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• Returning a lua table on SWIG call

  - by Tom J Nowell

  I have a class with a methodcalled GetEnemiesLua. I have bound this class to lua using SWIG, and I can call this method using my lua code. I am trying to get the method to return a lua table of objects. Here is my current code: void CSpringGame::GetEnemiesLua(){ std::vector<springai::Unit*> enemies = callback->GetEnemyUnits(); if( enemies.empty()){ lua_pushnil(ai->L); return; } else{ lua_newtable(ai->L); int top = lua_gettop(ai->L); int index = 1; for (std::vector<springai::Unit*>::iterator it = enemies.begin(); it != enemies.end(); ++it) { //key lua_pushinteger(ai->L,index);//lua_pushstring(L, key); //value CSpringUnit* unit = new CSpringUnit(callback,*it,this); ai->PushIUnit(unit); lua_settable(ai->L, -3); ++index; } ::lua_pushvalue(ai->L,-1); } } PushIUnit is as follows: void CTestAI::PushIUnit(IUnit* unit){ SWIG_NewPointerObj(L,unit,SWIGTYPE_p_IUnit,1); } To test this I have the following code: t = game:GetEnemiesLua() if t == nil then game:SendToConsole("t is nil! ") end The result is always 't is nil', despite this being incorrect. I have put breakpoints in the code and it is indeed going over the loop, rather than doing lua_pushnil. So how do I make my method return a table when called via lua?

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• Managing My Database in Source Control

  - by Jason

  As I am working with a new database project (within VS2008), and as I have never developed a database from scratch, I immediately began looking into how to manage a database within source control (in this case, Subversion). I found some information on SO, including this post: Keeping development databases in multiple environments in sync. One of the answers in particular pointed to a number of a links, all of which had good, useful information. I was reading a series of posts by K. Scott Allen which describe how he manages database change. From my reading (and please pardon the noobishness of my question), it seems as though the database itself is never checked into a repository. Rather, scripts that can build the database, along with test data (which is also populated from scripts) is checked into the repository. Ultimately, this means that, when a developer is testing his or her app, these scripts, which are part of the build process, are run. This ensures that the database is up-to-date, but is also run locally from every developer's machine. This makes sense to me (if I am indeed reading that correctly). However, if I am missing something, I would appreciate correction or additional guidance. In addition, another question I wanted to ask - does this also mean that I should NOT check in the mdf or ldf files that are created from Visual Studio? Thanks for any help and additional insight. Always appreciated.

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• Receiving UDP on different Android phones gives different results

  - by user1868982

  I am willing to create a server and client program on my android mobile devices. The devices communicate with each other on the same wifi network, therefore, some simple scanning mechanism must be implemented - The client phones search for a server phone through some kind of broadcast. What I did: My protocol - the client phone broadcasts a message port p on the wifi, the server listens on port p. when the server gets the broadcast message it sends a message back, therefore discovering itself to the client. My code - I have opened a broadcast socket on my app, it sends a broadcast message. Meanwhile there is a python script on my PC that listens and replies - I use python so that my testing will be easier - Wireshark on the PC and I can see everything. What happens: When I use one of my Galaxy S phones - it works and I get a response. When I use the other Galaxy S phone - it doesn't work. Now this is what I know: The phone that works actually has Nexus ROM on it Ver. 4.1.1 The phone that doesn't work has 2.3.3 regular galaxy ROM The python code says it receives both of the broadcasts sent from both phones, and replies to both of them without raising any exception. So far I was thought the problem may be 1. the older version'd phone. 2. the windows firewall 3. the router firewall So I have opened Wireshark, and Indeed I saw that both phones are sending their broadcasts - it was logged on Wireshark. But the python script only responded to the first one. So this is why 1 & 3 are irrelevant - if the router firewall was blocking my UDP I would have still seen the python server response, same with the older versioned phone. To get rid of 2 i just disabled the windows firewall - still same problem. Does anyone has a clue to why this effect might happen? Thanks!

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• HTML + Button with text and image on it.

  - by lucky

  Hello, I have a problem in creating a Button with text and image on it. <td> <button type="submit" name="report" value="Report" <?php if($tab == 'Excel') echo "id=\"tab_inactive\""; else echo "id=\"tab_active\"" ; ?>> <img src="images/report.gif" alt="Report"/>Report </button> <button type="submit" name="excel" value="Excel" <?php if($tab == 'Excel' ) echo "id=\"tab_active\""; else echo "id=\"tab_inactive\"" ; ?>> <img src="images/Excel.gif" alt="Excel" width="16" height="16" /> Excel </button> </td> Here $tab is $tab = strlen(trim($_POST[excel]))>0 ? $_POST[excel] : $_POST[report]; I tried this way, but this is behaving so strangely. On click the button:- The submit function is working properly in firefox, but not in IE. Instead of submitting the value(in this example values are 'Report' and 'Excel'), indeed it is submitting the label of the button. That is if i am checking the value of array PRINT_R($_POST). The value of it is Array ( [report] =>(Icon that i used) Report [excel] => (Icon that i used) Excel [frm_analysis] => [to_analysis] => ) Here i have more than 1 button, then all the labels are submitted eventhough one of them is pressed. i dont how to capture which button is pressed. I even tried changing button type=button and onclick="document.formname.submit()" Even this is resulting in the same. Can you please help me to solve this.

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• JavaScript two-dimensional Array to PHP

  - by vi

  Hi I have to send a two-dimensional JavaScript Array to a PHP page. Indeed, I'm working on a form-builder, in which the user can add or remove fields. These fields are added (or removed) using JavaScript (jQuery). When the user is done and hit a 'publish' button, I have to get all the fields concerned and send them to a PHP page which would build a real form with it. I found a way to do it but I'm pretty sure it's not very clean : addedFields = new Array(); $("#add-info .field").each(function() { addedFields.push(new Array($(this).find('.name').val(), $(this).find('.type').val(), $(this).find('.size').val())); }); Basically, the ".field" class objects are <tr> and the ".name", ".type" and ".size" objects are inputs. So I get an array of [name, type, size], then I convert it into a string using addedFields = addedFields.join(";"); Finally, I go to the PHP form that way ; document.location.href = "create.php?addedfields=" + addedFields; Concerning the PHP code, I create a PHP array using the explode() function: $addedFields = explode(";", $_GET['addedfields']); and then I use it again for each element in the array: foreach ($addedFields as $field) { $field = explode(",", $field); echo "<li>Field with name : '$field[0]', of '$field[1]' type and with a size of $field[2]"; }

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• Having trouble using jQuery's .animate() to animate a div from left to right, right to left?

  - by Alex

  Hello, I seem to be having difficulties using jQuery .animate() to animate an absolutely positioned div from right to left on a button click, and left to right on another button click. I was wondering if you would be willing to help me understand what I'm doing wrong? Thanks. Below is my relevant CSS, HTML, and jQuery code. I can click the #moveLeft button and it wil indeed animate it to the left, but when I click the #moveRight button, nothing happens. Where am I going wrong? Thanks!! CSS #scorecardTwo { position:absolute; padding:5px; width: 300px; background-color:#E1E1E1; right:0px; top:0px; display:none; } HTML text text Left Right jQuery $("#scorecardTwo").fadeIn("slow"); $("#moveLeft").bind("click", function() { var config = { "left" : function() { return $(this).offset().left; }, "right" : function() { return $("body").innerWidth() - $K("#scorecardTwo").width(); } }; $("#scorecardTwo").css(config).animate({"left": "0px"}, "slow"); $(this).attr("disabled", "disabled"); $("#moveRight").attr("disabled", ""); }); $("#moveRight").bind("click", function() { var config = { "left" : function() { return $(this).offset().left; }, "right" : function() { return $("body").innerWidth() - $K("#scorecardTwo").width(); } }; $("#scorecardTwo").css(config).animate({"right" : "0px"}, "slow"); $(this).attr("disabled", "disabled"); $("#moveLeft").attr("disabled", ""); });

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• What does the Asterisk * mean in Objective-C?

  - by Thanks

  Is it true, that the Asterisk always means "Hey, that is a pointer!" And an Pointer always holds an memory adress? (Yes I know for the exception that a * is used for math operation) For Example: NSString* myString; or SomeClass* thatClass; or (*somePointerToAStruct).myStructComponent = 5; I feel that there is more I need to know about the Asterirsk (*) than that I use it when defining an Variable that is a pointer to a class. Because sometimes I already say in the declaration of an parameter that the Parameter variable is a pointer, and still I have to use the Asterisk in front of the Variable in order to access the value. That recently happened after I wanted to pass a pointer of an struct to a method in a way like [myObj myMethod:&myStruct], I could not access a component value from that structure even though my method declaration already said that there is a parameter (DemoStruct*)myVar which indeed should be already known as a pointer to that demostruct, still I had always to say: "Man, compiler. Listen! It IIISSS a pointer:" and write: (*myVar).myStructComponentX = 5; I really really really do not understand why I have to say that twice. And only in this case. When I use the Asterisk in context of an NSString* myString then I can just access myString however I like, without telling the compiler each time that it's a pointer. i.e. like using *myString = @"yep". It just makes no sense to me.

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• Is this an error in "More Effective C++" in Item28?

  - by particle128

  I encountered a question when I was reading the item28 in More Effective C++ .In this item, the author shows to us that we can use member template in SmartPtr such that the SmartPtr<Cassette> can be converted to SmartPtr<MusicProduct>. The following code is not the same as in the book,but has the same effect. #include <iostream> class Base{}; class Derived:public Base{}; template<typename T> class smart{ public: smart(T* ptr):ptr(ptr){} template<typename U> operator smart<U>() { return smart<U>(ptr); } ~smart(){delete ptr;} private: T* ptr; }; void test(const smart<Base>& ) {} int main() { smart<Derived> sd(new Derived); test(sd); return 0; } It indeed can be compiled without compilation error. But when I ran the executable file, I got a core dump. I think that's because the member function of the conversion operator makes a temporary smart, which has a pointer to the same ptr in sd (its type is smart<Derived>). So the delete directive operates twice. What's more, after calling test, we can never use sd any more, since ptr in sd has already been delete. Now my questions are : Is my thought right? Or my code is not the same as the original code in the book? If my thought is right, is there any method to do this? Thanks very much for your help.

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• jQuery code works in Chrome, not in IE9

  - by Francis Ducharme

  Pretty new to jQuery here, I've got a chunk of code that works OK in Chrome, but fails in IE9 (have not tried FF yet). Here's the code: var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9, I get an error to the effect that slice can't be called because textColor is undefined. I was not sure if it's because jQuery just can't find the #navmenu-body element or that it can't find the CSS attribute color. So I did: var j = $('#navmenu-body'); var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9's console, j.length returns 0. So the selector is indeed, not working Here's the #navmenu-body HTML DOM <div id="navmenu-body" class="x-panel-body x-panel-body-cssmenu x-layout-fit x-panel-body-cssmenu" style="height: 398px; left: 0px; top: 0px; width: 200px;"> </div> Do I need to do something else for IE9 support ?

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• Zend Metadata Cache in file

  - by Matthieu

  I set up a metadata cache in Zend Framework because a lot of DESCRIBE queries were executed and it affected the performances. $frontendOptions = array ('automatic_serialization' => true); $backendOptions = array ('cache_dir' => CACHE_PATH . '/db-tables-metadata'); $cache = Zend_Cache::factory( 'Core', 'File', $frontendOptions, $backendOptions ); Zend_Db_Table::setDefaultMetadataCache($cache); I can indeed see the cache files created, and the website works great. However, when I launch unit tests, or a script of the same application that perform DB queries, I end up with an error because Zend couldn't read the cache files. This is because in the website, the cache files are created by the www user, and when I run phpunit or a script, it tries to read them with my user and it fails. Do you see any solution to that? I have some quickfix ideas but I'm looking for a good/stable solution. And I'd rather avoid running phpunit or the scripts as www if possible (for practical reasons).

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• Objective-measures of the expressiveness of programming languages [closed]

  - by Casebash

  I am very interested in the expressiveness of different languages. Everyone who has programmed in multiple languages knows that sometimes a language allows you to express concepts which you can't express in other languages. You can have all kinds of subjective discussion about this, but naturally it would be better to have an objective measure. There do actually exist objective measures. One is Turing-Completeness, which means that a language is capable of generating any output that could be generated by following a sequential set of steps. There are also other lesser levels of expressiveness such as Finite State Automata. Now, except for domain specific languages, pretty much all modern languages are Turing complete. It is therefore natural to ask the following question: Can we can define any other formal measures of expressiveness which are greater than Turing completeness? Now of course we can't define this by considering the output that a program can generate, as Turing machines can already produce the same output that any other program can. But there are definitely different levels in what concepts can be expressed - surely no-one would argue that assembly language is as powerful as a modern object oriented language like Python. You could use your assembly to write a Python interpreter, so clearly any accurate objective measure would have to exclude this possibility. This also causes a problem with trying to define the expressiveness using the minimum number of symbols. How exactly to do so is not clear and indeed appears extremely difficult, but we can't assume that just because we don't know how to solve a problem, that nobody know how to. It is also doesn't really make sense to demand a definition of expressiveness before answering the question - after all the whole point of this question is to obtain such a definition. I think that my explanation will be clear enough for anyone with a strong theoretical background in computer science to understand what I am looking for. If you do have such a background and you disagree, please comment why, but if you don't thats probably why you don't understand the question.

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• How do I set the dimensions of a custom component defined in an ActionScript class?

  - by user339681

  I'm trying to set the height of a vertical bar (activityBar) but it does not appear to do anything. i have tried something similar with the whole component, but setting the dimensions does nothing (even in the mxml used to instantiate the class). Indeed, I've added transparent graphics just to give the component some dimensions I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. It's something bad though; my approach seems dire. FYI: I'm trying to create a mic activity bar that will respond to the mic by simply setting the height of the activityBar child (which seems to me to be more efficient than redrawing the graphics each time). Thanks for your help! package components { import mx.core.UIComponent; public class MicActivityBar extends UIComponent { public var activityBar:UIComponent; // Constructor public function MicActivityBar() { super(); this.opaqueBackground = 0xcc4444; graphics.beginFill(0xcccccc, 0); graphics.drawRect(0,-15,5,30); graphics.endFill();// background for bar activityBar = new UIComponent(); activityBar.graphics.beginFill(0xcccccc, 0.8); activityBar.graphics.drawRect(0,-15,5,20); activityBar.graphics.endFill(); activityBar.height=10; addChild(activityBar); } } }

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• How to get an inner div to fill the entire wrapper div?

  - by ripper234

  I have the following html code: <div class="outer ui-draggable" style="position: relative;"> <div class="inner">Foo bar</div> </div> With this CSS: .outer { background-color: #F7F085; margin: 5px; height: 100px; width: 150px; text-align:center; vertical-align:text-bottom; } .outer .inner { display:inline; vertical-align:middle; height: 100px; width: 150px; } I would like the inner div to fill the outer div completely - the text block should be an entire 100X150 box. The problem is that this code doesn't produce the desired effect. The outer div is indeed the correct size, but the inner div seems to only fill a small area at the top of the outer div. I also tried using height:inherit and width:inherit instead of specifying a size.

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• Runtime of optimized Primehunter

  - by Setton

  Ok so I need some serious runtime help here! This method should take in an int value, check its primality, and return true if the number is indeed a prime. I understand why the loop only needs to go up to i squared, I understand that the worst case scenario is the case in which either the number is prime (or a multiple of a prime). But I don't understand how to quantify the actual runtime. I have done the loop myself by hand to try to understand the pattern or correlation of the number (n) and how many loops occur, but I literally feel like I keep falling into the same trap every time. I need a new way of thinking about this! I have a hint: "Think about the SIZE of the integer" which makes me want to quantify the literal number of integers in a number in relation to how many iterations it does in the for loop (floor log(n)) +1). BUT IT'S NOT WORKIIIING?! I KNOW it isn't square root n, obviously. I'm asking for Big O notation. public class PrimeHunter { public static boolean isPrime(int n) { boolean answer = (n > 1) ? true : false; //runtime = linear runtime for (int i = 2; i * i <= n; i++) //runtime = ????? { if (n % i == 0) //doesn't occur if it is a prime { answer = false; break; } } return answer; //runtime = linear runtime } }

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• jquery.clone() and ASP.NET Forms

  - by Jeff

  So I have a page where I would like to be able to add multiple, dynamic users to a record in a database. Here's the rough start page: <div id="records"> <div id="userRecord"> Name: <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="objNameTextBox"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Phone Number: <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="objPhoneNumberTextBox"></asp:TextBox> <br /> </div> </div> And the jquery: $(function () { $(".button").button().click(function (event) { addnew(); event.preventDefault(); }); }) function addnew() { $('#userRecord').clone().appendTo('#records'); } So my question is what do I use within ASP.NET to be able to poll all of the data in the form and add a unique record for each #userRecord div within the #records div? Yes - I should change the userRecord to a class - I will deal with that. This is just simple testing here. Should I look in JSON for this type of function? I'm not familiar with it but could figure it out if that is indeed my best option. Thanks for the guidance!

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• Wrong class type in objective C

  - by Max Hui

  I have a parent class and a child class. GameObjectBase (parent) GameObjectPlayer(child). When I override a method in Child class and call it using [myPlayerClass showNextFrame] It is calling the parent class one. It turns out in the debugger, I see the myPlayerClass was indeed class type GameObjectBase (which is the parent class) How come? GameObjectBase.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "cocos2d.h" @class GameLayer; @interface GameObjectBase : NSObject { /* CCSprite *gameObjectSprite; // Sprite representing this game object GameLayer *parentGameLayer; */ // Reference of the game layer this object // belongs to } @property (nonatomic, assign) CCSprite *gameObjectSprite; @property (nonatomic, assign) GameLayer *parentGameLayer; // Class method. Autorelease + (id) initWithGameLayer:(GameLayer *) gamelayer imageFileName:(NSString *) fileName; // "Virtual methods" that the derived class should implement. // If not implemented, this method will be called and Assert game - (void) update: (ccTime) dt; - (void) showNextFrame; @end GameObjectPlayer.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "GameObjectBase.h" @interface GameObjectPlayer : GameObjectBase { int direction; } @property (nonatomic) int direction; @end GameLayer.h #import "cocos2d.h" #import "GameObjectPlayer.h" @interface GameLayer : CCLayer { } // returns a CCScene that contains the GameLayer as the only child +(CCScene *) scene; @property (nonatomic, strong) GameObjectPlayer *player; @end When I call examine in debugger what type "temp" is in this function inside GameLayer class, it's giving parent class GameObjectBase instead of subclass GameObjectPlayer - (void) update:(ccTime) dt { GameObjectPlayer *temp = _player; [temp showNextFrame]; }

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• Linux boot on a raid1 software raid ?

  - by azera

  Hello I am trying to convert my single disk boot to a raid1 boot So far here is what i have: I sucessfully create the raid 1 as degraded with the new drive alone, I copied all the data on it I can mount that raid 1, see its files etc I already have a raid5 that is working on the same box (although not booting on it) I have installed grub on both drive When grub boot, it loads the kernel alright, but during the kernel boot it fails to load the "root block device" The kernel tells me : 1 - detected that root device is an md device 2 - determining root devices 3 - mounting root 4 - mounting /dev/md125 on /newroot failed: input/output error. Please enter another root device: ... At this point, if I enter /dev/sda3 (my "old" root device that isn't converted to raid yet) everything boots fine without the root. The /dev/md125 device is indeed created but it seems to be created after the error happens, as in it creates it after loading the device, when mdadm is loaded. Somehow it looks like it can't/doesn't load the raid array before it needs to mount it, and I don't know how I can solve that. My config files (taken from the system once it boots with sda3 as root device): $ cat /etc/mdadm.conf ARRAY /dev/md/md0-r5 metadata=0.90 UUID=1a118934:c831bdb3:64188b84:66721085 ARRAY /dev/md125 metadata=0.90 UUID=48ec4190:a80d4dde:64188b84:66721085 $ cat /proc/mdstat Personalities : [raid1] [raid6] [raid5] [raid4] [raid0] [raid10] md125 : active raid1 sdc3[1] 477853312 blocks [2/1] [_U] md127 : active raid5 sdd[0] sdf[3] sdb[2] sde[1] 4395415488 blocks level 5, 64k chunk, algorithm 2 [4/4] [UUUU] unused devices: <none> $ cat /boot/grub/menu.lst default 0 timeout 8 splashimage=(hd0,0)/boot/grub/splash.xpm.gz title Gentoo Linux 2.6.31-r10 root (hd0,0) #kernel /boot/kernel-genkernel-x86_64-2.6.31-gentoo-r10 root=/dev/ram0 real_root=/dev/sda3 kernel /boot/kernel-genkernel-x86_64-2.6.31-gentoo-r10 root=/dev/md125 md=125,/dev/sdc3,/dev/sda3 initrd /boot/initramfs-genkernel-x86_64-2.6.31-gentoo-r10 # blkid /dev/sda1: UUID="89fee223-b845-4e0a-8a0b-e6cf695d5bcf" TYPE="ext2" /dev/sda2: UUID="a72296a8-d7d4-447f-a34b-ee920fd1a767" TYPE="swap" /dev/sda3: UUID="97eb0a6a-c385-4a9d-bf74-c0bab1fa4dc1" TYPE="ext3" /dev/sdb: UUID="1a118934-c831-bdb3-6418-8b8466721085" TYPE="linux_raid_member" /dev/sdc1: UUID="d36537fd-19a0-b8a3-6418-8b8466721085" TYPE="linux_raid_member" /dev/sdd: UUID="1a118934-c831-bdb3-6418-8b8466721085" TYPE="linux_raid_member" /dev/sde: UUID="1a118934-c831-bdb3-6418-8b8466721085" TYPE="linux_raid_member" /dev/md127: UUID="13a41589-4cf1-4c04-91ca-37484182c783" TYPE="ext4" /dev/sdf: UUID="1a118934-c831-bdb3-6418-8b8466721085" TYPE="linux_raid_member" /dev/sdc2: UUID="a1916397-1b48-45d7-9f98-73aa521e882f" TYPE="swap" /dev/sdc3: UUID="48ec4190-a80d-4dde-6418-8b8466721085" TYPE="linux_raid_member" /dev/md125: UUID="c947ed64-1d4d-4d1d-b4d2-24669fff916e" SEC_TYPE="ext2" TYPE="ext3" # mdadm -E mdadm: No devices to examine # fdisk -l Disk /dev/sda: 500.1 GB, 500107862016 bytes 255 heads, 63 sectors/track, 60801 cylinders Units = cylinders of 16065 * 512 = 8225280 bytes Disk identifier: 0xe975e9fc Device Boot Start End Blocks Id System /dev/sda1 1 5 40131 83 Linux /dev/sda2 6 1311 10490445 82 Linux swap / Solaris /dev/sda3 1312 60801 477853425 83 Linux Disk /dev/sdc: 500.1 GB, 500107862016 bytes 255 heads, 63 sectors/track, 60801 cylinders Units = cylinders of 16065 * 512 = 8225280 bytes Disk identifier: 0xe975e9fc Device Boot Start End Blocks Id System /dev/sdc1 1 5 40131 83 Linux /dev/sdc2 6 1311 10490445 82 Linux swap / Solaris /dev/sdc3 1312 60801 477853425 83 Linux Disk /dev/md125: 489.3 GB, 489321791488 bytes 2 heads, 4 sectors/track, 119463328 cylinders Units = cylinders of 8 * 512 = 4096 bytes Disk identifier: 0x00000000 Disk /dev/md125 doesn't contain a valid partition table

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• Why is user asked to choose their workgroup?

  - by Clinton Blackmore

  We running Mac OS X Server 10.5.8 with Mac OS X 10.5.8 clients. Students use network logins to, well, log in. I've been asked to deny internet access to a specific user. I was told that a good way to do it is to create a user workgroup called "No Internet Access" and manage settings there. (Specifically, I told parental controls to allow access to no sites, and blacklisted all the installed web browsers). Now, when the user authenticates to log in, they are greeted with this dialog: Workgroups for <username> Grade 7 Students No Internet Access It is unlikely that the student would willing choose "No Internet Access" to be their base group. Looking in Workgroup Manager at the student's record, it shows their primary group ID is the grade 7 group, and "No Internet Access" is listed as another group they belong to. I looked at the managed preferences for all the computers pertaining to logins. They are set to their defaults. Specifically, the computer groups' preference for Logins - Access has the defaults: [unchecked] Ignore workgroup nesting [checked] Combine available workgroup settings Based on my reading of Tips and Tricks for Mac Administrators, this should be correct, the user should not be asked which group they belong to, and settings from all applicable groups should be applied. How can I achieve that result? Edit: I've decided to add some additional information from the Tips and Tricks for Mac Management White Paper (via Apple in Education, via the author's site). On page 21, it says: With Leopard MCX, workgroup preference settings are combined by default into a single set of values. This means that instead of having to choose between the Math, Science, or Language Arts workgroups when logging in, a user can just authenticate and be taken directly to the desktop. All the settings for each of those workgroups are composited together, providing you with all the Dock items and a composite of all the other settings. On page 40, an example is given in which settings are combined from different 'domains', one computer group, two (user) workgroups, and one individual user's settings. [When johnd logs into a leopard client,] the items staged in the Dock from left to right are: computer group, first workgroup alphabetically, second workgroup, user. Items within the workgroup are staged alphabetically. Nowhere is there an indication that groups are nested; indeed, I can see no sensible (non-flat) heirarchy for groups like Math, Science, and Language Arts. I strongly believe that there is a way to apply settings from two unrelated user workgroups such that a user of OS X 10.5.x or newer does not need to choose their workgroup. This is what I seek to achieve.

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• Virtual Network Interface and NAT disables localhost access for MySQL and Apache

  - by Interarticle

  I'm running an Ubuntu Server 12.04, and recently I configured it to do NAT for my laptop. Since the server has only one NIC, I followed instructions online to create a virtual network device (eth0:0) that has a LAN IP address, then further configured iptables and UFW to allow internet sharing. However, just a few days ago, I discovered that one of the PHP pages hosted on the server failed for no apparent reason. A little digging revealed that the MySQL server started refusing connections from localhost. The same happened with a page (PhpMyAdmin) that was configured to be accessible only from localhost (in Apache2). The error, as shown by $mysql --protocol=tcp -u root -p looks like ERROR 1130 (HY000): Host '<host name of eth0>' is not allowed to connect to this MySQL server However, the funny thing is, I configured the mysql server to allow root access from localhost (only). Moreover, the mysql server listens only on 127.0.0.1:3306, as shown by: sudo netstat -npa | head Active Internet connections (servers and established) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:3306 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1029/mysqld which means that the connection could have only come from 127.0.0.1 (Note that MySQL is working because I can still connect to it via unix domain sockets) In effect, it seems that all tcp connections originating from 127.0.0.1 to 127.0.0.1 appear to any local daemon to come from the eth0 IP address. Indeed, apache2 allowed me to access PhpMyAdmin after I added allow <eth0 IP address>. The following are my network configurations (redacted): /etc/hosts: 127.0.0.1 localhost 211.x.x.x <host name of eth0> <server name> #IPv6 Defaults follows .... /etc/network/interfaces: auto lo iface lo inet loopback auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 211.x.x.x netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway 211.x.x.x dns-nameservers 8.8.8.8 # dns-* options are implemented by the resolvconf package, if installed dns-search xxxxxxx.com hwaddress ether xx:xx:xx:xx:xx:xx auto eth0:0 iface eth0:0 inet static address 192.168.57.254 netmask 255.255.254.0 broadcast 192.168.57.255 network 192.168.57.0 /etc/ufw/sysctl.conf: #Uncommented the following lines net/ipv4/ip_forward=1 net/ipv6/conf/default/forwarding=1 /etc/default/ufw: DEFAULT_FORWARD_POLICY="ACCEPT" #Changed DROP to ACCEPT /etc/init/internet-sharing.conf (upstart script I wrote), section pre-start script: iptables -A FORWARD -o eth0 -i eth0:0 -s 192.168.57.22 -m conntrack --ctstate NEW -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A POSTROUTING -t nat -j MASQUERADE Note again that my problem here is that programs cannot access localhost tcp services, from the server itself, and that access is blocked because the services have access control allowing only 127.0.0.1. I have no problem connecting (as in TCP connections) to services via tcp, even if the services listen only on 127.0.0.1. I do NOT want to connect to the services from another computer.

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• Can you set up a gaming LAN using OpenVPN installed in a VMware guest OS and be playing the game on the host OS?

  - by Coder

  I would like to setup a gaming VPN. Ie. I have some games that work over LAN and would like to play them with people that are not on my LAN. I know I can do this with OpenVPN. My ultimate goal would be to run OpenVPN portably on my host OS and not even need any virtualization. As such i don't want to install it on my host, but i'm fine with running it portably. I'm even fine with temporarily adding registry keys, and then running a .reg file to remove these entries once i'm done. To this effect i have installed OpenVPN on a virtual machine and diffed the registry. I then manually (using a .reg file) added all the keys that seem important on my host OS and copied the installation folder of OpenVPN onto my host machine. Then i try to run openVPN GUI 1.0.3 as a test and it says "Error opening registy for reading (HKLM\SOFTWARE\OpenVPN). OpenVPN is probably not installed". I verified that that key is indeed in the registry with all subkeys and it looks correct. I have tried running the GUI as an administrator and in compatibility mode with no success. I am running Windows 7. If this fails then i would be happy with installing OpenVPN on a virtual machine in VMWare but they key is that i will be running the game installed on my host machine. The first question for this option is if this is even possible. The second is, that I can't get the VM to have internet access if I use bridging but i can if i use NAT. Is it possible to do this game VPN setup with VMWare guest OS running using NAT? Summary of questions: -Is it possible to run openVPN portably and if so what did i miss above? -If it's not possible to run it portably, then can setup a gaming LAN by installing OpenVPN in a guest OS with NAT and how can i do this? -If the above is not possible then can i install OpenVPN in a guest using bridging and if so how can i set this up with a Windows 7 host and Windows XP guest as currently i can't get the guest to be able to access the internet in bridging mode, but it working in NAT mode. -In general is there any good documentation on setting up a gaming LAN with OpenVPN (i am using 2.1.4) as i have never set up a VPN of any sort before so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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• Static IPv6 address in Windows unused for outgoing connections

  - by Luc

  I'm running a Windows server and trying to get it to use a static IPv6 address for outgoing connections to other IPv6 hosts (such as Gmail). I need this because Gmail requires a ptr record, and I can't set one for random addresses. The static address is configured on the host, but it also has a temporary privacy address as well as a random address from the router it seems. By default Windows uses the privacy address; it seems this is the expected behavior (and it makes perfect sense for people/users that did not set a static address, but I did!). I've tried disabling the privacy address with: netsh int ipv6 set privacy disabled This indeed gets rid of the privacy address, but I still have the random address that the router assigned. To disable this, it was said I needed to disable "router discovery" using this command: net interface ipv6 set interface 14 routerdiscovery=disabled Upon doing this, all IPv6 connectivity is lost. If I do this while pinging Gmail, it will report "Destination host unreachable" as soon as I enter the command. In the static IPv6 configuration, I did configure the default gateway and prefix length, so I don't see why it's unable to connect. Probably has something to do with the lack of ARP in IPv6 and somehow being unable to resolve the router's MAC, but I wouldn't know how to fix this. Finally I've tried disabling the DHCPv6 lease with these commands: netsh interface ipv6 set interface "IDMZ Team" managedaddress=disabled netsh interface ipv6 set interface "IDMZ Team" otherstateful=disabled Which was to no avail; the host continues to obtain and use the router-assigned IPv6 address. The router is a FritzBox 7340, which shows me all the IPv4 and IPv6 addresses that the host (identified by MAC) utilizes, but I'm unable to change the assigned address. Maybe this could be done over the telnet interface of the router somehow, but again, I wouldn't know how to do this even if it's the way to go. In short, any of the following would probably solve my problem: Change Windows' source address selection behavior. Have Windows not get an address from the router and not generate a privacy address; Have the router hand out a static address and make Windows use that as source address. Recover connectivity after disabling router discovery on Windows. Alternatively I might use some (batch, perl, ...) script to throw away all IPv6 addresses except the desired one, but this feels rather hacky. If it's the only way (or less hacky than another hacky solution), it might be an option though. Thanks!

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• Quantifying the effects of partition mis-alignment

  - by Matt

  I'm experiencing some significant performance issues on an NFS server. I've been reading up a bit on partition alignment, and I think I have my partitions mis-aligned. I can't find anything that tells me how to actually quantify the effects of mis-aligned partitions. Some of the general information I found suggests the performance penalty can be quite high (upwards of 60%) and others say it's negligible. What I want to do is determine if partition alignment is a factor in this server's performance problems or not; and if so, to what degree? So I'll put my info out here, and hopefully the community can confirm if my partitions are indeed mis-aligned, and if so, help me put a number to what the performance cost is. Server is a Dell R510 with dual E5620 CPUs and 8 GB RAM. There are eight 15k 2.5” 600 GB drives (Seagate ST3600057SS) configured in hardware RAID-6 with a single hot spare. RAID controller is a Dell PERC H700 w/512MB cache (Linux sees this as a LSI MegaSAS 9260). OS is CentOS 5.6, home directory partition is ext3, with options “rw,data=journal,usrquota”. I have the HW RAID configured to present two virtual disks to the OS: /dev/sda for the OS (boot, root and swap partitions), and /dev/sdb for a big NFS share: [root@lnxutil1 ~]# parted -s /dev/sda unit s print Model: DELL PERC H700 (scsi) Disk /dev/sda: 134217599s Sector size (logical/physical): 512B/512B Partition Table: msdos Number Start End Size Type File system Flags 1 63s 465884s 465822s primary ext2 boot 2 465885s 134207009s 133741125s primary lvm [root@lnxutil1 ~]# parted -s /dev/sdb unit s print Model: DELL PERC H700 (scsi) Disk /dev/sdb: 5720768639s Sector size (logical/physical): 512B/512B Partition Table: gpt Number Start End Size File system Name Flags 1 34s 5720768606s 5720768573s lvm Edit 1 Using the cfq IO scheduler (default for CentOS 5.6): # cat /sys/block/sd{a,b}/queue/scheduler noop anticipatory deadline [cfq] noop anticipatory deadline [cfq] Chunk size is the same as strip size, right? If so, then 64kB: # /opt/MegaCli -LDInfo -Lall -aALL -NoLog Adapter #0 Number of Virtual Disks: 2 Virtual Disk: 0 (target id: 0) Name:os RAID Level: Primary-6, Secondary-0, RAID Level Qualifier-3 Size:65535MB State: Optimal Stripe Size: 64kB Number Of Drives:7 Span Depth:1 Default Cache Policy: WriteBack, ReadAdaptive, Direct, No Write Cache if Bad BBU Current Cache Policy: WriteThrough, ReadAdaptive, Direct, No Write Cache if Bad BBU Access Policy: Read/Write Disk Cache Policy: Disk's Default Number of Spans: 1 Span: 0 - Number of PDs: 7 ... physical disk info removed for brevity ... Virtual Disk: 1 (target id: 1) Name:share RAID Level: Primary-6, Secondary-0, RAID Level Qualifier-3 Size:2793344MB State: Optimal Stripe Size: 64kB Number Of Drives:7 Span Depth:1 Default Cache Policy: WriteBack, ReadAdaptive, Direct, No Write Cache if Bad BBU Current Cache Policy: WriteThrough, ReadAdaptive, Direct, No Write Cache if Bad BBU Access Policy: Read/Write Disk Cache Policy: Disk's Default Number of Spans: 1 Span: 0 - Number of PDs: 7 If it's not obvious, virtual disk 0 corresponds to /dev/sda, for the OS; virtual disk 1 is /dev/sdb (the exported home directory tree).

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• Lync server 2010 Active Directory Preparation with a Windows Server 2003 DC

  - by juFo

  I'm trying to install Lync server 2010 but i'm stuck for a while now with the "Active Directory Preparation" part of the Lync server 2010 installation. The "Prepare Schema" fails with the following error: "Step 1: Prepare Schema Run once per deployment. Extends the schema for Lync Server. Not Available: Failure occurred while attempting to check the schema state. Please ensure Active Directory is reachable." screenshot: https://skydrive.live.com/#cid=CB15F1A932B364BE&id=CB15F1A932B364BE%211742 The situation: 1 server with Windows Server 2003 (x86), which is the only Domain Controller (DC) 1 server with Windows Server 2008 R2 (x64) where Lync should be installed. First I have found that the DFL/FFL were not correct: On the DC (server2003) I have changed the Domain Functional Level to Windows Server 2003 and also the Forest Functional Level to Windows Server 2003. If I check these settings on the Server2008 with Active Directory Domains and Trusts, I see indeed that the DFL and FFL are being set to Windows Server 2003. (Windows Server 2003 is the minimum required for Lync server 2010) I tried the Lync AD Preparation again but still got the same message: https://skydrive.live.com/#cid=CB15F1A932B364BE&id=CB15F1A932B364BE%211742 I'm logged in on the Server2008 and Server2003 with the domain administrator account. If I check "Active Directory Users and Computers" and go to the directory Users and watch the properties from the Administrator User then it is also a Member of: Domain Admins Domain Users Enterprise Admins Schema Admins Group Policy Creator Owners The firewall on the server2008 is turned off, still nog working So now my question is: what should I do to make the Lync setup (Active Directory Preparation) work? (I would appreciate clear step-by-step suggestions to check.) Thanks in advance. Update 1: Now I've extended AD successfully on the 2003 DC, using this link: http://blogs.pointbridge.com/Blogs/sloan_jason/Pages/Post.aspx?_ID=2 but when I check the Active Directory Preparation again on the Lync install, it still gives me the same error as in the screenshot I've provided. Update 2: I found out that there is a log on "C:\Users\\AppData\Local\Temp\ with this: Get-CSDomainState Get Domain State Error: An error occurred: "Microsoft.Rtc.Management.ADConnect.NoSuitableServerFoundException" "No suitable domain controller was found in domain "OurDomain.LOCAL". Errors:\r\n"OurDCserver.OurDomain.LOCAL5.2 (3790)5.2 (3790) Service Pack1OurDCserver.OurDomain.LOCAL5.2 (3790)5.2 (3790)Service Pack 1"" I thought Lync could be installed with a Windows Server 2003 (according to the documentation on technet) and it doesn't require a SP. :s

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• Messages stuck in SMTP queue - Exchange 2003

  - by Diav

  I need your help people ;-) I have a problem with messages coming into our Exchange Server and ones going out through it. Basically, the messages are stuck in the SMTP queue. A message will come into the server, I can see it listed under "Exchange System Manager", but if you list the properties of the message queue it says something like 00:10 SMTP Message queued for local delivery 00:10 SMTP Message delivered locally to [email protected] 00:10 SMTP Message scheduled to retry local delivery 00:11 SMTP Message delivered locally to [email protected] 00:11 SMTP Message scheduled to retry local delivery etc etc For outgoing message list looks like this: 10:55 SMTP: Message Submitted to Advanced Queuing 10:55 SMTP: Started Message Submission to Advanced Queue 10:55 SMTP: Message Submitted to Categorizer 10:55 SMTP: Message Categorized and Queued for Routing 10:55 SMTP: Message Routed nad Queued for Remote Delivery And the end - since then status didn't change, message is in queue, I am forcing connection from time to time but without an effect. I checked connection with smarthost (used telnet for that) and everything seems to work correctly, so the problem is probably on exchange side. I am using Exchange Server 2003 running on Small Business Server 2003. I don't have any antivirus installed on server. Remaining free space on each partition is over 3Gb, on partition with data bases - it is over 12Gb. All was working good and without problems since 2005, problems started in half of this june - messages started going out and being stuck almost randomly (I don't see a pattern yet, some are going out, some are not, some are going after several hours). I don't know what to do, what to check more, so please, any ideas? Best regards, D. edit Priv1.edb has 14,5GB and priv1.stm 2,6GB - together those files have more than 16GB - can it be the reason? If yes, then what? Indeed, I haven't thought that it can have something in common with my problem, but several users reported recent problems with Outlook Web Access - they can log in, they see the list of their mails, but they can't see the content of their emails. Although when they are connecting with Outlook 2003/2007 - there is no such problem, only with OWA there is. edit2 So,.. It works now, and I have to admit that I am not really sure what the problem was (hope it won't come back). What have I done: Cleaned up some mailboxes to reduce size of them Dismounted Information Store Defragmentated data base files ( I used eseutil: c:\program files\exchsrvr\bin eseutil /d g:\data base\Exchsrvr\MDBDATA\priv1.edb ) Mounted Information Store back ..and before I managed to do anything else - my queue started moving, elements which were kept there already for days - started moving and after few minutes everything was sent, both, outside and locally. But: priv1.edb is still big (13 884 203 008), priv1.stm as well (2 447 384 576), so this is probably not the issue of size of the file. And if not this, so what was that? And if that was issue of size of the file, then soon it will repeat - is there something I can do to avoid it ?

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• IKE Phase 1 Aggressive Mode exchange does not complete

  - by Isaac Sutherland

  I've configured a 3G IP Gateway of mine to connect using IKE Phase 1 Aggressive Mode with PSK to my openswan installation running on Ubuntu server 12.04. I've configured openswan as follows: /etc/ipsec.conf: version 2.0 config setup nat_traversal=yes virtual_private=%v4:10.0.0.0/8,%v4:192.168.0.0/16,%v4:172.16.0.0/12 oe=off protostack=netkey conn net-to-net authby=secret left=192.168.0.11 [email protected] leftsubnet=10.1.0.0/16 leftsourceip=10.1.0.1 right=%any [email protected] rightsubnet=192.168.127.0/24 rightsourceip=192.168.127.254 aggrmode=yes ike=aes128-md5;modp1536 auto=add /etc/ipsec.secrets: @left.paxcoda.com @right.paxcoda.com: PSK "testpassword" Note that both left and right are NAT'd, with dynamic public IP's. My left ISP gives my router a public IP, but my right ISP gives me a shared dynamic public IP and dynamic private IP. I have dynamic dns for the public ip on the left side. Here is what I see when I sniff the ISAKMP protocol: 21:17:31.228715 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 235, id 43639, offset 0, flags [none], proto UDP (17), length 437) 74.198.87.93.49604 > 192.168.0.11.isakmp: [udp sum ok] isakmp 1.0 msgid 00000000 cookie da31a7896e2a1958->0000000000000000: phase 1 I agg: (sa: doi=ipsec situation=identity (p: #1 protoid=isakmp transform=1 (t: #1 id=ike (type=enc value=aes)(type=keylen value=0080)(type=hash value=md5)(type=auth value=preshared)(type=group desc value=modp1536)(type=lifetype value=sec)(type=lifeduration len=4 value=00015180)))) (ke: key len=192) (nonce: n len=16 data=(da31a7896e2a19582b33...0000001462b01880674b3739630ca7558cec8a89)) (id: idtype=FQDN protoid=0 port=0 len=17 right.paxcoda.com) (vid: len=16) (vid: len=16) (vid: len=16) (vid: len=16) 21:17:31.236720 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 64, id 0, offset 0, flags [DF], proto UDP (17), length 456) 192.168.0.11.isakmp > 74.198.87.93.49604: [bad udp cksum 0x649c -> 0xcd2f!] isakmp 1.0 msgid 00000000 cookie da31a7896e2a1958->5b9776d4ea8b61b7: phase 1 R agg: (sa: doi=ipsec situation=identity (p: #1 protoid=isakmp transform=1 (t: #1 id=ike (type=enc value=aes)(type=keylen value=0080)(type=hash value=md5)(type=auth value=preshared)(type=group desc value=modp1536)(type=lifetype value=sec)(type=lifeduration len=4 value=00015180)))) (ke: key len=192) (nonce: n len=16 data=(32ccefcb793afb368975...000000144a131c81070358455c5728f20e95452f)) (id: idtype=FQDN protoid=0 port=0 len=16 left.paxcoda.com) (hash: len=16) (vid: len=16) (pay20) (pay20) (vid: len=16) However, my 3G Gateway (on the right) doesn't respond, and I don't know why. I think left's response is indeed getting through to my gateway, because in another question, I was trying to set up a similar scenario with Main Mode IKE, and in that case it looks as though at least one of the three 2-way main mode exchanges succeeded. What other explanation for the failure is there? (The 3G Gateway I'm using on the right is a Moxa G3150, by the way.)

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