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  • Should business objects be able to create their own DTOs?

    - by Sam
    Suppose I have the following class: class Camera { public Camera( double exposure, double brightness, double contrast, RegionOfInterest regionOfInterest) { this.exposure = exposure; this.brightness = brightness; this.contrast = contrast; this.regionOfInterest = regionOfInterest; } public void ConfigureAcquisitionFifo(IAcquisitionFifo acquisitionFifo) { // do stuff to the acquisition FIFO } readonly double exposure; readonly double brightness; readonly double contrast; readonly RegionOfInterest regionOfInterest; } ... and a DTO to transport the camera info across a service boundary (WCF), say, for viewing in a WinForms/WPF/Web app: using System.Runtime.Serialization; [DataContract] public class CameraData { [DataMember] public double Exposure { get; set; } [DataMember] public double Brightness { get; set; } [DataMember] public double Contrast { get; set; } [DataMember] public RegionOfInterestData RegionOfInterest { get; set; } } Now I can add a method to Camera to expose its data: class Camera { // blah blah public CameraData ToData() { var regionOfInterestData = regionOfInterest.ToData(); return new CameraData() { Exposure = exposure, Brightness = brightness, Contrast = contrast, RegionOfInterestData = regionOfInterestData }; } } or, I can create a method that requires a special IReporter to be passed in for the Camera to expose its data to. This removes the dependency on the Contracts layer (Camera no longer has to know about CameraData): class Camera { // beep beep I'm a jeep public void ExposeToReporter(IReporter reporter) { reporter.GetCameraInfo(exposure, brightness, contrast, regionOfInterest); } } So which should I do? I prefer the second, but it requires the IReporter to have a CameraData field (which gets changed by GetCameraInfo()), which feels weird. Also, if there is any even better solution, please share with me! I'm still an object-oriented newb.

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  • Graph limitations - Should I use Decorator?

    - by Nick Wiggill
    I have a functional AdjacencyListGraph class that adheres to a defined interface GraphStructure. In order to layer limitations on this (eg. acyclic, non-null, unique vertex data etc.), I can see two possible routes, each making use of the GraphStructure interface: Create a single class ("ControlledGraph") that has a set of bitflags specifying various possible limitations. Handle all limitations in this class. Update the class if new limitation requirements become apparent. Use the decorator pattern (DI, essentially) to create a separate class implementation for each individual limitation that a client class may wish to use. The benefit here is that we are adhering to the Single Responsibility Principle. I would lean toward the latter, but by Jove!, I hate the decorator Pattern. It is the epitome of clutter, IMO. Truthfully it all depends on how many decorators might be applied in the worst case -- in mine so far, the count is seven (the number of discrete limitations I've recognised at this stage). The other problem with decorator is that I'm going to have to do interface method wrapping in every... single... decorator class. Bah. Which would you go for, if either? Or, if you can suggest some more elegant solution, that would be welcome. EDIT: It occurs to me that using the proposed ControlledGraph class with the strategy pattern may help here... some sort of template method / functors setup, with individual bits applying separate controls in the various graph-canonical interface methods. Or am I losing the plot?

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  • Taking the data mapper approach in Zend Framework

    - by Seeker
    Let's assume the following tables setup for a Zend Framework app. user (id) groups (id) groups_users (id, user_id, group_id, join_date) I took the Data Mapper approach to models which basically gives me: Model_User, Model_UsersMapper, Model_DbTable_Users Model_Group, Model_GroupsMapper, Model_DbTable_Groups Model_GroupUser, Model_GroupsUsersMapper, Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers (for holding the relationships which can be seen as aentities; notice the "join_date" property) I'm defining the _referenceMap in Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers: protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'User' => array ( 'columns' => array('user_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Users', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), 'App' => array ( 'columns' => array('group_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'refColumns' => array('id') ) ); I'm having these design problems in mind: 1) The Model_Group only mirrors the fields in the groups table. How can I return a collection of groups a user is a member of and also the date the user joined that group for every group? If I just added the property to the domain object, then I'd have to let the group mapper know about it, wouldn't I? 2) Let's say I need to fetch the groups a user belongs to. Where should I put this logic? Model_UsersMapper or Model_GroupsUsersMapper? I also want to make use of the referencing map (dependent tables) mechanism and probably use findManyToManyRowset or findDependentRowset, something like: $result = $this->getDbTable()->find($userId); $row = $result->current(); $groups = $row->findManyToManyRowset( 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers' ); This would produce two queries when I could have just written it in a single query. I will place this in the Model_GroupsUsersMapper class. An enhancement would be to add a getGroups method to the Model_User domain object which lazily loads the groups when needed by calling the appropriate method in the data mapper, which begs for the second question. Should I allow the domain object know about the data mapper?

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  • Correctly use dependency injection

    - by Rune
    Me and two other colleagues are trying to understand how to best design a program. For example, I have an interface ISoda and multiple classes that implement that interface like Coke, Pepsi, DrPepper, etc.... My colleague is saying that it's best to put these items into a database like a key/value pair. For example: Key | Name -------------------------------------- Coke | my.namespace.Coke, MyAssembly Pepsi | my.namespace.Pepsi, MyAssembly DrPepper | my.namespace.DrPepper, MyAssembly ... then have XML configuration files that map the input to the correct key, query the database for the key, then create the object. I don't have any specific reasons, but I just feel that this is a bad design, but I don't know what to say or how to correctly argue against it. My second colleague is suggesting that we micro-manage each of these classes. So basically the input would go through a switch statement, something similiar to this: ISoda soda; switch (input) { case "Coke": soda = new Coke(); break; case "Pepsi": soda = new Pepsi(); break; case "DrPepper": soda = new DrPepper(); break; } This seems a little better to me, but I still think there is a better way to do it. I've been reading up on IoC containers the last few days and it seems like a good solution. However, I'm still very new to dependency injection and IoC containers, so I don't know how to correctly argue for it. Or maybe I'm the wrong one and there's a better way to do it? If so, can someone suggest a better method? What kind of arguments can I bring to the table to convince my colleagues to try another method? What are the pros/cons? Why should we do it one way? Unfortunately, my colleagues are very resistant to change so I'm trying to figure out how I can convince them.

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  • How to specify selector when CAKeyframeAnimation is finished?

    - by darenchow
    I'm using a CAKeyframeAnimation to animate a view along a CGPath. When the animation is done, I'd like to be able to call some other method to perform another action. Is there a good way to do this? I've looked at using UIView's setAnimationDidStopSelector:, however from the docs this looks like it only applies when used within a UIView animation block (beginAnimations and commitAnimations). I also gave it a try just in case, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's some sample code (this is within a custom UIView sub-class method): // These have no effect since they're not in a UIView Animation Block [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationDidStop:finished:context:)]; // Set up path movement CAKeyframeAnimation *pathAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"path"]; pathAnimation.calculationMode = kCAAnimationPaced; pathAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; pathAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; pathAnimation.duration = 1.0f; CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, self.center.x, self.center.y); // add all points to the path for (NSValue* value in myPoints) { CGPoint nextPoint = [value CGPointValue]; CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, nextPoint.x, nextPoint.y); } pathAnimation.path = path; CGPathRelease(path); [self.layer addAnimation:pathAnimation forKey:@"pathAnimation"]; A workaround I was considering that should work, but doesn't seem like the best way, is to use NSObject's performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:. As long as I set the delay equal to the duration of the animation, then it should be fine. Is there a better way? Thanks!

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  • Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

    - by pspahn
    Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

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  • CodeDom : compile partial class

    - by James
    I'm attempting to compile code in a text file to change a value in a TextBox on the main form of a WinForms application. Ie. add another partial class with method to the calling form. The form has one button (button1) and one TextBox (textBox1). The code in the text file is: this.textBox1.Text = "Hello World!!"; And the code: namespace WinFormCodeCompile { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Load code from file StreamReader sReader = new StreamReader(@"Code.txt"); string input = sReader.ReadToEnd(); sReader.Close(); // Code literal string code = @"using System; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace WinFormCodeCompile { public partial class Form1 : Form { public void UpdateText() {" + input + @" } } }"; // Compile code CSharpCodeProvider cProv = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilerParameters cParams = new CompilerParameters(); cParams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("mscorlib.dll"); cParams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.dll"); cParams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.Windows.Forms.dll"); cParams.GenerateExecutable = false; cParams.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults cResults = cProv.CompileAssemblyFromSource(cParams, code); // Check for errors if (cResults.Errors.Count != 0) { foreach (var er in cResults.Errors) { MessageBox.Show(er.ToString()); } } else { // Attempt to execute method. object obj = cResults.CompiledAssembly.CreateInstance("WinFormCodeCompile.Form1"); Type t = obj.GetType(); t.InvokeMember("UpdateText", BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, obj, null); } } } } When I compile the code, the CompilerResults returns an error that says WinFormCodeCompile.Form1 does not contain a definition for textBox1. Is there a way to dynamically create another partial class file to the calling assembly and execute that code? I assume I'm missing something really simple here.

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  • Append a dynamically changing watermark to a PDF in SharePoint

    - by ccomet
    This is primarily a question of possibilities more than instructions. I'm a programming consultant working on a WSS project site system for my client. We have a document library in which files are uploaded to go through a complex approval process. With multiple stages in this process, we have an extra field which dictates what the current status of the document is. Now, my client has become enamored with the idea of PDF watermarking. He wants the document (which is already a PDF) to be affixed with a watermark corresponding to the current status, such that with each stage of the approval process the watermark will change. One method, the traditional method for PDF watermarking, of accomplishing this is to have one "clean" copy of the document somewhere hidden on the site, and create a new PDF from it that has the watermark at each stage of the approval process. Since the filename will never change, this new PDF can be uploaded continually to a public library, always overwriting the old version and simulating a "dynamically changing watermark". However, in the various stages there will also be people uploading clean copies with corrections and suggestions, nevermind the complex nature of juggling around two libraries and the fact we double the number of files stored. My client and I agree that this is not a practical path to choose. What we would like to do is be able to "modify" the watermark in a PDF, so that we only have to keep one copy of the file. Unfortunately, from what I've seen, in most cases when you make something like a watermark, which in its nature is supposed to be "unmodifyable", you won't be able to edit it later. So, is it possible to have a part of a PDF which cannot be changed by anyone who downloads the file, but can be changed as part of a workflow or other object model process? Thanks in advance!

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  • Converting From Castle Windsor To StructureMap In An MVC2 Project

    - by alphadogg
    I am learning about best practices in MVC2 and I am knocking off a copy of the "Who Can Help Me" project (http://whocanhelpme.codeplex.com/) off Codeplex. In it, they use Castle Windsor for their DI container. One "learning" task I am trying to do is convert this subsystem in this project to use StructureMap. Basically, at Application_Start(), the code news up a Windsor container. Then, it goes through multiple assemblies, using MEF: public static void Register(IContainer container) { var catalog = new CatalogBuilder() .ForAssembly(typeof(IComponentRegistrarMarker).Assembly) .ForMvcAssembly(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()) .ForMvcAssembliesInDirectory(HttpRuntime.BinDirectory, "CPOP*.dll") // Won't work in Partial trust .Build(); var compositionContainer = new CompositionContainer(catalog); compositionContainer .GetExports<IComponentRegistrar>() .Each(e => e.Value.Register(container)); } and any class in any assembly that has an IComponentRegistrar interface will get its Register() method run. For example, the controller registrar's Register() method implementation basically is: public void Register(IContainer container) { Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof(ControllersRegistrarMarker)).GetExportedTypes() .Where(IsController) .Each(type => container.AddComponentLifeStyle( type.Name.ToLower(), type, LifestyleType.Transient )); } private static bool IsController(Type type) { return typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(type); } Hopefully, I am not butchering WCHM too much. I am wondering how does one do this with StructureMap?

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  • How does overlayViewTouched notification work in the MoviePlayer sample code

    - by Jonathan
    Hi, I have a question regarding the MoviePlayer sample code provided by apple. I don't understand how the overlayViewTouch notification works. The NSlog message I added to it does not get sent when I touch the view (not button). // post the "overlayViewTouch" notification and will send // the overlayViewTouches: message - (void)overlayViewTouches:(NSNotification *)notification { NSLog(@"overlay view touched"); // Handle touches to the overlay view (MyOverlayView) here... } I can, however, get the NSlog notification if I place it in -(void)touchesBegan in "MyOverlayView.m". Which makes me think it is recognizing touches but not sending a notification. // Handle any touches to the overlay view - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if (touch.phase == UITouchPhaseBegan) { NSLog(@"overlay touched(from touchesBegan") // IMPORTANT: // Touches to the overlay view are being handled using // two different techniques as described here: // // 1. Touches to the overlay view (not in the button) // // On touches to the view we will post a notification // "overlayViewTouch". MyMovieViewController is registered // as an observer for this notification, and the // overlayViewTouches: method in MyMovieViewController // will be called. // // 2. Touches to the button // // Touches to the button in this same view will // trigger the MyMovieViewController overlayViewButtonPress: // action method instead. NSNotificationCenter *nc = [NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter]; [nc postNotificationName:OverlayViewTouchNotification object:nil]; } } Can anyone shed light on what I am missing or doing wrong? Thank you.

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  • Dilemma of Sending a Byte Array from JavaScript to COM.

    - by Voulnet
    Hello there, I'm having a bit of a problem because neither Javascript nor ActiveX (written in C++) are behaving like good little children. All I'm asking them to do is for Javascript to send a byte array and for the ActiveX to receive the byte array correctly in order to do more computation. This is how I declared my byte array in JS, and I verified it inside JS: var arr = new Array(0x00, 0xA4, 0x04, 0x00, 0x10,0xA0, 0x00, 00, 00, 0x18, 0x30, 0x03, 0x01, 00, 00, 00, 00, 00, 00, 00, 00); Javascript sends this array as an argument to an ActiveX method. Here is the tricky part; I want the ActiveX method to receive the byte array as a SAFEARRAY or VARIANT, but I can't get it to work for the life of me. I tried debugging and seeing the contents received inside the ActiveX as both SAFEARRAY or VARIANT, but to no avail. Here is the IDL segment: [id(7), helpstring("NEW Sends APDU to Card and Reads the Response")] HRESULT NewSendAPDU( [in] VARIANT pAPDU, [out, retval]VARIANT* pAPDUResponse); Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • Jquery .html() function returns html out of nested order

    - by forcripesake
    I have a method which returns a persisted html template from a database. The template is of the format: <div id="item_collection"> <div id="item_x"> <p id="item_x_headline"><h2>Some Headline</h2></p> <p id="item_x_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> <div id="item_x+1"> <p id="item_x+1_headline"><h1>Some Headline</h1></p> <p id="item_x+1_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> ...and so on. </div> However after I run the following: alert(data); //check that the template is in order. It Is. $('#template_area').html(data); the Html is now: <div id="item_collection"> <div id="item_x"> <p id="item_x_headline"></p> <!--Note The Lack of Nesting --> <h2>Some Headline</h2> <p id="item_x_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> <div id="item_x+1"> <p id="item_x+1_headline"></p> <!--Note The Lack of Nesting --> <h1>Some Headline</h1> <p id="item_x+1_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> ...and so on. </div> So what gives? Is there a better way to replace the empty template_area's content than the .html() method?

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  • Detecting Asymptotes in a Graph

    - by nasufara
    I am creating a graphing calculator in Java as a project for my programming class. There are two main components to this calculator: the graph itself, which draws the line(s), and the equation evaluator, which takes in an equation as a String and... well, evaluates it. To create the line, I create a Path2D.Double instance, and loop through the points on the line. To do this, I calculate as many points as the graph is wide (e.g. if the graph itself is 500px wide, I calculate 500 points), and then scale it to the window of the graph. Now, this works perfectly for most any line. However, it does not when dealing with asymptotes. If, when calculating points, the graph encounters a domain error (such as 1/0), the graph closes the shape in the Path2D.Double instance and starts a new line, so that the line looks mathematically correct. Example: However, because of the way it scales, sometimes it is rendered correctly, sometimes it isn't. When it isn't, the actual asymptotic line is shown, because within those 500 points, it skipped over x = 2.0 in the equation 1 / (x-2), and only did x = 1.98 and x = 2.04, which are perfectly valid in that equation. Example: In that case, I increased the window on the left and right one unit each. My question is: Is there a way to deal with asymptotes using this method of scaling so that the resulting line looks mathematically correct? I myself have thought of implementing a binary search-esque method, where, if it finds that it calculates one point, and then the next point is wildly far away from the last point, it searches in between those points for a domain error. I had trouble figuring out how to make it work in practice, however. Thank you for any help you may give!

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  • Class/Model Level Validation (as opposed to Property Level)? (ASP.NET MVC 2.0)

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    Basically, what the title says. I have several properties that combine together to really make one logical answer, and i would like to run a server-side validation code (that i write) which take these multiple fields into account and hook up to only one validation output/error message that users see on the webpage. I looked at scott guthries method of extending an attribute and using it in yoru dataannotations declarations, but, as i can see, there is no way to declare a dataannotations-style attribute on multiple properties, and you can only place the declarations (such as [Email], [Range], [Required]) over one property :(. i have looked at the PropertiesMustMatchAttribute in the default mvc 2.0 project that appears when you start a new project, this example is as useful as using a pair of pins to check your motor oil - useless! i have tried this method, however, creating a class level attribute, and have no idea how to display the error from this in my aspx page. i have tried html.ValidationMessage("ClassNameWhereAttributeIsAdded") and a variety of other thing, and it has not worked. and i should mention, there is NOT ONE blog post on doing validation at this level - despite this being a common need in any project or business logic scenario! can anyone help me in having my message displayed in my aspx page, and also if possible a proper document or reference explaining validation at this level?

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  • make local only daemon listening on different interface (using iptables port forwarding)?

    - by UniIsland
    i have a daemon program which listens on 127.0.0.1:8000. i need to access it when i connect to my box with vpn. so i want it to listen on the ppp0 interface too. i've tried the "ssh -L" method. it works, but i don't think it's the right way to do that, having an extra ssh process running in the background. i tried the "netcat" method. it exits when the connection is closed. so not a valid way for "listening". i also tried several iptables rules. none of them worked. i'm not listing here all the rules i've used. iptables -A FORWARD -j ACCEPT iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -i ppp+ -p tcp --dport 8000 -j DNAT --to-destination 127.0.0.1:8000 the above ruleset doesn't work. i have net.ipv4.ip_forward set to 1. anyone knows how to redirect traffic from ppp interface to lo? say, listen on "192.168.45.1:8000 (ppp0)" as well as "127.0.0.1:8000 (lo)" there's no need to alter the port. thanx

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  • Steps in creating a web service using Axis2 - The client code

    - by zengr
    I am trying to create a web service, my tools of trade are: ** Axis2, Eclipse, Tomcat, Ant ** I need to create a web service from Code, i.e. Write a basic java class which will have the methods to be declared in the WSDL. Then use java2WSDL.sh to create my WSDL. So, is this approach correct: Write my Java class with actual business logic package packageNamel; public class Hello{ public void World(String name) { SOP("Hello" + name); } } Now, when I pass this Hello.java to java2WSDL.sh, this will give me the WSDL. Finally, I will write the services.xml file, and create the Hello.aar with following dir structure: Hello.aar packageName Hello.class META-INF services.xml MANIFEST.MF Hello.WSDL Now, I assume, my service will be deployed when I put the aar in tomcat1/webapps/axis2/WEB-INF/services But, here comes my problem, HOW DO I ACCESS THE METHOD World(String name)???!!, i.e. I am clueless about the client code! Please enlighten me on making a very basic web service and calling the method. The above described 3 steps might be wrong. It's a community wiki, feel free to edit. Thanks

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  • Starting one BlackBerry screen from another.

    - by DanG
    I've recently run into a snag while putting on the finishing touches for my BlackBerry app. I'm building a login screen which, if the user is successful in logging in, goes to a data loading screen, and then to a home screen. From the home screen, you can use the app. Everything works great but one thing, I can't seamlessly move from the login screen to the loading screen, to the home screen. I can move from the login screen to the loading screen ok, because I'm doing that via a button click which is on the GUI thread, but then I have the login screen at the bottom of the stack and can't get it out using the dismiss method. Once in the loading screen, I can't push the home screen because I'm not doing it via the gui method, though I'm able to update the GUI via the following piece of code: private void checkData(){ Timer loadingTimer = new Timer(); TimerTask loadingTask = new TimerTask() { public void run() { // set the progress bar progressGaugeField.setValue(DataManager.getDataLoaded()); // for repainting the screen invalidate(); } }; loadingTimer.scheduleAtFixedRate(loadingTask, 500, 500); } Does anyone know how to solve my problem of moving seamlessly from the login screen to the loading screen to the home screen? Note: once I'm at the home screen I'd like to have it be the only screen on the stack. Thanks!

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  • Don't Allow link generates a 500 Internal Error

    - by jstawski
    I'm developing an application for Facebook using the iframe mode and ASP.NET. I'm able to use the new OAuth method that combines the allow and the extended permissions. When I click on the Allow everything works as expected, but when I click on the "Don't Allow" I get a 500 internal error. The Request For Permission url is: http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php?client_id=389845102120&scope=publish_stream%2Cuser_birthday%2Cemail&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fapps.facebook.com%2Fplumreward%2FDefault.aspx%3Fpid%3D124733857540930&display=page&next=http%3A%2F%2Fgraph.facebook.com%2Foauth%2Fauthorize_success%3Fclient_id%3D389845102120%26scope%3Dpublish_stream%252Cuser_birthday%252Cemail%26redirect_uri%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fapps.facebook.com%252Fplumreward%252FDefault.aspx%253Fpid%253D124733857540930%26type%3Dweb_server&cancel_url=http%3A%2F%2Fgraph.facebook.com%2Foauth%2Fauthorize_cancel%3Fclient_id%3D389845102120%26scope%3Dpublish_stream%252Cuser_birthday%252Cemail%26redirect_uri%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fapps.facebook.com%252Fplumreward%252FDefault.aspx%253Fpid%253D124733857540930%26type%3Dweb_server&app_id=389845102120&method=permissions.request&return_session=1&perms=publish_stream%2Cuser_birthday%2Cemail When I click don't allow it goes to http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php and then to http://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize_success?client_id=389845102120&scope=publish_stream%2Cuser_birthday%2Cemail&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fapps.facebook.com%2Fplumreward%2FDefault.aspx%3Fpid%3D124733857540930&type=web_server&perms&selected_profiles=567961887 with a HTTP 500 Internal Server Error. What am I doing wrong? Am I missing a setting, parameter? Is this a FB bug?

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  • Making .NET assembly COM-visible and working for VB5

    - by Cyberherbalist
    I have an assembly which I have managed to make visible to VB6 and it works, but having a problem accomplishing the same thing with VB5. For VB6, I have built the assembly, made it COM-visible, registered it as a COM object etc., and the assembly shows in VB6's References list, and allows me to use it successfully. The Object Browser also shows the method in the assy. I copied the assembly and its TLB to a virtual workstation used for VB5 development, and ran Regasm, apparently successfully: C:\>C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727 \regasm arserviceinterface.dll /tlb:arserviceinterface.tlb Microsoft (R) .NET Framework Assembly Registration Utility 2.0.50727.3053 Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation 1998-2004. All rights reserved. Assembly exported to 'C:\Projects\AR\3rd Party\ARService\arserviceinterface.tlb' , and the type library was registered successfully Note that the virtual W/S is Win2k and does not have .NET Fx 3.5 on it, just 2.0. The assembly shows up in the References that can be selected in VB5, but the method of the assembly doesn't show up in the Object Browser, and it is generally unusable. Either there is a step to do that I haven't done, or VB5 doesn't know how to use such a COM object. Note that the VB5 setup is on a virtual workstation, not the same workstation that VB6 is installed on. Any ideas? One thing that occurred to me is that I might need to generate and use a strong name on the workstation in question, but...

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  • Java SortedMap to Scala TreeMap

    - by Dave
    I'm having trouble converting a java SortedMap into a scala TreeMap. The SortedMap comes from deserialization and needs to be converted into a scala structure before being used. Some background, for the curious, is that the serialized structure is written through XStream and on desializing I register a converter that says anything that can be assigned to SortedMap[Comparable[_],_] should be given to me. So my convert method gets called and is given an Object that I can safely cast because I know it's of type SortedMap[Comparable[_],_]. That's where it gets interesting. Here's some sample code that might help explain it. // a conversion from comparable to ordering scala> implicit def comparable2ordering[A <: Comparable[A]](x: A): Ordering[A] = new Ordering[A] { | def compare(x: A, y: A) = x.compareTo(y) | } comparable2ordering: [A <: java.lang.Comparable[A]](x: A)Ordering[A] // jm is how I see the map in the converter. Just as an object. I know the key // is of type Comparable[_] scala> val jm : Object = new java.util.TreeMap[Comparable[_], String]() jm: java.lang.Object = {} // It's safe to cast as the converter only gets called for SortedMap[Comparable[_],_] scala> val b = jm.asInstanceOf[java.util.SortedMap[Comparable[_],_]] b: java.util.SortedMap[java.lang.Comparable[_], _] = {} // Now I want to convert this to a tree map scala> collection.immutable.TreeMap() ++ (for(k <- b.keySet) yield { (k, b.get(k)) }) <console>:15: error: diverging implicit expansion for type Ordering[A] starting with method Tuple9 in object Ordering collection.immutable.TreeMap() ++ (for(k <- b.keySet) yield { (k, b.get(k)) })

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  • LINQ Datacontext Disposal Issues

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am getting a Cannot access object: DataContext after it's been disposed in the below DAL method. I thought that I would be okay calling dispose there. result is an IEnumurable and I thought it was IQueryable that caused these kinds of problems. What am I doing wrong? How SHOULD I be disposing of my DataContext. Is there something better to be returning then a DataTable? This is a Desktop app that points at SQL 2005. Example method that causes this error -- public static DataTable GetEnrolledMembers(Guid workerID) { var DB = CmoDataContext.Create(); var AllEnrollees = from enrollment in DB.tblCMOEnrollments where enrollment.CMOSocialWorkerID == workerID || enrollment.CMONurseID == workerID join supportWorker in DB.tblSupportWorkers on enrollment.EconomicSupportWorkerID equals supportWorker.SupportWorkerID into workerGroup from worker in workerGroup.DefaultIfEmpty() select new { enrollment.ClientID, enrollment.CMONurseID, enrollment.CMOSocialWorkerID, enrollment.EnrollmentDate, enrollment.DisenrollmentDate, ESFirstName = worker.FirstName, ESLastName = worker.LastName, ESPhone = worker.Phone }; var result = from enrollee in AllEnrollees.AsEnumerable() where (enrollee.DisenrollmentDate == null || enrollee.DisenrollmentDate > DateTime.Now) //let memberName = BLLConnect.MemberName(enrollee.ClientID) let lastName = BLLConnect.MemberLastName(enrollee.ClientID) let firstName = BLLConnect.MemberFirstName(enrollee.ClientID) orderby enrollee.DisenrollmentDate ascending, lastName ascending select new { enrollee.ClientID, //MemberName = memberName, LastName = lastName, FirstName = firstName, NurseName = BLLAspnetdb.NurseName(enrollee.CMONurseID), SocialWorkerName = BLLAspnetdb.SocialWorkerName(enrollee.CMOSocialWorkerID), enrollee.EnrollmentDate, enrollee.DisenrollmentDate, ESWorkerName = enrollee.ESFirstName + " " + enrollee.ESLastName, enrollee.ESPhone }; DB.Dispose(); return result.CopyLinqToDataTable(); } partial class where I create the DataContext -- partial class CmoDataContext { public static bool IsDisconnectedUser { get { return Settings.Default.IsDisconnectedUser; } } public static CmoDataContext Create() { var cs = IsDisconnectedUser ? Settings.Default.CMOConnectionString : Settings.Default.Central_CMOConnectionString; return new CmoDataContext(cs); }

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  • RegAsm for Class Library Used in VB6 Application

    - by michael.lukatchik
    To be short and to the point, I've built a C# class library that is both COM-Visible and Registered for COM Interop. I've compiled the library, which resulted in the generation of .dll and .tlb files. I have another machine that's running a VB6 application. So, I copied the .dll and .tlb files over to C:/Windows/system32 folder on the machine. I then registered those files using the following: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\RegAsm C:\Windows\system32\TestClass.dll /tlb:TestClass.tlb After the files were registered successfully, I added a project reference to the Test.tlb file from inside my VB6 app, then I tried to invoke a method in my new referenced class like so: Dim myObject As TestNamespace.TestClass Set myObject = New TestNamespace.TestClass MsgBox (myObject.TestMethod()) It doesn't work, and I receive a -2147024894 Automation Error. I've read that I shouldn't install the dll into a private folder like system32. I should either be registering in the GAC or I should be registering in another location using the "/codebase" option: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\RegAsm C:\TestClass.dll /tlb:TestClass.tlb /codebase Is there any reason I shouldn't be using system32? Past devs that have worked on this project have placed assembly files used by this VB6 project into system32 and there haven't seemed to be any issues. When I register my dll in the system32 location, I get the Automation Error. When I register my dll in another location (i.e. C:/), the method call into my class library from VB6 works as expected. What gives? I should mention that we will NOT be using the GAC to register any DLL's. That's just the way it is. Any help is appreciated. Mike

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  • shoulda macros with rspec2 beta 5 and rails3 beta2

    - by Millisami
    I've setup Rspec2 beta5 and shoulda as following to use shoulda macros inside rspec model tests. Gemfile group :test do gem "rspec", ">= 2.0.0.beta.4" gem "rspec-rails", ">= 2.0.0.beta.4" gem 'shoulda', :git => 'git://github.com/bmaddy/ shoulda.git' gem "faker" gem "machinist" gem "pickle", :git => 'git://github.com/codegram/ pickle.git' gem 'capybara', :git => 'git://github.com/jnicklas/ capybara.git' gem 'database_cleaner', :git => 'git://github.com/bmabey/ database_cleaner.git' gem 'cucumber-rails', :git => 'git://github.com/aslakhellesoy/ cucumber-rails.git' end *spec_helper.rb* Dir["#{File.dirname(__FILE__)}/support/**/*.rb"].each {|f| require f} require 'shoulda' Rspec.configure do |config| *spec/models/outlet_spec.rb* require 'spec_helper' describe Outlet do it { should validate_presence_of(:name) } end And when I run the spec, I get the following error. [~/rails_apps/rails3_apps/automation (master)?] ? spec spec/models/ outlet_spec.rb DEPRECATION WARNING: RAILS_ROOT is deprecated! Use Rails.root instead. (called from join at /home/millisami/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%rails3/ bundler/gems/shoulda-87e75311f83548760114cd4188afa4f83fecdc22-master/ lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:40) F 1) Outlet Failure/Error: it { should validate_presence_of(:name) } undefined method `validate_presence_of' for #<Rspec::Core::ExampleGroup::Nested_1:0xc4dc138 @__memoized={}> # ./spec/models/outlet_spec.rb:4:in `block (2 levels) in <top (required)>' Finished in 0.0399 seconds 1 example, 1 failures [~/rails_apps/rails3_apps/automation (master)?] ? Why the "undefined method" ?? Is the shoulda getting loaded?

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  • writing a web service with dynamically determined web methods

    - by quillbreaker
    Let's say I have a text file of basic mathematical functions. I want to make a web service that answers these mathematical functions. Say the first one is y=x*x. If I wanted to turn this into a web service, I could simply do this: [WebMethod] public int A(int x) { return x*x; } However, I've extracted the function from the list by hand and coded it into a function by hand. That's not what I want to do. I want the wsdl for the service to be generated at call time directly from the text file, and I want the web method calls to the service to go to a specific method that also parses the text file at run time. How much heavy lifting is this? I've found a sample on how to generate WSDLs dynamically at this link, but there's a lot more to do beyond that and I don't want to bark up this tree if there are parts of the project that arn't feasible. Does anyone have any links, guides, books, or positive experiences trying this kind of thing?

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  • Subclassing an NSTextField

    - by Hooligancat
    Given all the complex things I seem to cover every day, this appears to be a "what the heck am I doing wrong that seems to simple?" scenario! I would like to subclass an NSTextField to change the background color and text color. For simplicity sake (and to help anyone who hasn't ever subclassed anything before), here is the example of my (simplified) subclass MyNSTextFieldSubclass... Step 1: Create the subclass file: First the header file @interface MyTextFieldSubclass : NSTextField { } @end And the method file @implementation MyTextFieldSubclass -(NSColor *)backgroundColor { return [NSColor redColor]; } -(NSColor *)textColor { return [NSColor yellowColor]; } @end Step 2: Drag an NSTextField to a window in Interface Builder, select the Identity tab in the inspector and select the class MyTextFieldSubclass Step 3: Save the IB file, build and run the application Problem When I run the build, the text field does not reflect the color subclassing. However, I know the subclass is being called because if I add the following method, it gets called on text changes. -(void)textDidChange:(NSNotification *)notification { NSLog(@"My text changed"); } So why does the color change not occur on the text fields? I know that I can set the color in IB, but for anyone who has dealt with a lot of UI elements that all need the same styling, subclassing makes life way, way easier. Ironically, I have never had to subclass an NSTextField before and this one has me stumped. As usual, any and all help very much appreciated. I'm sure it will turn out to be a "Doh!" moment - just cant see the wood for the trees right now (plus I'm exhausted from watching too much World Cup Football early in the morning which never helps).

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