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  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

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  • Using a randomly generated token for flood control.

    - by James P
    Basic setup of my site is: user enters a message on the homepage, hits enter and the message is sent though a AJAX request to a file called like.php where it echo's a link that gets sent back to the user. I have made the input disable when the user presses enter, but there's nothing stopping the user from just constantly flooding like.php with POST request and filling up my database. Someone here on SO told me to use a token system but didn't mention how. I've seen this being done before and from what I know it is effective. The only problem I have is how will like.php know it's a valid token? My code is this at the moment: $token = md5(rand(0, 9999) * 1000000); and the markup: <input type="hidden" name="token" value="<?php echo $token ?>" /> Which will send the token to like.php through POST. But how will like.php know that this is a valid token? Should I instead token something that's linked to the user? Like their IP address? Or perhaps token the current minute and check that it's the same minute in like.php... Any help on this amtter would be greatly appreciated, thanks. :)

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  • jQuery Grouping Similar Items w/ Multidimensional Array

    - by NessDan
    So I have this structure setup: <ul> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> (Vid1) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bOF3o8B292U</li> (Vid2) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> (Vid3) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bOF3o8B292U</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> </ul> Vid1 is repeated 3 times, Vid2 is repeated 3 times, and Vid3 is repeated 2 times. I want to put them into a structure where I can reference them like this: youtube[0][repeated] = 3; youtube[0][download] = "http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=dw1Vh9Yzryo&fmt=36" youtube[1][repeated] = 3; youtube[1][download] = "http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=bOF3o8B292U&fmt=36" youtube[2][repeated] = 3; youtube[2][download] = "http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=yAY4vNJd7A8&fmt=36" "This video was repeated " + youtube[0][repeated] + " times and you can download it here: " + youtube[0][download]; How can I set this multidimensional array up? Been Googling for hours and I don't know how to set it up. Can anyone help me out?

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  • PHP JQuery: Where to specify uploadify destination folder

    - by Eamonn
    I have an uploadify script running, basic setup. Works fine when I hard code the destination folder for the images into uploadify.php - now I want to make that folder dynamic. How do I do this? I have a PHP variable $uploadify_path which contains the path to the folder I want. I have switched out my hard coded $targetPath = path/to/directory for $targetPath = $uploadify_path in both uploadify.php and check_exists.php, but it does not work. The file upload animation runs, says it is complete, yet the directory remains empty. The file is not hiding out somewhere else either. I see there is an option in the Javascript to specify a folder. I tried this also, but to no avail. If anyone could educate me on how to pass this variable destination to uploadify, I'd be very grateful. I include my current code for checking (basically default): The Javascript <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#file_upload').uploadify({ 'swf' : 'uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'uploader' : 'uploadify/uploadify.php', // Put your options here }); }); </script> uploadify.php $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $uploadify_path; // Relative to the root if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetFile = $targetPath . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // Validate the file type $fileTypes = array('jpg','jpeg','gif','png'); // File extensions $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$fileTypes)) { move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo '1'; } else { echo 'Invalid file type.'; } }

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • ASP.NET Login Control rejects users who exist

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm having some trouble with the ASP.NET 2.0 Login Control. I've setup a database with the aspI.net regsql tool. I've checked the application name. It is set to "/". The application can access the SQL Server. In fact, when I go to retrieve the password, it will even send me the password. Despite this, the login control continues to reject logins. I added this to the web.config: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetSqlProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlProvider" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer" applicationName="/" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"/> </providers> And I added the following to my connection strings: <remove name="LocalSqlServer" /> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Data Source=IDC-4\EXCALIBUR;Initial Catalog=allied_nr;Integrated Security=True;Asynchronous Processing=True"/> (Note the "remove name" is to get rid of the default connection string in the App_Data directory.) Why won't the login control authenticate users?

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  • Zend_Controller_Router_Route: Could not find a translator

    - by Antonio
    I am developing a multilanguage application. In the bootstrap there is the routes setup: protected function _initRoutes() { $this->bootstrap('frontController'); $router = $this->frontController->getRouter(); // PAGES ROUTE $page = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( ':language/:ident', array( 'module' => 'core', 'controller' => 'pagine', 'action' => 'view' ), array( 'ident' => '[a-zA-Z-_0-9]{3,}', 'language' => '[a-z]{2}' ) ); $registrazione = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( ':language/@utenti/@registrati', array( 'module' => 'core', 'controller' => 'utenti', 'action' => 'registrazione' ), array( 'language' => '[a-z]{2}' ) ); $router->addRoute('page', $page); $router->addRoute('registrazione', $registrazione); ..... } I cannot set the default translator to Zend_Controller_Router_Route (for translated segments) because i don't know the language parameter in the request object. I get the language parameter in Multilanguage Plugin during the "routeShutdown": class Activa_Controller_Plugin_Multilanguage extends Zend_Controller_Plugin_Abstract { public function routeShutdown(Zend_Controller_Request_Abstract $request) { $language = $request->getParam("language"); $locale = new Zend_Locale($language); $translate = new Zend_Translate('array', APPLICATION_PATH.'/config/lang/'.$language.'.php', $locale); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Locale', $locale); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Translate', $translate); Zend_Controller_Router_Route::setDefaultTranslator($translate); //////////////////////// // BUT NOW IS TOO LATE //////////////////////// } When i type the address "http://servername/it/utenti/registrati" i get the exception with the message "Could not find a translator". How can i fix it? Antonio (Italy)

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • Is it possible to replace values ina queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

    - by epitka
    I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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  • Why am I getting a permission denied error on my public folder?

    - by Robin Fisher
    Hi all, This one has got me stumped. I'm deploying a Rails 3 app to Slicehost running Apache 2 and Passenger. My server is running Ruby 1.9.1 using RVM. I am receiving a permission denied error on the "public" folder in my app. My Virtual Host is setup as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName sharerplane.com ServerAlias www.sharerplane.com ServerAlias *.sharerplane.com DocumentRoot /home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/current/public/ <Directory "/home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/public/"> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> PassengerDefaultUser robinjfisher </VirtualHost> I've tried the following things: trailing slash on public; no trailing slash on public; PassengerUserSwitching on and off; PassengerDefaultUser set and not set; with and without the block. The public folder is owned by robinjfisher:www-data and Passenger is running as robinjfisher so I can't see why there are permission issues. Does anybody have any thoughts? Thanks Robin PS. Have disabled the site for the time being to avoid indexing so what is there currently is not the site in question.

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  • How to disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5 (asp net mvc3)

    - by troebr
    I'm struggling with my IIS setup regarding caching, here's a brief description of my problem: I'm making a site for mobile and non-mobile, sharing the same controllers. IE: mysite/page will serve either mysite/page.cshtml, or mysite/M/page.cshtml, depending on the device. Here's the catch, it worked fine with my local and integration environment (cassiini and iis 6), but on another machine (2008r2/iis 7.5), apparently there is an aggressive server-side caching policy: If I access the website from a desktop machine, I have the correct pages (desktop version) If now I use my mobile phone to access the site, I will have the desktop version, (which implies a server-side cache, my phone is not using the same network). On the contrary, if I were to restart the server and access the site using my phone first, then I will get the mobile version on my desktop (only for the pages I already visited of course). I tried 2 solutions so far: Disabling OutputCache from my Web.config: <httpModules> [..] <remove name="OutputCache" /> </httpModules> And unchecking "Enable output cache" in "Output Caching" for my site in IIS. What's bugging me is that I do not have this problem with my other server (iis 6.0), although caching is enabled on this one, which leads me to think it is related to iis 7 caching addition. My question is simple: how does one disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5? Thanks in advance for your iis lights!

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  • TinyMCE is glitchy/unusable in IE8

    - by Force Flow
    I'm using the jQuery version of TinyMCE 3.3.9.3 In firefox, it works fine (10 sec video depicting it in use): http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TrAE0igfT3I In IE8 (in IE8 standards mode), I can't type or click any buttons. However, if I use ctrl+v to paste, then I can start typing, but the buttons still don't work (a 45 sec video depicting it in use): http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iBSRlE8D8F4 The jQuery TinyMCE demo on TinyMCE's site works for me in IE8. Here's the init code: $().ready(function(){ function tinymce_focus(){ $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout').css({'border-color' : '#6478D7'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceFirst td').css({'border-top-color' : '#6478D7'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceLast td').css({'border-bottom-color' : '#6478D7'}); } function tinymce_blur(){ $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout').css({'border-color' : '#93a6e1'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceFirst td').css({'border-top-color' : '#93a6e1'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceLast td').css({'border-bottom-color' : '#93a6e1'}); } $('textarea.tinymce').tinymce({ script_url : 'JS/tinymce/tiny_mce.js', theme : "advanced", mode : "exact", invalid_elements : "b,i,iframe,font,input,textarea,select,button,form,fieldset,legend,script,noscript,object,embed,table,img,a,h1,h2,h3,h4,h5,h6", //theme options theme_advanced_buttons1 : "cut,copy,paste,pastetext,pasteword,selectall,|,undo,redo,|,cleanup,removeformat,|", theme_advanced_buttons2 : "bold,italic,underline,|,bullist,numlist,|,forecolor,backcolor,|", theme_advanced_buttons3 : "", theme_advanced_buttons4 : "", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location : "none", theme_advanced_resizing : false, //plugins plugins : "inlinepopups,paste", dialog_type : "modal", paste_auto_cleanup_on_paste : true, setup: function(ed){ ed.onInit.add(function(ed){ //check for addEventListener -- primarily supported by firefox only var edDoc = ed.getDoc(); if ("addEventListener" in edDoc){ edDoc.addEventListener("focus", function(){ tinymce_focus(); }, false); edDoc.addEventListener("blur", function(){ tinymce_blur(); }, false); } }); } }); }); Any ideas as to why it's not working in IE8? [edit]: stripping everything out of the init (leaving just script_url and theme) results in the same symptoms

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  • How do you test a command object in a grails controller integration test?

    - by egervari
    I'm new to grails. How do I test a form command object to make sure that it's working? Here's some setup code in a test. When I try to do it, I get the following exceptions: Error occurred creating command object. org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.servlet.mvc.exceptions.ControllerExecutionException: Error occurred creating command object. at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) .... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: password for class: project.user.RegistrationForm Possible solutions: password Here is my test case. As you can see, I set "password" on the params map... void testSaveWhenDataIsCorrect() { controller.params.emailAddress = "[email protected]" controller.params.password = "secret" controller.params.confirmPassword = "secret" controller.save() assertEquals "success", redirectArgs.view ... } Here's the controller action, that adds the command object as a closure parameter: def save = { RegistrationForm form -> if(form.hasErrors()) { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } else { def user = new User(form.properties) user.password = form.encryptedPassword if(user.save()) { redirect(action: "success") } else { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } } } Here's the command object itself... and note that it DOES have a "password" field... class RegistrationForm { def springSecurityService String emailAddress String password String confirmPassword String getEncryptedPassword() { springSecurityService.encodePassword(password) } static constraints = { emailAddress(blank: false, email: true) password(blank: false, size:4..10) confirmPassword(blank: false, validator: { password != confirmPassword }) } } I'm totally lost in the non-intuitive way to do controllers... Please help.

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • How can you adjust the height of a jquery UI accordian?

    - by KallDrexx
    In my UI I have an accordian setup that so far functions <div id="object_list"> <h3>Section 1</h3> <div>...content...</div> // More sections </div> The accordian works properly when it is first formed, and it seems to adjust itself well for the content inside each of the sections. However, if I then add more content into the accordian after the .accordian() call (via ajax), the inner for the section ends up overflowing. Since the accordian is being formed with almost no content, all the inner divs are extremely small, and thus the content overflows and you get accordians with scrollbars inside with almost no viewing area. I have attempted to add min-height styles to the object_list div, and the content divs to no avail. Adding the min-height to the inner divs kind of worked, but it messed up the accordian's animations, and adding it to the object_list div did absolutely nothing. How can I get a reasonable size out of the content sections even when there is not enough content to fill those sections?

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  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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  • Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

    - by Guenther Jehle
    I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • How can I run Ruby specs and/or tests in MacVim without locking up MacVim?

    - by Henry
    About 6 months ago I switched from TextMate to MacVim for all of my development work, which primarily consists of coding in Ruby, Ruby on Rails and JavaScript. With TextMate, whenever I needed to run a spec or a test, I could just command+R on the test or spec file and another window would open and the results would be displayed with the 'pretty' format applied. If the spec or test was a lengthy one, I could just continue working with the codebase since the test/spec was running in a separate process/window. After the test ran, I could click through the results directly to the corresponding line in the spec file. Tim Pope's excellent rails.vim plugin comes very close to emulating this behavior within the MacVim environment. Running :Rake when the current buffer is a test or spec runs the file then splits the buffer to display the results. You can navigate through the results and key through to the corresponding spot in the file. The problem with the rails.vim approach is that it locks up the MacVim window while the test runs. This can be an issue with big apps that might have a lot of setup/teardown built into the tests. Also, the visual red/green html results that TextMate displays (via --format pretty, I'm assuming) is a bit easier to scan than the split window. This guy came close about 18 mos ago: http://cassiomarques.wordpress.com/2009/01/09/running-rspec-files-from-vim-showing-the-results-in-firefox/ The script he has worked with a bit of hacking, but the tests still ran within MacVim and locked up the current window. Any ideas on how to fully replicate the TextMate behavior described above in MacVim? Thanks!

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  • jQuery & Prototype Conflict

    - by DPereyra
    Hi, I am using the jQuery AutoComplete plugin in an html page where I also have an accordion menu which uses prototype. They both work perfectly separately but when I tried to implement both components in a single page I get an error that I have not been able to understand. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE) [nsIDOMViewCSS.getComputedStyle]" nsresult: "0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE)" location: "JS frame :: file:///C:/Documents and Settings/Administrator/Desktop/website/js/jquery-1.2.6.pack.js :: anonymous :: line 11" data: no] I found out the file conflicting with jQuery is 'effects.js' which is used by the accordion menu. I tried replacing this file with a newer version but newer seems to break the accordion behavior. My guess is that the 'effects.js' file used in the accordion was modified to obtain the accordion demo output. I also tried using the overriding methods jQuery needs to avoid conflict with other libraries and that did not work. I obtained the accordion demo from the following site: http://www.stickmanlabs.com/accordion/ And the jQuery AutoComplete can be obtained from: http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete#Setup Has any one else experienced this issue? Thanks.

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  • fix a columns width when a list is bound to a datagridview

    - by Andy
    I have a list that I have bound to a datagridview. I want the first column to be a fixed size. The data is bound to the dataGridView and I can't seem to find a way to access an individual colums properties. if I try myDatagridview.colums[0] I get an index out of bounds, since it says the columns count is 0. private DataGridView setUpDataGrid(List<NVRlineVal> _NVRData) { //setup dataGridView DataGridView NVRDataGridView = new System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView(); NVRDataGridView.ColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode.AutoSize; NVRDataGridView.Dock = System.Windows.Forms.DockStyle.Fill; NVRDataGridView.AutoSizeColumnsMode = DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnsMode.Fill; NVRDataGridView.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(3, 3); NVRDataGridView.Name = "NVRDataGridView" + nvrIndex; NVRDataGridView.RowHeadersWidthSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowHeadersWidthSizeMode.AutoSizeToDisplayedHeaders; NVRDataGridView.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(380, 401); NVRDataGridView.TabIndex = 0; NVRDataGridView.DataSource = _NVRData; var test = NVRDataGridView.Columns; NVRDataGridView.DataMember = "devState"; DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnMode.None; } Any ideas on how to have a fixed column width for only one of these columns, the rest will autosize?

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  • Automatic Deployment of Windows Application

    - by dileepkrishnan
    Hi, We have setup continuos integration in our development environment using SVN, CC.Net, MSBuild and Nunit. Now, we want to automate the process of moving (copying) builds from one stage to another like this: Whenever a new build succeeds in Dev, that should be copied automatically to the QA server (a folder on the QA server, to be exact) Whenever a QA build succeeds tests in QA, that QA build should be copied to the UAT server (a folder on the UAT server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when QA succeeds. Whenever a UAT build succeeds tests in UAT, that should be copied to the PROD server (a folder on the PROD server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when UAT succeeds. How do I implement this? Can this be done using CC.Net alone? Or, can this be done using MSBuild? Or, do I need to employ both? Please advise what exactly needs to be done. Thanks Dileep Krishnan

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  • HTTP Negotiate windows vs. Unix server implementation using python-kerberos

    - by ondra
    I tried to implement a simple single-sign-on in my python web server. I have used the python-kerberos package which works nicely. I have tested it from my Linux box (authenticating against active directory) and it was without problem. However, when I tried to authenticate using Firefox from Windows machine (no special setup, just having the user logged into the domain + added my server into negotiate-auth.trusted-uris), it doesn't work. I have looked at what is sent and it doesn't even resemble the things the Linux machine sends. This Microsoft description of the process pretty much resembles the way my interaction from Linux works, but the Windows machine generally sends a very short string, which doesn't even resemble the things microsoft documentation states, and when base64 decoded, it is something like 12 zero bytes followed by 3 or 4 non-zero bytes (GSS functions then return that it doesn't support such scheme) Either there is something wrong with the client Firefox settings, or there is some protocol which I am supposed to follow for the Negotiate protocol, but which I cannot find any reference anywhere. Any ideas what's wrong? Do you have any idea what protocol I should by trying to find, as it doesn' look like SPNEGO, at least from MS documentation.

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