Search Results

Search found 15651 results on 627 pages for 'setup'.

Page 535/627 | < Previous Page | 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542  | Next Page >

  • Mysql Database Question about Large Columns

    - by murat
    Hi, I have a table that has 100.000 rows, and soon it will be doubled. The size of the database is currently 5 gb and most of them goes to one particular column, which is a text column for PDF files. We expect to have 20-30 GB or maybe 50 gb database after couple of month and this system will be used frequently. I have couple of questions regarding with this setup 1-) We are using innodb on every table, including users table etc. Is it better to use myisam on this table, where we store text version of the PDF files? (from memory usage /performance perspective) 2-) We use Sphinx for searching, however the data must be retrieved for highlighting. Highlighting is done via sphinx API but still we need to retrieve 10 rows in order to send it to Sphinx again. This 10 rows may allocate 50 mb memory, which is quite large. So I am planning to split these PDF files into chunks of 5 pages in the database, so these 100.000 rows will be around 3-4 million rows and couple of month later, instead of having 300.000-350.000 rows, we'll have 10 million rows to store text version of these PDF files. However, we will retrieve less pages, so again instead of retrieving 400 pages to send Sphinx for highlighting, we can retrieve 5 pages and it will have a big impact on the performance. Currently, when we search a term and retrieve PDF files that have more than 100 pages, the execution time is 0.3-0.35 seconds, however if we retrieve PDF files that have less than 5 pages, the execution time reduces to 0.06 seconds, and it also uses less memory. Do you think, this is a good trade-off? We will have million of rows instead of having 100k-200k rows but it will save memory and improve the performance. Is it a good approach to solve this problem and do you have any ideas how to overcome this problem? The text version of the data is used only for indexing and highlighting. So, we are very flexible. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • OpenSL ES decode 24bit FLAC

    - by yano
    I am trying to decode a FLAC file with 24bit sample format using OpenSL ES on Android. Originally, I had my SLDataFormat_PCM for the SLDataSink setup like this. _pcm.formatType = SL_DATAFORMAT_PCM; _pcm.numChannels = 2; _pcm.samplesPerSec = SL_SAMPLINGRATE_44_1; _pcm.bitsPerSample = SL_PCMSAMPLEFORMAT_FIXED_16; _pcm.containerSize = SL_PCMSAMPLEFORMAT_FIXED_16; _pcm.channelMask = SL_SPEAKER_FRONT_LEFT | SL_SPEAKER_FRONT_RIGHT; _pcm.endianness = SL_BYTEORDER_LITTLEENDIAN; This is working well for basically any data format. Luckily the samplesPerSec is not respected (I don't want resampling). Now I want to support the full bit-depth of a FLAC file with 24bit samples. When using this format, it apparently performs a bit-depth conversion, because once I load the file, and then check the ANDROID_KEY_PCMFORMAT_BITSPERSAMPLE info, it is 16. When I put bitsPerSample = SL_PCMSAMPLEFORMAT_FIXED_24; or SL_PCMSAMPLEFORMAT_FIXED_32, then OpenSL ES rejects it E/libOpenSLES(22706): pAudioSnk: bitsPerSample=32 W/libOpenSLES(22706): Leaving Engine::CreateAudioPlayer (SL_RESULT_CONTENT_UNSUPPORTED) Any idea how this is meant to work? Is Android currently restricted to 16 bit int only? I would also accept 32bit float, but I don't suppose that will work either.

    Read the article

  • ACL architechture for a Software As a service in Sprgin 3.0

    - by geoaxis
    I am making a software as a service using Spring 3.0 (Spring MVC, Spring Security, Spring Roo, Hibernate) I have to come up with a flexible access control list mechanism.I have three different kinds of users System (who can do any thing to the system, includes admin and internal daemons) Operations (who can add and delete users, organizations, and do maintenance work on behalf of users and organizations) End Users (they belong to one or more organization, for each organization, the user can have one or more roles, like being organization admin, or organization read-only member) (role like orgadmin can also add users for that organization) Now my question is, how should i model the entity of User? If I just take the End User, it can belong to one or more organizations, so each user can contain a set of references to its organizations. But how do we model the users role for each organization, So for example User UX belongs to organizations og1, og2 and og3, and for og1 he is both orgadmin, and org-read-only-user, where as for og2 he is only orgadmin and for og3 he is only org-read-only-user I have the possibility of making each user belong to one organization alone, but that's making the system bounded and I don't like that idea (although i would still satisfy the requirement) If you have a better extensible ACL architecture, please suggest it. Since its a software as a service, one would expect that alot of different organizations would be part if the same system. I had one concern that it is not a good idea to keep og1 and og2 data on the same DB (if og1 decides to spawn a 100 reports on the system, og2 should not suffer) But that is some thing advanced for now and is not directly related to ACL but to the physical distribution of data and setup of services based on those ACLs This is a community Wiki question, please correct any thing which you wish to do so. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Changing character encoding in MySQL, PHP scripts, HTML

    - by Sandman
    So, I have built on this system for quite some time, and it is currently outputting Latin1 (ISO-8859-1) to the web browser, and this is the components: MySQL - all data is stored with the Latin1 character set PHP - All PHP text files are stored on disk with Latin1 encoding HTML - The output has the http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" meta tag So, I'm trying to understand how the encoding of the different parts come into play in my workflow. If I open a PHP script and change its encoding within the text editor to UTF-8 and save it back to disk and reload the web browser, the text is all messed up - unless the text comes from the DB. If I change the encoding of the DB to UTF-8 and keep the PHP files in latin1 I have to use utf8_decode() for the data to display correctly. And if I change the HTML code the browser will read it incorrectly. So yeah, I realise that if I want to "upgrade" to UTF8, I have to update all three parts of this setup for it to work correctly, but since it's a huge system with some 180k lines of PHP code and millions of posts in a lot of databases/tables, I don't want to start something like this without understanding everything correctly. What haven't I thought about? What could mess this up beyond fixing? What are the procedures for changing the encoding of an entire MySQL installation and what's the easiest way to change the encoding of hundreds or thousands of PHP files on disk? The META tag is luckily added dynamically, so I'll change that in one place only :) Let me hear about your experiences with this.

    Read the article

  • SDL with OpenGL (freeglut) crashes on call to glutBitmapCharacter

    - by stett
    I have a program using OpenGL through freeglut under SDL. The SDL/OpenGL initialization is as follows: // Initialize SDL SDL_Init(SDL_INIT_VIDEO); // Create the SDL window SDL_SetVideoMode(SCREEN_W, SCREEN_H, SCREEN_DEPTH, SDL_OPENGL); // Initialize OpenGL glClearColor(BG_COLOR_R, BG_COLOR_G, BG_COLOR_B, 1.f); glViewport(0, 0, SCREEN_W, SCREEN_H); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); glOrtho(0.0f, SCREEN_W, SCREEN_H, 0.0f, -1.0f, 1.0f); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glEnable(GL_BLEND); glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); I've been using glBegin() ... glEnd() blocks without any trouble to draw primitives. However, in this program when I call any glutBitmapX function, the program simply exits without an error status. The code I'm using to draw text is: glColor3f(1.f, 1.f, 1.f); glRasterPos2f(x, y); glutStrokeString(GLUT_BITMAP_8_BY_13, (const unsigned char*)"test string"); In previous similar programs I've used glutBitmapCharacter and glutStrokeString to draw text and it's seemed to work. The only difference being that I'm using freeglut with SDL now instead of just GLUT as I did in previous programs. Is there some fundamental problem with my setup that I'm not seeing, or is there a better way of drawing text?

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

    Read the article

  • Can I copy an entire Magento application to a new server?

    - by Gapton
    I am quite new to Magento and I have a case where a client has a running ecommerce website built with Magento and is running on Amazon AWS EC2 server. If I can locate the web root (/var/www/) and download everything from it (say via FTP), I should be able to boot up my virtual machine with LAMP installed, put every single files in there and it should run, right? So I did just that, and Magento is giving me an error. I am guessing there are configs somewhere that needs to be changed in order to make it work, or even a lot of paths need to be changed etc. Also databases to be replicated. What are the typical things I should get right? Database is one, and the EC2 instance uses nginx while I use plain Apache, I guess that won't work straight out of the box, and I probably will have to install nginx and a lot of other stuffs. But basically, if I setup the environment right, it should run. Is my assumption correct? Thanks for answering!

    Read the article

  • Managing logs/warnings in Python extensions

    - by Dimitri Tcaciuc
    TL;DR version: What do you use for configurable (and preferably captured) logging inside your C++ bits in a Python project? Details follow. Say you have a a few compiled .so modules that may need to do some error checking and warn user of (partially) incorrect data. Currently I'm having a pretty simplistic setup where I'm using logging framework from Python code and log4cxx library from C/C++. log4cxx log level is defined in a file (log4cxx.properties) and is currently fixed and I'm thinking how to make it more flexible. Couple of choices that I see: One way to control it would be to have a module-wide configuration call. # foo/__init__.py import sys from _foo import import bar, baz, configure_log configure_log(sys.stdout, WARNING) # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): # Maybe a custom context to change the logfile for # the module and restore it at the end. with CaptureLog(foo) as log: assert foo.bar() == 5 assert log.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Have every compiled function that does logging accept optional log parameters. # foo.c int bar(PyObject* x, PyObject* logfile, PyObject* loglevel) { LoggerPtr logger = default_logger("foo"); if (logfile != Py_None) logger = file_logger(logfile, loglevel); ... } # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): with TemporaryFile() as logfile: assert foo.bar(logfile=logfile, loglevel=DEBUG) == 5 assert logfile.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Some other way? Second one seems to be somewhat cleaner, but it requires function signature alteration (or using kwargs and parsing them). First one is.. probably somewhat awkward but sets up entire module in one go and removes logic from each individual function. What are your thoughts on this? I'm all ears to alternative solutions as well. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Action Mailer: How do I render dynamic data in an email body that is stored in the database?

    - by Brandon Toone
    I have Action Mailer setup to render an email using the body attribute of my Email model (in the database). I want to be able to use erb in the body but I can't figure out how to get it to render in the sent email message. I'm able to get the body as a string with this code # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # pulls the email body and passes a string to the template views/user_mailer/customer_email.text.html.erb body :msg => email.body end I came across this article http://rails-nutshell.labs.oreilly.com/ch05.html which says I can use render but I'm only able to get render :text to work and not render :inline # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # body :msg => email.body body :msg => (render :text => "Thanks for your order") # renders text and passes as a variable to the template # body :msg => (render :inline => "We shipped <%= Time.now %>") # throws a NoMethodError end

    Read the article

  • Django sitemap intermittent www

    - by Jen Z
    The automatic sitemap for my Django site fluctuates between including the www on urls and leaving it out (I'm aiming to have it in all the time). This has ramifications in google not indexing my pages properly so I'm trying to narrow down what would be causing this issue. I have set PREPEND_WWW = True and my site record in the sites framework is set to include the www e.g. it's set to www.example.com as opposed to example.com. I'm using memcached but pages should expire from the cache after 48 hours so I wouldn't have thought that would be causing the issue? You can see the problem in effect at http://www.livingspaceltd.co.uk/sitemap.xml (refresh the page a few times). My sitemaps setup is fairly prosaic so I'm doubtful that that is the issue, but in case it's something obvious I'm missing here's the code: ***urls.py*** sitemaps = { 'subpages': Subpages_Sitemap, 'standalone_pages': Standalone_Sitemap, 'categories': Categories_Sitemap, } urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^sitemap\.xml$', 'django.contrib.sitemaps.views.sitemap', {'sitemaps': sitemaps}), ... ***sitemaps.py*** # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django_ls.livingspace.models import Page, Category, Standalone_Page, Subpage from django.contrib.sitemaps import Sitemap class Subpages_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "monthly" priority = 0.4 def items(self): return Subpage.objects.filter(restricted_to__isnull=True) class Standalone_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 1 def items(self): return Standalone_Page.objects.all() class Categories_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 0.7 def items(self): return Category.objects.all()

    Read the article

  • What is the way to go to fake my database layer in a unit test?

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have a question about unit testing. say i have a controller with one create method which puts a new customer in the database: //code a bit shortened public actionresult Create(Formcollection formcollection){ client c = nwe client(); c.Name = formcollection["name"]; ClientService.Save(c); { Clientservice would call a datalayer object and save it in the database. What i do now is create a database testscript and set my database in a know condition before testing. So when i test this method in the unit test, i know that there must be one more client in the database, and what it's name is. In short: ClientController cc = new ClientController(); cc.Create(new FormCollection (){name="John"}); //i know i had 10 clients before assert.areEqual(11, ClientService.GetNumberOfClients()); //the last inserted one is John assert.areEqual("John", ClientService.GetAllClients()[10].Name); So i've read that unit testing should not be hitting the database, i've setup an IOC for the database classes, but then what? I can create a fake database class, and make it do nothing. But then ofcourse my assertions will not work because if i say GetNumberOfClients() it will alwasy return X because it has no interaction with the fake database class used in the Create Method. I can also create a List of Clients in the fake database class, but as there will be two different instance created (one in the controller action and one in the unit test), they will have no interaction. What is the way to make this unit test work without a database?

    Read the article

  • Creating Emulated iSCSI Target in a Lab/Testing Environment using Windows Server 2008 R2

    - by Brian McCleary
    We have a single server running Windows Server 2008 with Hyper-V installed running 5 virtual machines. I have purchased a second DELL R805 Server so that we can create a fail-over cluster to our current R805 that is currently in production. Right now, our R805 connects via iSCSI to a MD3000i iSCSI SAN. Before we try to roll out the second server and clustering to our production environment, I want to be able to test and "play with" the clustering features in our lab before rolling it out. The problem is that I don't want to spend a couple thousand dollars on another iSCSI SAN server just for testing. I already have two servers in my lab that are installed with Windows Server 2008 R2 64bit (one is the R805 and another spare desktop that was laying around) and with the Hyper-V roll enabled that should be ready to test with, but I don't have an iSCSI target to use as the Cluster Shared Volume. Is there anyway to install, either on a Hyper-V image or on a external spare computer that we have some sort of emulated iSCSI target? In our lab, we obviously don't need a real SAN, just something that we can test out how to setup the clustering properly outside of our production environment. Any advise is appreciated. FYI - I have read Jose Barret's blog on WUDSS at http://blogs.technet.com/josebda/archive/2008/01/07/installing-the-evaluation-version-of-wudss-2003-refresh-and-the-microsoft-iscsi-software-target-version-3-1-on-a-vm.aspx, but it seems awfully complex. I'm hoping for an easier solution.

    Read the article

  • How do I get a ComboBox SelectionChanged event to fire from a nested ListBoxItem?

    - by Stephen McCusker
    This is a rather complex problem that has me really confused right now. Any help would be greatly appreciated. The Setup: ListBox of Type A UserControls -ListBoxItem of Type A UserControl --ListBox of Type B UserControls ---ListBoxItem of Type B UserControl ----ListBox of Type C UserControls -----ListBoxItem of Type C UserControl (contains the ComboBox) In other words, the Type A control has a ListBox of Type B controls that has a ListBox of Type C controls. All of the controls are hierarchical in nature. Type A contains the data that's needed to load the Type B controls and the Type B contains the data that's needed to load the Type C controls. The Type C control has a standard ComboBox in it for changing the values of the present items. In addition to the above structure, I have drag and dropping tied to the PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown event on both the Type A and Type B UserControl levels to handle reordering/deleting/etc commands in the GUI. All of this is working as intended. The Problem: When I attempt to change the value in the ComboBox, the SelectionChanged event never fires on the Type C "level" unless I'm careful enough to click on the borders/spacing in between any Type A or B controls. This happens when my ComboBox popout menu overlaps on either a Type A or B control located below itself. The selection events for Type A or B are firing instead of the Type C events, so the ComboBox is never changing its value reliably. In the debugger, the code for handling the drag and drop is triggering on the next ListBoxItem that's located underneath the ComboBox. Thoughts: Is there a way I can make my ComboBox popup take prevalence over the items behind it while double-nested in a ListBox (ie, ignore anything behind it while it's open)? Is there some way to reroute the incorrectly firing SelectionChanged events down to the ComboBox that's supposed to be triggering them?

    Read the article

  • Atomic swap in GNU C++

    - by Steve
    I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

    Read the article

  • Website running JavaScript setInterval starts to fail after ~1day

    - by Martin Clemens Bloch
    I wish I could be more specific here, but unfortunately this might be hard. I basically hope this is some "well"-known timeout or setup issue. We have a website running an (JS/html - ASP.net project) website overview on a screen at a factory. This screen has no keyboard so it should keep refreshing the page forever - years perhaps (though 1 week might be okay). (It is used by factory workers to see incoming transports etc.) This all works perfectly; the site continuously updates itself and gets the new correct data. Then, sometimes, in the morning this "overview" screen has no data and the workers have to manually refresh the site using the simple refresh button or F5 - which fixes everything. I have tried a few things trying to reproduce the error myself including: Cutting the internet connection and MANY other ways of making it timeout (breakpoints, stopping services etc.). Setting the refresh time of setInterval to 100ms and letting the site run 3-5 minutes. (normal timer is 1 minute) setInterval SHOULD run forever according to the internet searching I have done. Checked that "JavaScript frequency" has not been turned down in power saving settings. No matter what; the site resumes correct function WITHOUT a refresh as soon as I plug in the internet cable or whatever again - I can't reproduce the error. The website is dependent on a backend WCF service and project integration, but since the workers are fixing this with a simple refresh I am assuming this has not crashed. EDIT: The browser I tried to reproduce the error in was IE/win7. I will ask about the factory tomorrow, but I am guessing IE/win? also. Is setInterval in fact really infinite or is there something else wrong here? All help much appreciated. 0.5 bitcoin reward for solving answer ;)

    Read the article

  • How to include external classes in a GAE deployment?

    - by kodra
    I am using the Google plug-in for Eclipse and have the following problem: The project consists of a GWT based GUI talking to a server running on GAE and using JPA. Additionally there is a project to migrate the legacy data to the new datastore. Since these both project use common data model, I have extracted a set of interfaces and enums into a separate project and set the other two projects dependencies on it. The Java App project seems to work, but the GWT/GAE only works if I manually copy the classes into the WEB-INF/classes directory. Obviously this is only working when using the housted mode. Anybody knows how to configure such a multi project setup in Eclipse? Also, I am not sure if the multi project layout is the best solution. The set of common model objects is used in all 3 areas: user client (GWT project compiling standard folders client and shared) server side (providing services for GWT-RPC, uploading and different feeds) migration application (posting the legacy data to the upload servlet) What are the architectural options to keep the amount of duplicated classes on minimum?

    Read the article

  • Opening a pdf in .NET

    - by link664
    In the application we are working on we are trying to implement Help. We have a help pdf document and for the moment it has been deemed acceptable that when users click the help button it just opens the pdf. The application is a desktop app and the pdf file needs to be included in the install somehow and installed on the local machine. I essentially need two things: How would I add this pdf to the application so that it is available on the client machine after install? I can either put it in the resources of the project, or else I could put it in the Application Folder of the client setup installer. How would I open this pdf? I can either open this pdf by just launching the default pdf viewer for the file, or I can use the System.WinForms.WebBrowser tool to display it. However if I choose the second option, I am unsure of how to access the file stored in the resources or find it in the install folder. If you could please provide me with the code to do this (either in VB.Net or C#.Net) that would be great.

    Read the article

  • Django/jQuery - read file and pass to browser as file download prompt

    - by danspants
    I've previously asked a question regarding passing files to the browser so a user receives a download prompt. However these files were really just strings creatd at the end of a function and it was simple to pass them to an iframe's src attribute for the desired effect. Now I have a more ambitious requirement, I need to pass pre existing files of any format to the browser. I have attempted this using the following code: def return_file(request): try: bob=open(urllib.unquote(request.POST["file"]),"rb") response=HttpResponse(content=bob,mimetype="application/x-unknown") response["Content-Disposition"] = "attachment; filename=nothing.xls" return HttpResponse(response) except: return HttpResponse(sys.exc_info()) With my original setup the following jQuery was sufficient to give the desired download prompt: jQuery('#download').attr("src","/return_file/"); However this won't work anymore as I need to pass POST values to the function. my attempt to rectify that is below, but instead of a download prompt I get the file displayed as text. jQuery.get("/return_file/",{"file":"c:/filename.xls"},function(data) { jQuery(thisButton).children("iframe").attr("src",data); }); Any ideas as to where I'm going wrong? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is there a useDirtyFlag option for Tomcat 6 cluster configuration?

    - by kevinjansz
    In Tomcat 5.0.x you had the ability to set useDirtyFlag="false" to force replication of the session after every request rather than checking for set/removeAttribute calls. <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.cluster.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster" managerClassName="org.apache.catalina.cluster.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" expireSessionsOnShutdown="false" **useDirtyFlag="false"** doClusterLog="true" clusterLogName="clusterLog"> ... The comments in the server.xml stated this may be used to make the following work: <% HashMap map = (HashMap)session.getAttribute("map"); map.put("key","value"); %> i.e. change the state of an object that has already been put in the session and you can be sure that this object still be replicated to the other nodes in the cluster. According to the Tomcat 6 documentation you only have two "Manager" options - DeltaManager & BackupManager ... neither of these seem to allow this option or anything like it. In my testing the default setup: <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.ha.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster"/> where you get the DeltaManager by default, it's definitely behaving as useDirtyFlag="true" (as I'd expect). So my question is - is there an equivalent in Tomcat 6? Looking at the source I can see a manager implementation "org.apache.catalina.ha.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" which does have the useDirtyFlag but the javadoc comments in this state it's "Tomcat Session Replication for Tomcat 4.0" ... I don't know if this is ok to use - I'm guessing not as it's not mentioned in the main cluster configuration documentation.

    Read the article

  • Native functions throw UnsatisfiedLinkError in custom view, despite working in main activity

    - by Mark Ingram
    For some reason I can only call native functions from my main activity and not any custom views that I've created. Here is an example file (I followed a tutorial, but renamed the classes http://mindtherobot.com/blog/452/android-beginners-ndk-setup-step-by-step/) See the usage of the native function "getNewString". package com.example.native; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.AlertDialog; import android.content.Context; import android.graphics.Bitmap; import android.graphics.Canvas; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; public class NativeTestActivity extends Activity { static { System.loadLibrary("nativeTest"); } private native String getNewString(); @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); this.setContentView(new BitmapView(this)); String hello = getNewString(); // This line works fine new AlertDialog.Builder(this).setMessage(hello).show(); } } class BitmapView extends View { static { System.loadLibrary("nativeTest"); } private native String getNewString(); public BitmapView(Context context) { super(context); String hello = getNewString(); // This line throws the UnsatisfiedLinkError new AlertDialog.Builder(this.getContext()).setMessage(hello).show(); } } How can I call native functions in my custom views? I've built the application as an Android 2.2 app. I'm running the application on my HTC Desire. I have the latest SDK (9) and latest NDK (r5).

    Read the article

  • How to set WS-SecurityPolicy in an inbound CXF service in Mule?

    - by Brakara
    When configuring the service for handling UsernameToken and signatures, it's setup like this: <service name="serviceName"> <inbound> <cxf:inbound-endpoint address="someUrl" protocolConnector="httpsConnector" > <cxf:inInterceptors> <spring:bean class="org.apache.cxf.binding.soap.saaj.SAAJInInterceptor" /> <spring:bean class="org.apache.cxf.ws.security.wss4j.WSS4JInInterceptor"> <spring:constructor-arg> <spring:map> <spring:entry key="action" value="UsernameToken Timestamp Signature" /> <spring:entry key="passwordCallbackRef" value-ref="serverCallback" /> <spring:entry key="signaturePropFile" value="wssecurity.properties" /> </spring:map> </spring:constructor-arg> </spring:bean> </cxf:inInterceptors> </cxf:inbound-endpoint> </inbound> </service> But how is it possible to create a policy of what algorithms that are allowed, and what parts of the message that should be signed?

    Read the article

  • quartz.net - Can I not add a callback delegate method to JobExecutionContext?

    - by Greg
    Hi, BACKGROUND - I have a synchroisation function within my MainForm class. It gets called manually when the user pushes the SYNC button. I want to also call this synchroisation function when the scheduler triggers too, so effectively want SchedulerJob:IJob.Execute() method to be able to call it. QUESTION - How do I access the MainForm.Sychronization() method from within the SchedulerJob:IJob.Execute() method? I tried creating a delegate for this method in the MainForm class and getting it added via jobDetail.JobDataMap. However when I try I'm not sure that JobDataMap has a method to pull out a Delegate type??? private void Schedule(MainForm.SyncDelegate _syncNow) { var jobDetail = new JobDetail("MainJob", null, typeof(SchedulerJob)); jobDetail.JobDataMap["CallbackMethod"] = _syncNow; // Trigger Setup var trigger = new CronTrigger("MainTrigger"); string expression = GetCronExpression(); trigger.CronExpressionString = expression; trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.Now.ToUniversalTime(); // Schedule Job & Trigger _scheduler.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } public class SchedulerJob : IJob { public SchedulerJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { JobDataMap dataMap = context.JobDetail.JobDataMap; MainForm.SyncDelegate CallbackFunction = dataMap.getDelegate["CallbackMethod"]; **// THIS METHOD DOESN'T EXIST - getDelegate()** CallbackFunction(); } } thanks

    Read the article

  • Using Moq to set indexers in C#

    - by emddudley
    I'm having trouble figuring out how to set indexers in C# with Moq. The Moq documentation is weak, and I've done a lot of searching... what I'd like to do is similar in the solution to How to Moq Setting an Indexed property: var someClass = new Mock<ISomeClass>(); someClass.SetupSet(o => o.SomeIndexedProperty[3] = 25); I want to modify the above to work for any index and any value so I can just do something like this: someClass.Object.SomeIndexedProperty[1] = 5; Currently I have the following, which works great for the indexed property getter, but if I ever set the value Moq ignores it: var someValues = new int[] { 10, 20, 30, 40 }; var someClass = new Mock<ISomeClass>(); someClass.Setup(o => o.SomeIndexedProperty[It.IsAny<int>()]) .Returns<int>(index => someValues[index]); // Moq doesn't set the value below, so the Assert fails! someClass.Object.SomeIndexedProperty[3] = 25; Assert.AreEqual(25, someClass.Object.SomeIndexedProperty[3]);

    Read the article

  • How can I properly handle 404s in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Brian
    I am just getting started on ASP.NET MVC so bear with me. I've searched around this site and various others and have seen a few implementations of this. EDIT: I forgot to mention I am using RC2 Using URL Routing: routes.MapRoute( "Error", "{*url}", new { controller = "Errors", action = "NotFound" } //404s ); The above seems to take care of requests like this (assuming default route tables setup by initial MVC project): "/blah/blah/blah/blah" Overriding HandleUnknownAction() in the controller itself: //404s - handle here (bad action requested protected override void HandleUnknownAction(string actionName) { ViewData["actionName"] = actionName; View("NotFound").ExecuteResult(this.ControllerContext); } However the previous strategies do not handle a request to a Bad/Unknown controller. For example, I do not have a "/IDoNotExist", if I request this I get the generic 404 page from the web server and not my 404 if I use routing + override. So finally, my question is: Is there any way to catch this type of request using a route or something else in the MVC framework itself? OR should I just default to using Web.Config customErrors as my 404 handler and forget all this? I assume if I go with customErrors I'll have to store the generic 404 page outside of /Views due to the Web.Config restrictions on direct access. Anyway any best practices or guidance is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Identify machines behind a router uniquely based on ipaddress

    - by Amith George
    Some background first. I have a .net client agent installed on each of the machines in the lan. They are interacting with my central server [website] also on the same lan. It is important for my website to figure out which of the machines can talk to each other. For example, machines of one subnet cannot directly talk to machines of another subnet without configuring the routers and such. But machines in the same subnet should be able to talk to each other directly. The problem I am facing is when the lan setup is like in Figure 1. Because Comp1, Comp2 and Comp3 are behind a router, they have got the ipaddress 192.168.1.2 till 192.168.1.4. My client agent on these machines report the same ipaddress back to the server. However, machines Comp4, Comp5 also have the same ipaddresses. Thus, as far as my server is concerned, there are 2 machines with the same ipaddress. Not just that, because the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 for all machines, my server is fooled into thinking that Comp1 can directly talk to Comp5, which is not possible. So, how do I solve this? What do I need to change in my client or in my server, so that I can support this scenario. These two are the only things in my control.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542  | Next Page >