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• Why am I getting a permission denied error on my public folder?

  - by Robin Fisher

  Hi all, This one has got me stumped. I'm deploying a Rails 3 app to Slicehost running Apache 2 and Passenger. My server is running Ruby 1.9.1 using RVM. I am receiving a permission denied error on the "public" folder in my app. My Virtual Host is setup as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName sharerplane.com ServerAlias www.sharerplane.com ServerAlias *.sharerplane.com DocumentRoot /home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/current/public/ <Directory "/home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/public/"> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> PassengerDefaultUser robinjfisher </VirtualHost> I've tried the following things: trailing slash on public; no trailing slash on public; PassengerUserSwitching on and off; PassengerDefaultUser set and not set; with and without the block. The public folder is owned by robinjfisher:www-data and Passenger is running as robinjfisher so I can't see why there are permission issues. Does anybody have any thoughts? Thanks Robin PS. Have disabled the site for the time being to avoid indexing so what is there currently is not the site in question.

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• How do I rewrite a for loop with a shared dependency using actors

  - by Thomas Rynne

  We have some code which needs to run faster. Its already profiled so we would like to make use of multiple threads. Usually I would setup an in memory queue, and have a number of threads taking jobs of the queue and calculating the results. For the shared data I would use a ConcurrentHashMap or similar. I don't really want to go down that route again. From what I have read using actors will result in cleaner code and if I use akka migrating to more than 1 jvm should be easier. Is that true? However, I don't know how to think in actors so I am not sure where to start. To give a better idea of the problem here is some sample code: case class Trade(price:Double, volume:Int, stock:String) { def value(priceCalculator:PriceCalculator) = (priceCalculator.priceFor(stock)-> price)*volume } class PriceCalculator { def priceFor(stock:String) = { Thread.sleep(20)//a slow operation which can be cached 50.0 } } object ValueTrades { def valueAll(trades:List[Trade], priceCalculator:PriceCalculator):List[(Trade,Double)] = { trades.map { trade => (trade,trade.value(priceCalculator)) } } def main(args:Array[String]) { val trades = List( Trade(30.5, 10, "Foo"), Trade(30.5, 20, "Foo") //usually much longer ) val priceCalculator = new PriceCalculator val values = valueAll(trades, priceCalculator) } } I'd appreciate it if someone with experience using actors could suggest how this would map on to actors.

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• Sourcing a shell script, while running with sudo

  - by WishCow

  I would like to write a shell script that sets up a mercurial repository, and allow all users in the group "developers" to execute this script. The script is owned by the user "hg", and works fine when ran. The problem comes when I try to run it with another user, using sudo, the execution halts with a "permission denied" error, when it tries to source another file. The script file in question: create_repo.sh #!/bin/bash source colors.sh REPOROOT="/srv/repository/mercurial/" ... rest of the script .... Permissions of create_repo.sh, and colors.sh: -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 551 2011-01-07 10:20 colors.sh -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 1137 2011-01-07 11:08 create_repo.sh Sudoers setup: %developer ALL = (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh What I'm trying to run: user@nebu:~$ id uid=1000(user) gid=1000(user) groups=4(adm),20(dialout),24(cdrom),46(plugdev),105(lpadmin),113(sambashare),116(admin),1000(user),1001(developer) user@nebu:~$ sudo -l Matching Defaults entries for user on this host: env_reset User user may run the following commands on this host: (ALL) ALL (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh: line 3: colors.sh: Permission denied So the script is executed, but halts when it tries to include the other script. I have also tried using: user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /bin/bash /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh Which gives the same result. What is the correct way to include another shell script, if the script may be ran with a different user, through sudo?

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• How to test method call order with Moq

  - by Finglas

  At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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• How do you test a command object in a grails controller integration test?

  - by egervari

  I'm new to grails. How do I test a form command object to make sure that it's working? Here's some setup code in a test. When I try to do it, I get the following exceptions: Error occurred creating command object. org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.servlet.mvc.exceptions.ControllerExecutionException: Error occurred creating command object. at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) .... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: password for class: project.user.RegistrationForm Possible solutions: password Here is my test case. As you can see, I set "password" on the params map... void testSaveWhenDataIsCorrect() { controller.params.emailAddress = "[email protected]" controller.params.password = "secret" controller.params.confirmPassword = "secret" controller.save() assertEquals "success", redirectArgs.view ... } Here's the controller action, that adds the command object as a closure parameter: def save = { RegistrationForm form -> if(form.hasErrors()) { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } else { def user = new User(form.properties) user.password = form.encryptedPassword if(user.save()) { redirect(action: "success") } else { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } } } Here's the command object itself... and note that it DOES have a "password" field... class RegistrationForm { def springSecurityService String emailAddress String password String confirmPassword String getEncryptedPassword() { springSecurityService.encodePassword(password) } static constraints = { emailAddress(blank: false, email: true) password(blank: false, size:4..10) confirmPassword(blank: false, validator: { password != confirmPassword }) } } I'm totally lost in the non-intuitive way to do controllers... Please help.

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• Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

  - by Jason

  I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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• sizer.replace() paints "over" old sizercontent

  - by elbenfreund

  hi. I am rather new to wx/python so please excuse if this is stupid or ill described. I am substituting a nested sizer with a new one as shown in the snippet below. after some tinkering everything seems to work out but the re-drawing of the parent-sizer. the content of the old nested sizer remains and gets "painted" over with the new sizer content despite my sizer.Layout() system setup: - python 2.5.5.2 and 2.6.4 - wxpython 2.8 -- coding: utf8 -- import wx class Frame(wx.Frame): def init(self): wx.Frame.init(self, None, wx.ID_ANY, title='test') class Test(wx.App): def OnInit(self): frame = Frame() self.panel = wx.Panel(frame) self.panel.SetBackgroundColour('red') self.sizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.VERTICAL) button = wx.Button(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'TEST') self.hsizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.HORIZONTAL) self.hsizer.Add(wx.StaticText(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'nacknack')) self.sizer.Add(button) self.Bind(wx.EVT_BUTTON, self.on_test_button, button) self.text = wx.StaticText(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'FOOO') self.sizer.Add(self.text) self.sizer.Add(self.hsizer) self.panel.SetSizer(self.sizer) frame.Show() return True def on_test_button(self, evt): tmpsizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.VERTICAL) tmpsizer.Add(self.makesizer()) tmpitem = tmpsizer.GetChildren()[0] self.sizer.Replace(2, tmpitem) self.sizer.Layout() def makesizer(self): testsizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.HORIZONTAL) testsizer.Add(wx.StaticText(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'testsizer')) return testsizer if __name__ == '__main__': app = Test() app.MainLoop()

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• Login as SYS user to Oracle 11g from .NET

  - by Jens Bannmann

  Using the Oracle Data Provider for .NET, my application connects to the database using the privileged SYS user. The connection string is as follows: Data Source=MyTnsName;User ID=sys;Password=MySysPassword;DBA Privilege=SYSDBA This works fine with Oracle 10, but Oracle 11 keeps complaining about an invalid username or password. I verified that the password is correct - other apps work fine with the same credentials. Note that for regular users (without the DBA Privilege part), connecting to Oracle 11 works perfectly. So, what's wrong? Update: This is not an issue with case sensitivity - when constructing the connection string, the password case is not altered by my code, and the password works fine with other, non-.NET-applications. I suspect that this might be caused by the Oracle 10 client I'm using to connect to the 11 database. Oracle states that the client is upward-compatible, the only drawback being that you cannot use some new features of the database. However, SYSDBA connections clearly are not a new Oracle 11 feature, and - again - a non-.NET-app (Keeptool Hora) can connect using the same setup. Any other ideas? Update 2: The problem persists when using an Oracle 11 client :-(

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• TinyMCE is glitchy/unusable in IE8

  - by Force Flow

  I'm using the jQuery version of TinyMCE 3.3.9.3 In firefox, it works fine (10 sec video depicting it in use): http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TrAE0igfT3I In IE8 (in IE8 standards mode), I can't type or click any buttons. However, if I use ctrl+v to paste, then I can start typing, but the buttons still don't work (a 45 sec video depicting it in use): http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iBSRlE8D8F4 The jQuery TinyMCE demo on TinyMCE's site works for me in IE8. Here's the init code: $().ready(function(){ function tinymce_focus(){ $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout').css({'border-color' : '#6478D7'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceFirst td').css({'border-top-color' : '#6478D7'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceLast td').css({'border-bottom-color' : '#6478D7'}); } function tinymce_blur(){ $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout').css({'border-color' : '#93a6e1'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceFirst td').css({'border-top-color' : '#93a6e1'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceLast td').css({'border-bottom-color' : '#93a6e1'}); } $('textarea.tinymce').tinymce({ script_url : 'JS/tinymce/tiny_mce.js', theme : "advanced", mode : "exact", invalid_elements : "b,i,iframe,font,input,textarea,select,button,form,fieldset,legend,script,noscript,object,embed,table,img,a,h1,h2,h3,h4,h5,h6", //theme options theme_advanced_buttons1 : "cut,copy,paste,pastetext,pasteword,selectall,|,undo,redo,|,cleanup,removeformat,|", theme_advanced_buttons2 : "bold,italic,underline,|,bullist,numlist,|,forecolor,backcolor,|", theme_advanced_buttons3 : "", theme_advanced_buttons4 : "", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location : "none", theme_advanced_resizing : false, //plugins plugins : "inlinepopups,paste", dialog_type : "modal", paste_auto_cleanup_on_paste : true, setup: function(ed){ ed.onInit.add(function(ed){ //check for addEventListener -- primarily supported by firefox only var edDoc = ed.getDoc(); if ("addEventListener" in edDoc){ edDoc.addEventListener("focus", function(){ tinymce_focus(); }, false); edDoc.addEventListener("blur", function(){ tinymce_blur(); }, false); } }); } }); }); Any ideas as to why it's not working in IE8? [edit]: stripping everything out of the init (leaving just script_url and theme) results in the same symptoms

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• Polymorphic urls with singular resources

  - by Brendon Muir

  I'm getting strange output when using the following routing setup: resources :warranty_types do resources :decisions end resource :warranty_review, :only => [] do resources :decisions end I have many warranty_types but only one warranty_review (thus the singular route declaration). The decisions are polymorphically associated with both. I have just a single decisions controller and a single _form.html.haml partial to render the form for a decision. This is the view code: = simple_form_for @decision, :url => [@decision_tree_owner, @decision.becomes(Decision)] do |form| The warranty_type url looks like this (for a new decision): /warranty_types/2/decisions whereas the warranty_review url looks like this: /admin/warranty_review/decisions.1 I think because the warranty_review id has no where to go, it's just getting appended to the end as an extension. Can someone explain what's going on here and how I might be able to fix it? I can work around it by trying to detect for a warranty_review class and substituting @decision_tree_owner with :warranty_review and this generates the correct url, but this is messy. I would have thought that the routing would be smart enough to realise that warranty_review is a singular resource and thus discard the id from the URL. This is Rails 3 by the way :)

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• Identify server that made call to web service

  - by sleepybobos

  I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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• How to disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5 (asp net mvc3)

  - by troebr

  I'm struggling with my IIS setup regarding caching, here's a brief description of my problem: I'm making a site for mobile and non-mobile, sharing the same controllers. IE: mysite/page will serve either mysite/page.cshtml, or mysite/M/page.cshtml, depending on the device. Here's the catch, it worked fine with my local and integration environment (cassiini and iis 6), but on another machine (2008r2/iis 7.5), apparently there is an aggressive server-side caching policy: If I access the website from a desktop machine, I have the correct pages (desktop version) If now I use my mobile phone to access the site, I will have the desktop version, (which implies a server-side cache, my phone is not using the same network). On the contrary, if I were to restart the server and access the site using my phone first, then I will get the mobile version on my desktop (only for the pages I already visited of course). I tried 2 solutions so far: Disabling OutputCache from my Web.config: <httpModules> [..] <remove name="OutputCache" /> </httpModules> And unchecking "Enable output cache" in "Output Caching" for my site in IIS. What's bugging me is that I do not have this problem with my other server (iis 6.0), although caching is enabled on this one, which leads me to think it is related to iis 7 caching addition. My question is simple: how does one disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5? Thanks in advance for your iis lights!

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• How to let one external stylsheet selectively overrule the other

  - by Ferdy

  I'm stunned by a simple thing that I want to accomplish but does not work. I have a website and I want it to support themes, which are a named set of CSS + images. No matter which theme is selected, I always include the main CSS file, which is the default theme. On top of that I'm loading a second stylesheet, the one that is theme-specific, like so: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/main.css" title=main" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="themes/<?= $style ?>/css/<?= $style ?>.css" title="<?= $style ?>" media="screen" /> My idea is that the theme specific css should not be a full copy of the main css file. Instead, it should only contain CSS rules that overrule those of the main.css file. This makes themes much smaller and easier to maintain. I thought I could simply load two external stylesheets after each other and that for conflicting rules it will always use the theme specific css, the second file. However, it does not seem to work. If I make a dramatic styling change in the theme file then it has no effect. If I then comment the main CSS file, the theme CSS does have effect. Was I too naive in expecting this to work like this? I know I can use inline styles to overrule anything, but I prefer a setup like this if possible.

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• Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

  - by Neil T.

  I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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• AnkhSVN: Cannot checkout Subsolution due to existing "versioned" folder

  - by lostiniceland

  Hello Everyone I am using Subversion since quite some time for Java-Development and I have setup a repository on my local NAS. Since I have a MSDN subscription via my company I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 to do a small project with .NET. According to some "best-practices" my project folder looks like the following. MySolution main.sln Services services.sln Service A files Service A Test files View projectfiles Persistence persistence.sln PersistenceXml files PersistenceXml Test files PersistenceDB files PersistenceDB Test files The idea is, that the main.sln only contains the projects for the application, meaning no test projects. The subsolutions, contain the project(s) and their corresponding testprojects. I was able to put all those projects under versioncontrol with AnkhSVN, so I have the same structure there in my trunk. Commiting changes was also no problem. Now I would like to check the this out on another machine. I was able to check out the main.sln which downloaded everything that was inside this solution. It skipped the services.sln, persistence.sln and all the test-projects. Until now everything is fine. Now, here comes the problem: when I am tryting to check out the subsolution (eg. services.sln) I get an error, I think it was UnsupportedOperation. I guess this happens because ankhsvn is tryting to download the folder Service A again and create ist hidden .svn folder which is already present. The only workaround I can think of by now is installing Tortoise SVN and check out the whole thing at once. It would be nicer though to have everything from within VS. Does anyone know how I can solve this? Is another client the only solution?

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• Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

  - by Guenther Jehle

  I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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• Do I need to implement an XMPP server?

  - by WTFITS

  (newbie alert) I need to program a multiparty communication service for a course project, and I am considering XMPP for it. The service needs following messaging semantics: 1) server will provide a method of registering and unregistering an address such as [email protected]/SomeResource. (for now I will do it manually). 2) server will provide a method of forwarding incoming messages from, say, [email protected]/SomeResource to [email protected]/someOtherResource, assuming that the latter is registered, and a method for removing this forwarding. (for now I will do it manually). 3) anonymous clients can send messages to, say, [email protected]/someresource (one way traffic only). If there is any forwarding setup, the message will be forwarded. Finally if the address is [email protected]/someresource is registered, the message will be stored for later delivery (or immediate if a retrieving client is online - see below). If no forwarding and unregistered, message will be silently dropped. 4) clients can connect and retrieve messages from a registered address. Exact method of authenticating clients (e.g., passwords?) is yet to be determined. Eventually, I want to add support for clients to connect from a web browser so they can register/unregister and set/remove forwarding themselves. Thus, the server will have to do some non-standard switching. Will I need to implement an XMPP server for this? I guess some (or all?) of this can also be done using a XMPP client bot

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• GWT RPC and GoDaddy Shared Hosting

  - by Mike Apolis

  Hi, I've deployed the sample Stock Watcher app to my GoDaddy Hosting site, and I get the error below. I've tried compiling the Project in Eclipse with JRE 1.5 because my Host is using jre 1.5. I think the issue is the "gwt-servlet.jar" is not compatible with jre 1.5. Can anyone confirm this. The project runs fine on my local machine using JRE 1.6. Unfortunately GoDaddy will not upgrade my shared hosting account jre to 1.6. GoDaddy Server Setup: Tomcat Version 5.0.27 JRE 1.5_22 Error: HTTP Status 500 - type Exception report message description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request. exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Error allocating a servlet instance org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) root cause java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError: Bad version number in .class file java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:621) java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java: 124) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClassInternal(WebappClassLoader.java: 1634) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 860) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1307) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1189) java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.0.27 logs. Apache Tomcat/5.0.27

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• fix a columns width when a list is bound to a datagridview

  - by Andy

  I have a list that I have bound to a datagridview. I want the first column to be a fixed size. The data is bound to the dataGridView and I can't seem to find a way to access an individual colums properties. if I try myDatagridview.colums[0] I get an index out of bounds, since it says the columns count is 0. private DataGridView setUpDataGrid(List<NVRlineVal> _NVRData) { //setup dataGridView DataGridView NVRDataGridView = new System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView(); NVRDataGridView.ColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode.AutoSize; NVRDataGridView.Dock = System.Windows.Forms.DockStyle.Fill; NVRDataGridView.AutoSizeColumnsMode = DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnsMode.Fill; NVRDataGridView.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(3, 3); NVRDataGridView.Name = "NVRDataGridView" + nvrIndex; NVRDataGridView.RowHeadersWidthSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowHeadersWidthSizeMode.AutoSizeToDisplayedHeaders; NVRDataGridView.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(380, 401); NVRDataGridView.TabIndex = 0; NVRDataGridView.DataSource = _NVRData; var test = NVRDataGridView.Columns; NVRDataGridView.DataMember = "devState"; DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnMode.None; } Any ideas on how to have a fixed column width for only one of these columns, the rest will autosize?

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• Faking Fixed Position in IE6

  - by Andrew

  I have a site that utilizes a bottom fixed position masthead here: http://www.entheospartners.com/newsite/ This setup works great in all browsers except IE6, which doesn't support fixed positioning in the least, so here's what I've done: When an IE6 user comes to the page, I make the determination if scrolling is necessary using this bit of code: var windowHeight = $(window).height(); var totalHeight = windowHeight - 100; // where 100 is the sum of the top nav height + footer height var contentHeight; if($('#subpage-content-small').length) { // main content div for a three column layout contentHeight = $('#subpage-content-small').height(); }; if($('#subpage-content-wide').length) { // main content div for a two column layout contentHeight = $('#subpage-content-wide').height(); }; if(contentHeight > totalHeight) { $('#container-container').css({ 'overflow-y' : "scroll", 'height' : totalHeight }); }; ...which calculates everything correctly, puts the scrollbars where they need to be (flush right), and sets them to the appropriate height. The problem is that the scrollbars don't move the content. I can't say that I've ever seen anything quite like this before, so I'm hoping someone else on here has. Thanks in advance! PS - Obviously, this needs to be looked at in IE6 for troubleshooting, which I know will be as painful for you as it is for me.

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• How can you adjust the height of a jquery UI accordian?

  - by KallDrexx

  In my UI I have an accordian setup that so far functions <div id="object_list"> <h3>Section 1</h3> <div>...content...</div> // More sections </div> The accordian works properly when it is first formed, and it seems to adjust itself well for the content inside each of the sections. However, if I then add more content into the accordian after the .accordian() call (via ajax), the inner for the section ends up overflowing. Since the accordian is being formed with almost no content, all the inner divs are extremely small, and thus the content overflows and you get accordians with scrollbars inside with almost no viewing area. I have attempted to add min-height styles to the object_list div, and the content divs to no avail. Adding the min-height to the inner divs kind of worked, but it messed up the accordian's animations, and adding it to the object_list div did absolutely nothing. How can I get a reasonable size out of the content sections even when there is not enough content to fill those sections?

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• Stop an executing recursive javascript function

  - by DA

  Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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• ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

  - by user336858

  Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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• RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

  - by epitka

  I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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• Automatic Deployment of Windows Application

  - by dileepkrishnan

  Hi, We have setup continuos integration in our development environment using SVN, CC.Net, MSBuild and Nunit. Now, we want to automate the process of moving (copying) builds from one stage to another like this: Whenever a new build succeeds in Dev, that should be copied automatically to the QA server (a folder on the QA server, to be exact) Whenever a QA build succeeds tests in QA, that QA build should be copied to the UAT server (a folder on the UAT server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when QA succeeds. Whenever a UAT build succeeds tests in UAT, that should be copied to the PROD server (a folder on the PROD server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when UAT succeeds. How do I implement this? Can this be done using CC.Net alone? Or, can this be done using MSBuild? Or, do I need to employ both? Please advise what exactly needs to be done. Thanks Dileep Krishnan

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