploadify_path in both uploadify.php and check_exists.php, but it does not work. The file upload animation runs, says it is complete, yet the directory remains empty. The file is not hiding out somewhere else either. I see there is an option in the Javascript to specify a folder. I tried this also, but to no avail. If anyone could educate me on how to pass this variable destination to uploadify, I'd be very grateful. I include my current code for checking (basically default): The Javascript <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#file_upload').uploadify({ 'swf' : 'uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'uploader' : 'uploadify/uploadify.php', // Put your options here }); }); </script> uploadify.php $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $uploadify_path; // Relative to the root if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetFile = $targetPath . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // Validate the file type $fileTypes = array('jpg','jpeg','gif','png'); // File extensions $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$fileTypes)) { move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo '1'; } else { echo 'Invalid file type.'; } }

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  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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  • Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

    - by Guenther Jehle
    I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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  • Do I need to implement an XMPP server?

    - by WTFITS
    (newbie alert) I need to program a multiparty communication service for a course project, and I am considering XMPP for it. The service needs following messaging semantics: 1) server will provide a method of registering and unregistering an address such as [email protected]/SomeResource. (for now I will do it manually). 2) server will provide a method of forwarding incoming messages from, say, [email protected]/SomeResource to [email protected]/someOtherResource, assuming that the latter is registered, and a method for removing this forwarding. (for now I will do it manually). 3) anonymous clients can send messages to, say, [email protected]/someresource (one way traffic only). If there is any forwarding setup, the message will be forwarded. Finally if the address is [email protected]/someresource is registered, the message will be stored for later delivery (or immediate if a retrieving client is online - see below). If no forwarding and unregistered, message will be silently dropped. 4) clients can connect and retrieve messages from a registered address. Exact method of authenticating clients (e.g., passwords?) is yet to be determined. Eventually, I want to add support for clients to connect from a web browser so they can register/unregister and set/remove forwarding themselves. Thus, the server will have to do some non-standard switching. Will I need to implement an XMPP server for this? I guess some (or all?) of this can also be done using a XMPP client bot

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  • AnkhSVN: Cannot checkout Subsolution due to existing "versioned" folder

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone I am using Subversion since quite some time for Java-Development and I have setup a repository on my local NAS. Since I have a MSDN subscription via my company I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 to do a small project with .NET. According to some "best-practices" my project folder looks like the following. MySolution main.sln Services services.sln Service A files Service A Test files View projectfiles Persistence persistence.sln PersistenceXml files PersistenceXml Test files PersistenceDB files PersistenceDB Test files The idea is, that the main.sln only contains the projects for the application, meaning no test projects. The subsolutions, contain the project(s) and their corresponding testprojects. I was able to put all those projects under versioncontrol with AnkhSVN, so I have the same structure there in my trunk. Commiting changes was also no problem. Now I would like to check the this out on another machine. I was able to check out the main.sln which downloaded everything that was inside this solution. It skipped the services.sln, persistence.sln and all the test-projects. Until now everything is fine. Now, here comes the problem: when I am tryting to check out the subsolution (eg. services.sln) I get an error, I think it was UnsupportedOperation. I guess this happens because ankhsvn is tryting to download the folder Service A again and create ist hidden .svn folder which is already present. The only workaround I can think of by now is installing Tortoise SVN and check out the whole thing at once. It would be nicer though to have everything from within VS. Does anyone know how I can solve this? Is another client the only solution?

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  • How to let one external stylsheet selectively overrule the other

    - by Ferdy
    I'm stunned by a simple thing that I want to accomplish but does not work. I have a website and I want it to support themes, which are a named set of CSS + images. No matter which theme is selected, I always include the main CSS file, which is the default theme. On top of that I'm loading a second stylesheet, the one that is theme-specific, like so: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/main.css" title=main" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="themes/<?= $style ?>/css/<?= $style ?>.css" title="<?= $style ?>" media="screen" /> My idea is that the theme specific css should not be a full copy of the main css file. Instead, it should only contain CSS rules that overrule those of the main.css file. This makes themes much smaller and easier to maintain. I thought I could simply load two external stylesheets after each other and that for conflicting rules it will always use the theme specific css, the second file. However, it does not seem to work. If I make a dramatic styling change in the theme file then it has no effect. If I then comment the main CSS file, the theme CSS does have effect. Was I too naive in expecting this to work like this? I know I can use inline styles to overrule anything, but I prefer a setup like this if possible.

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  • GWT RPC and GoDaddy Shared Hosting

    - by Mike Apolis
    Hi, I've deployed the sample Stock Watcher app to my GoDaddy Hosting site, and I get the error below. I've tried compiling the Project in Eclipse with JRE 1.5 because my Host is using jre 1.5. I think the issue is the "gwt-servlet.jar" is not compatible with jre 1.5. Can anyone confirm this. The project runs fine on my local machine using JRE 1.6. Unfortunately GoDaddy will not upgrade my shared hosting account jre to 1.6. GoDaddy Server Setup: Tomcat Version 5.0.27 JRE 1.5_22 Error: HTTP Status 500 - type Exception report message description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request. exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Error allocating a servlet instance org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) root cause java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError: Bad version number in .class file java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:621) java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java: 124) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClassInternal(WebappClassLoader.java: 1634) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 860) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1307) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1189) java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.0.27 logs. Apache Tomcat/5.0.27

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • fix a columns width when a list is bound to a datagridview

    - by Andy
    I have a list that I have bound to a datagridview. I want the first column to be a fixed size. The data is bound to the dataGridView and I can't seem to find a way to access an individual colums properties. if I try myDatagridview.colums[0] I get an index out of bounds, since it says the columns count is 0. private DataGridView setUpDataGrid(List<NVRlineVal> _NVRData) { //setup dataGridView DataGridView NVRDataGridView = new System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView(); NVRDataGridView.ColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode.AutoSize; NVRDataGridView.Dock = System.Windows.Forms.DockStyle.Fill; NVRDataGridView.AutoSizeColumnsMode = DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnsMode.Fill; NVRDataGridView.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(3, 3); NVRDataGridView.Name = "NVRDataGridView" + nvrIndex; NVRDataGridView.RowHeadersWidthSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowHeadersWidthSizeMode.AutoSizeToDisplayedHeaders; NVRDataGridView.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(380, 401); NVRDataGridView.TabIndex = 0; NVRDataGridView.DataSource = _NVRData; var test = NVRDataGridView.Columns; NVRDataGridView.DataMember = "devState"; DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnMode.None; } Any ideas on how to have a fixed column width for only one of these columns, the rest will autosize?

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  • Faking Fixed Position in IE6

    - by Andrew
    I have a site that utilizes a bottom fixed position masthead here: http://www.entheospartners.com/newsite/ This setup works great in all browsers except IE6, which doesn't support fixed positioning in the least, so here's what I've done: When an IE6 user comes to the page, I make the determination if scrolling is necessary using this bit of code: var windowHeight = $(window).height(); var totalHeight = windowHeight - 100; // where 100 is the sum of the top nav height + footer height var contentHeight; if($('#subpage-content-small').length) { // main content div for a three column layout contentHeight = $('#subpage-content-small').height(); }; if($('#subpage-content-wide').length) { // main content div for a two column layout contentHeight = $('#subpage-content-wide').height(); }; if(contentHeight > totalHeight) { $('#container-container').css({ 'overflow-y' : "scroll", 'height' : totalHeight }); }; ...which calculates everything correctly, puts the scrollbars where they need to be (flush right), and sets them to the appropriate height. The problem is that the scrollbars don't move the content. I can't say that I've ever seen anything quite like this before, so I'm hoping someone else on here has. Thanks in advance! PS - Obviously, this needs to be looked at in IE6 for troubleshooting, which I know will be as painful for you as it is for me.

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  • Automatic Deployment of Windows Application

    - by dileepkrishnan
    Hi, We have setup continuos integration in our development environment using SVN, CC.Net, MSBuild and Nunit. Now, we want to automate the process of moving (copying) builds from one stage to another like this: Whenever a new build succeeds in Dev, that should be copied automatically to the QA server (a folder on the QA server, to be exact) Whenever a QA build succeeds tests in QA, that QA build should be copied to the UAT server (a folder on the UAT server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when QA succeeds. Whenever a UAT build succeeds tests in UAT, that should be copied to the PROD server (a folder on the PROD server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when UAT succeeds. How do I implement this? Can this be done using CC.Net alone? Or, can this be done using MSBuild? Or, do I need to employ both? Please advise what exactly needs to be done. Thanks Dileep Krishnan

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  • RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

    - by epitka
    I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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