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• No image displayed in Fancybox

  - by seansean11

  I am having trouble getting fancybox to display its corresponding images on a website that I'm building http://www.nomadicdrift.com/test/kaniwa#events . It's a custom one page portfolio theme that I set up on the WordPress platform. If you follow the link to the events section you will see 1 figure item in a gallery like position. I have this image set up to work as a fancybox gallery, but when you click on it, it opens up the fancybox interface but does not place a image in the frame, even though it should. So this is the problem...the images do not show up in fancybox and instead I see just the frame. Here is the html that I'm displaying: <figure> <a class="fancybox" data-fancybox-type="Fashion Show de Paris, France" href="http://www.nomadicdrift.com/test/kaniwa/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/NM2.jpg"> <img class="attachment-evento wp-post-image" width="231" height="191" title="NM" alt="NM" src="http://www.nomadicdrift.com/test/kaniwa/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/NM2-231x191.jpg"> </a> <figcaption> <a class="fancybox" data-fancybox-type="Fashion Show de Paris, France" href="http://www.nomadicdrift.com/test/kaniwa/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/CEDESAN.jpg"> </a> <h4>Fashion Show de Paris, France</h4> </figcaption> </figure> I'm not going to bore you with the PHP that I used to get that output because I think the problem lies elsewhere. ***I have tried to set up a simple standard fancybox gallery on the site also, but it gives me thes same problem, leading me to believe that the problem is deeper than the html markup. I have also successfully used this same markup for a one thumbnail fancybox gallery on another site. I thought maybe it was due to some conflict in the .js files I'm using. I tried uninstalling all of my plugins/addons (which aren't too many) one by one and still had the same result. I have all of my personal javascript in the functions.js file, which is where I call the fancybox plugin using the standard $("a.fancybox").fancybox();. I have installed this plugin before on other sites and have searched extensively for an answer, so any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks, Sean

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• passing back answers in prolog

  - by AhmadAssaf

  i have this code than runs perfectly .. returns a true .. when tracing the values are ok .. but its not returning back the answer .. it acts strangely when it ends and always return empty list .. uninstantiated variable .. test :- extend(4,12,[4,3,1,2],[[1,5],[3,4],[6]],_ExtendedBins). %printing basic information about the extend(NumBins,Capacity,RemainingNumbers,BinsSoFar,_ExtendedBins) :- getNumberofBins(BinsSoFar,NumberOfBins), msort(RemainingNumbers,SortedRemaining),nl, format("Current Number of Bins is :~w\n",[NumberOfBins]), format("Allowed Capacity is :~w\n",[Capacity]), format("maximum limit in bin is :~w\n",[NumBins]), format("Trying to fit :~w\n\n",[SortedRemaining]), format("Possible Solutions :\n\n"), fitElements(NumBins,NumberOfBins, Capacity,SortedRemaining,BinsSoFar,[]). %this is were the creation for possibilities will start %will check first if the number of bins allowed is less than then %we create a new list with all the possible combinations %after that we start matching to other bins with capacity constraint fitElements(NumBins,NumberOfBins, Capacity,RemainingNumbers,Bins,ExtendedBins) :- ( NumberOfBins < NumBins -> print('Creating new set: '); print('Sorry, Cannot create New Sets')), createNewList(Capacity,RemainingNumbers,Bins,ExtendedBins). createNewList(Capacity,RemainingNumbers,Bins,ExtendedBins) :- createNewList(Capacity,RemainingNumbers,Bins,[],ExtendedBins), print(ExtendedBins). createNewList(0,Bins,Bins,ExtendedBins,ExtendedBins). createNewList(_,[],_,ExtendedBins,ExtendedBins). createNewList(Capacity,[Element|Rest],Bins,Temp,ExtendedBins) :- conjunct_to_list(Element,ListedElement), append(ListedElement,Temp,NewList), sumlist(NewList,Sum), (Sum =< Capacity, append(ListedElement,ExtendedBins,Result); Capacity = 0), createNewList(Capacity,Rest,Bins,NewList,Result). fit(0,[],ExtendedBins,ExtendedBins). fit(Capacity,[Element|Rest],Bin,ExtendedBins) :- conjunct_to_list(Element,Listed), append(Listed,Bin,NewBin), sumlist(NewBin,Sum), (Sum =< Capacity -> fit(Capacity,Rest,NewBin,ExtendedBins); Capacity = 0, append(NewBin,ExtendedBins,NewExtendedBins), print(NewExtendedBins), fit(0,[],NewBin,ExtendedBins)). %get the number of bins provided getNumberofBins(List,NumberOfBins) :- getNumberofBins(List,0,NumberOfBins). getNumberofBins([],NumberOfBins,NumberOfBins). getNumberofBins([_List|Rest],TempCount,NumberOfBins) :- NewCount is TempCount + 1, %calculate the count getNumberofBins(Rest,NewCount,NumberOfBins). %recursive call %Convert set of terms into a list - used when needed to append conjunct_to_list((A,B), L) :- !, conjunct_to_list(A, L0), conjunct_to_list(B, L1), append(L0, L1, L). conjunct_to_list(A, [A]). Greatly appreciate the help

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• How to properly mix generics and inheritance to get the desired result?

  - by yamsha

  My question is not easy to explain using words, fortunately it's not too difficult to demonstrate. So, bear with me: public interface Command<R> { public R execute();//parameter R is the type of object that will be returned as the result of the execution of this command } public abstract class BasicCommand<R> { } public interface CommandProcessor<C extends Command<?>> { public <R> R process(C<R> command);//this is my question... it's illegal to do, but you understand the idea behind it, right? } //constrain BasicCommandProcessor to commands that subclass BasicCommand public class BasicCommandProcessor implements CommandProcessor<C extends BasicCommand<?>> { //here, only subclasses of BasicCommand should be allowed as arguments but these //BasicCommand object should be parameterized by R, like so: BasicCommand<R> //so the method signature should really be // public <R> R process(BasicCommand<R> command) //which would break the inheritance if the interface's method signature was instead: // public <R> R process(Command<R> command); //I really hope this fully illustrates my conundrum public <R> R process(C<R> command) { return command.execute(); } } public class CommandContext { public static void main(String... args) { BasicCommandProcessor bcp = new BasicCommandProcessor(); String textResult = bcp.execute(new BasicCommand<String>() { public String execute() { return "result"; } }); Long numericResult = bcp.execute(new BasicCommand<Long>() { public Long execute() { return 123L; } }); } } Basically, I want the generic "process" method to dictate the type of generic parameter of the Command object. The goal is to be able to restrict different implementations of CommandProcessor to certain classes that implement Command interface and at the same time to able to call the process method of any class that implements the CommandProcessor interface and have it return the object of type specified by the parametarized Command object. I'm not sure if my explanation is clear enough, so please let me know if further explanation is needed. I guess, the question is "Would this be possible to do, at all?" If the answer is "No" what would be the best work-around (I thought of a couple on my own, but I'd like some fresh ideas)

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• Spring OpenSessionInViewFilter with @Transactional annotation

  - by Gautam

  This is regarding Spring OpenSessionInViewFilter using with @Transactional annotation at service layer. i went through so many stack overflow post on this but still confused about whether i should use OpenSessionInViewFilter or not to avoid LazyInitializationException It would be great help if somebody help me find out answer to below queries. Is it bad practice to use OpenSessionInViewFilter in application having complex schema. using this filter can cause N+1 problem if we are using OpenSessionInViewFilter does it mean @Transactional not required? Below is my Spring config file <context:component-scan base-package="com.test"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="resources/messages" /> <property name="defaultEncoding" value="UTF-8" /> </bean> <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" p:location="/WEB-INF/jdbc.properties" /> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" p:driverClassName="${jdbc.driverClassName}" p:url="${jdbc.databaseurl}" p:username="${jdbc.username}" p:password="${jdbc.password}" /> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="configLocation"> <value>classpath:hibernate.cfg.xml</value> </property> <property name="configurationClass"> <value>org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration</value> </property> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">${jdbc.dialect}</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <!-- <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">create</prop> --> </props> </property> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven /> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager"> <property name="sessionFactory" ref="sessionFactory" /> </bean>

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• Calling compiled C from R with .C()

  - by Sarah

  I'm trying to call a program (function getNBDensities in the C executable measurementDensities_out) from R. The function is passed several arrays and the variable double runsum. Right now, the getNBDensities function basically does nothing: it prints to screen the values of passed parameters. My problem is the syntax of calling the function: array(.C("getNBDensities", hr = as.double(hosp.rate), # a vector (s x 1) sp = as.double(samplingProbabilities), # another vector (s x 1) odh = as.double(odh), # another vector (s x 1) simCases = as.integer(x[c("xC1","xC2","xC3")]), # another vector (s x 1) obsCases = as.integer(y[c("yC1","yC2","yC3")]), # another vector (s x 1) runsum = as.double(runsum), # double DUP = TRUE, NAOK = TRUE, PACKAGE = "measurementDensities_out")$f, dim = length(y[c("yC1","yC2","yC3")]), dimnames = c("yC1","yC2","yC3")) The error I get, after proper execution of the function (i.e., the right output is printed to screen), is Error in dim(data) <- dim : attempt to set an attribute on NULL I'm unclear what the dimensions are that I should be passing the function: should it be s x 5 + 1 (five vectors of length s and one double)? I've tried all sorts of combinations (including sx5+1) and have found only seemingly conflicting descriptions/examples online of what's supposed to happen here. For those who are interested, the C code is below: #include <R.h> #include <Rmath.h> #include <math.h> #include <Rdefines.h> #include <R_ext/PrtUtil.h> #define NUM_STRAINS 3 #define DEBUG void getNBDensities( double *hr, double *sp, double *odh, int *simCases, int *obsCases, double *runsum ); void getNBDensities( double *hr, double *sp, double *odh, int *simCases, int *obsCases, double *runsum ) { #ifdef DEBUG for ( int s = 0; s < NUM_STRAINS; s++ ) { Rprintf("\nFor strain %d",s); Rprintf("\n\tHospitalization rate = %lg", hr[s]); Rprintf("\n\tSimulation probability = %lg",sp[s]); Rprintf("\n\tSimulated cases = %d",simCases[s]); Rprintf("\n\tObserved cases = %d",obsCases[s]); Rprintf("\n\tOverdispersion parameter = %lg",odh[s]); } Rprintf("\nRunning sum = %lg",runsum[0]); #endif } naive solution While better (i.e., potentially faster or syntactically clearer) solutions may exist (see Dirk's answer below), the following simplification of the code works: out<-.C("getNBDensities", hr = as.double(hosp.rate), sp = as.double(samplingProbabilities), odh = as.double(odh), simCases = as.integer(x[c("xC1","xC2","xC3")]), obsCases = as.integer(y[c("yC1","yC2","yC3")]), runsum = as.double(runsum)) The variables can be accessed in >out.

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• GKSession sendDataToAllPeers getting invalid parameter

  - by cb4

  This is my first post and I wanted to start it by thanking the many stackoverflow contributors who will never know how much they helped me out these past several days as I worked to complete my first iOS app. I am indebted to them and to this site for giving them a place to post. To 'pay off' some of that debt, I hope this will help others as I have been helped... So, my app uses the GKPeerPickerController to make a connection to a 2nd device. Once connected, the devices can send text messages to each other. The receiving peer has the message displayed in a UIAlertView. Everything was working fine. Then I decided to experiment with locations and added code to get the current location. I convert it into latitude & longitude in degrees, minutes, and seconds and put them into one NSString. I added a button to my storyboard called 'Send Location' which, when tapped, sends the location to the connected peer. This is where I ran into the problem. Both the send text and send location methods call the sendPacket method with a NSString. sendPacket converts the string to NSData and calls sendDataToAllPeers. When I learned how to capture the error, it was "Invalid parameter for - sendDataToAllPeers:withDataMode:error:". [.....pause.....] Well, this was going to be a question but in writing all this to explain the problem, the answer just dawned on me. Did a few tests and verified it now works. The issue was not in sendDataToAllPeers, it was in the conversion of the NSString (strToSend) to NSData: packet = [strToSend dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; Specifically, it was the degree sign character (little circle, ASCII 176). NSASCIIStringEncoding only includes ASCII characters up to 127 so don't use any above that. I'm sure there was a quicker way to find the problem, but I don't know Objective-C or Xcode's debugging facility well enough yet. Whew! Several hours to discover that little tidbit. I did learn a lot, though, and that's always a good thing!

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• NSString cannot be released

  - by Stanley

  Consider the following method and the caller code block. The method analyses a NSString and extracts a "http://" string which it passes out by reference as an auto release object. Without releasing g_scan_result, the program works as expected. But according to non-arc rules, g_scan_result should be released since a retain has been called against it. My question are : Why g_scan_result cannot be released ? Is there anything wrong the way g_scan_result is handled in the posted coding below ? Is it safe not to release g_scan_result as long as the program runs correctly and the XCode Memory Leak tool does not show leakage ? Which XCode profile tools should I look into to check and under which subtitle ? Hope somebody knowledgeable could help. - (long) analyse_scan_result :(NSString *)scan_result target_url :(NSString **)targ_url { NSLog (@" RES analyse string : %@", scan_result); NSRange range = [scan_result rangeOfString:@"http://" options:NSCaseInsensitiveSearch]; if (range.location == NSNotFound) { *targ_url = @""; NSLog(@"fnd string not found"); return 0; } NSString *sub_string = [scan_result substringFromIndex : range.location]; range = [sub_string rangeOfString : @" "]; if (range.location != NSNotFound) { sub_string = [sub_string substringToIndex : range.location]; } NSLog(@" FND sub_string = %@", sub_string); *targ_url = sub_string; return [*targ_url length]; } The following is the caller code block, also note that g_scan_result has been declared and initialized (on another source file) as : NSString *g_scan_result = nil; Please do send a comment or answer if you have suggestions or find possible errors in code posted here (or above). Xcode memory tools does not seem to show any memory leak. But it may be because I do not know where to look as am new to the memory tools. { long url_leng = [self analyse_scan_result:result target_url:&targ_url]; NSLog(@" TAR target_url = %@", targ_url); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Scanned Result" message:result delegate:g_alert_view_delegate cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; if (url_leng) { // ****** The 3 commented off statements // ****** cannot be added without causing // ****** a crash after a few scan result // ****** cycles. // ****** NSString *t_url; if (g_system_status.language_code == 0) [alert addButtonWithTitle : @"Open"]; else if (g_system_status.language_code == 1) [alert addButtonWithTitle : @"Abrir"]; else [alert addButtonWithTitle : @"Open"]; // ****** t_url = g_scan_result; g_scan_result = [targ_url retain]; // ****** [t_url release]; } targ_url = nil; [alert show]; [alert release]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5.0 target:self selector:@selector(activate_qr_scanner:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO ]; return; }

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• Problems with starting windows service on windows xp SP3

  - by Michiel Peeters

  I'm currently facing a problem which I can not resolve and I really don't know what to do anymore. When I'm trying to start the service I receive the message: "The service is started but again also stopped, this because that some of the services will stop if they have nothing to do, for example the performance logs and the alerts service". I've looked into the Windows Logs but nothing is written there which could describe why my service is all the time stopping. I've also tried to fire the windows service via the command prompt which gives me the message: "The service is not started, but the service didn't return any faults.". I've tried to remove all keys which references to my service, which didn't resolve the issue. I've searched on google (maybe not good enough) to find an answer but I didn't found any. I did found some websites which describes what I could do, but all of these suggestions didn't work. This is kinda ** because I do not know where to look. I do not have any error message, i do not have any id which i can use to search on. I really don't know where to start and I hope you guys can help me on this one. Detailed explanation about the windows service OS: Windows XP SP3 .Net Framework: .Net 4.0 Client Profile Language: C# Development environment: Visual Studio 2010 Professional (but Visual Studio 2012 RC is installed) Communications: WCF (Named Pipes), WCF (BasicHTTPBinding) Named Pipes: I have chosen for this solution because I wanted to communicate from a windows service to a windows form application. It worked now for quite some time but suddenly my windows service shuts it self down and I couldn't restart it anymore. There are two named pipes services implemented: An event service which will send any notification to the windows form application and an management service which gives my windows form application the possibility to maintain my windows service. BasicHTTPBinding: The basic http binding makes the connection to a central server. This connection is then used for streaming information from the client to the server. I do not know which additional information you will need, but if you guys need something then I'll try to give it as detailed as possible. Thank you in advance.

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• In .NET Xml Serialization, is it possible to serialize a class with an enum property with different

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have a class, containing a list property, where the list contains objects that has an enum property. When I serialize this, it looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ibm850"?> <test> <events> <test-event type="changing" /> <test-event type="changed" /> </events> </test> Is it possible, through attributes, or similar, to get the Xml to look like this? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ibm850"?> <test> <events> <changing /> <changed /> </events> </test> Basically, use the property value of the enum as a way to determine the tag-name? Is using a class hierarchy (ie. creating subclasses instead of using the property value) the only way? Edit: After testing, it seems even a class-hierarchy won't actually work. If there is a way to structure the classes to get the output I want, even with sub-classes, that is also an acceptable answer. Here's a sample program that will output the above Xml (remember to hit Ctrl+F5 to run in Visual Studio, otherwise the program window will close immediately): using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; namespace ConsoleApplication18 { public enum TestEventTypes { [XmlEnum("changing")] Changing, [XmlEnum("changed")] Changed } [XmlType("test-event")] public class TestEvent { [XmlAttribute("type")] public TestEventTypes Type { get; set; } } [XmlType("test")] public class Test { private List<TestEvent> _Events = new List<TestEvent>(); [XmlArray("events")] public List<TestEvent> Events { get { return _Events; } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Test test = new Test(); test.Events.Add(new TestEvent { Type = TestEventTypes.Changing }); test.Events.Add(new TestEvent { Type = TestEventTypes.Changed }); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Test)); XmlSerializerNamespaces ns = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); ns.Add("", ""); serializer.Serialize(Console.Out, test, ns); } } }

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• A versioning workflow for multiple similar (but not identical) deployments

  - by rs77

  I'm currently employed at a small non-tech organisation and have been given the role of coding the organisations' website. While I have enjoyed the task and have learnt much with web dev I've encountered a few issues that I'm hoping someone will be able to help with me or at least point me in the right direction on. A little background: The site I work on has subdomains that each have their own separate WordPress installation on - as this has been the easiest "backend" admin panel for the type of user who will be responsible for updating content (etc). Within the organisation I work under the Marketing Manager (MM) and I code according to his style guide and wire frames. While we have been working with only one subdomain since the beginning of the year the project has been relatively simple and straightforward. However, lately the workflow is becoming a little more complicated as our original subdomain has been copied over to the other subdomains. Each of the new subdomains receives minor edits to their stylesheets (eg. different pictures for background, slightly different colours here and there, etc). The issue: At the moment managing all the different subdomains has been "bearable", but the straw that's braking the camel's back at the moment has been the slight reversions the MM has required now that the CEO has seen the final product. The problem I'm having with reversions in stylesheets is that the CEO will one week state that he likes change "X" and then as the MM and I continue to modify the site (to now "Z"), will another week state that he wants us to change "X" to "W" but keeping most of the changes made in "Y". What I'm looking for is something that allows for: tracking file changes reverting changes made (or reverting back to 'a' from 'e' but including changes 'b' & 'c') easily upload necessary files to their respective WP-theme installation Does anything out there come close to addressing these issues? If so, what? Thanks for any help! PS - I'm learning Git at the moment and it seems to do the "tracking file changes" quite nicely. Haven't learnt about the reverting changes bit yet, though. Maybe for my final point I'm thinking of creating a shell script to automatically upload the files to their folders. Does Git do this too though? Addendum (alexbbrown) I had a similar problem: I ran a custom version of mediawiki where I installed various extensions in the versioned core (with svn). Each of the extensions required an section in the confit file, but the confit file also needed local configuration for each of several deployments. I could have implemented it using includes, but they would not be versioned; and rebasing branches each time is a chore. +50 experience points for a good answer in git.

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• IList<T> and IReadOnlyList<T>

  - by Safak Gür

  My problem is that I have a method that can take a collection as parameter that, Has a Count property Has an integer indexer (get-only) And I don't know what type should this parameter be. I would choose IList<T> before .NET 4.5 since there is no other indexable collection interface for this and arrays implement it, which is a big plus. But .NET 4.5 introduces the new IReadOnlyList<T> interface and I want my method to support that, too. How can I write this method to support both IList<T> and IReadOnlyList<T> without violating the basic principles like DRY? Can I convert IList<T> to IReadOnlyList<T> somehow in an overload? What is the way to go here? Edit: Daniel's answer gave me some pretty ideas, I guess I'll go with this: public void Do<T>(IList<T> collection) { DoInternal(collection, collection.Count, i => collection[i]); } public void Do<T>(IReadOnlyList<T> collection) { DoInternal(collection, collection.Count, i => collection[i]); } private void DoInternal<T>(IEnumerable<T> collection, int count, Func<int, T> indexer) { // Stuff } Or I could just accept a ReadOnlyList<T> and provide an helper like this: public static class CollectionEx { public static IReadOnlyList<T> AsReadOnly<T>(this IList<T> collection) { if (collection == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("collection"); return new ReadOnlyWrapper<T>(collection); } private sealed class ReadOnlyWrapper<T> : IReadOnlyList<T> { private readonly IList<T> _Source; public int Count { get { return _Source.Count; } } public T this[int index] { get { return _Source[index]; } } public ReadOnlyWrapper(IList<T> source) { _Source = source; } public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { return _Source.GetEnumerator(); } IEnumerator IEnumerable.GetEnumerator() { return GetEnumerator(); } } } Then I could call Do(array.AsReadOnly())

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• What's the fastest lookup algorithm for a key, pair data structure (i.e, a map)?

  - by truncheon

  In the following example a std::map structure is filled with 26 values from A - Z (for key) and 0 – 26 for value. The time taken (on my system) to lookup the last entry (10000000 times) is roughly 250 ms for the vector, and 125 ms for the map. (I compiled using release mode, with O3 option turned on for g++ 4.4) But if for some odd reason I wanted better performance than the std::map, what data structures and functions would I need to consider using? I apologize if the answer seems obvious to you, but I haven't had much experience in the performance critical aspects of C++ programming. #include <ctime> #include <map> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct mystruct { char key; int value; mystruct(char k = 0, int v = 0) : key(k), value(v) { } }; int find(const std::vector<mystruct>& ref, char key) { for (std::vector<mystruct>::const_iterator i = ref.begin(); i != ref.end(); ++i) if (i->key == key) return i->value; return -1; } int main() { std::map<char, int> mymap; std::vector<mystruct> myvec; for (int i = 'a'; i < 'a' + 26; ++i) { mymap[i] = i - 'a'; myvec.push_back(mystruct(i, i - 'a')); } int pre = clock(); for (int i = 0; i < 10000000; ++i) { find(myvec, 'z'); } std::cout << "linear scan: milli " << clock() - pre << "\n"; pre = clock(); for (int i = 0; i < 10000000; ++i) { mymap['z']; } std::cout << "map scan: milli " << clock() - pre << "\n"; return 0; }

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• C++0x class factory with variadic templates problem

  - by randomenglishbloke

  I have a class factory where I'm using variadic templates for the c'tor parameters (code below). However, when I attempt to use it, I get compile errors; when I originally wrote it without parameters, it worked fine. Here is the class: template< class Base, typename KeyType, class... Args > class GenericFactory { public: GenericFactory(const GenericFactory&) = delete; GenericFactory &operator=(const GenericFactory&) = delete; typedef Base* (*FactFunType)(Args...); template <class Derived> static void Register(const KeyType &key, FactFunType fn) { FnList[key] = fn; } static Base* Create(const KeyType &key, Args... args) { auto iter = FnList.find(key); if (iter == FnList.end()) return 0; else return (iter->second)(args...); } static GenericFactory &Instance() { static GenericFactory gf; return gf; } private: GenericFactory() = default; typedef std::unordered_map<KeyType, FactFunType> FnMap; static FnMap FnList; }; template <class B, class D, typename KeyType, class... Args> class RegisterClass { public: RegisterClass(const KeyType &key) { GenericFactory<B, KeyType, Args...>::Instance().Register(key, FactFn); } static B *FactFn(Args... args) { return new D(args...); } }; Here is the error: when calling (e.g.) // Tucked out of the way RegisterClass<DataMap, PDColumnMap, int, void *> RC_CT_PD(0); GCC 4.5.0 gives me: In constructor 'RegisterClass<B, D, KeyType, Args>::RegisterClass(const KeyType&) [with B = DataMap, D = PDColumnMap, KeyType = int, Args = {void*}]': no matching function for call to 'GenericFactory<DataMap, int, void*>::Register(const int&, DataMap* (&)(void*))' I can't see why it won't compile and after extensive googling I couldn't find the answer. Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong (aside from the strange variable name, which makes sense in context)?

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• Android - Retrieve all data from a SQLite table row

  - by Paul

  I have searched and cannot find an answer to my issue so i hope i am not completely barking up the wrong tree (so to speak). I am new to android and have started to create an app. My app on one screen creates and adds entries to a SQLite database using public class DatabaseHandler extends SQLiteOpenHelper and this all appears to work. I retrieve all the data and populate it into a grid, again this now works. My issue is I am unable to retrieve one complete line from the grid. I populate/display the grid with the following code. I have cut a lot out as the grid is made in stages, header, blank lines etc but the grid does display as I want. The id’s work as when I touch a line it displays its unique id. The onClick is right at the end and when I use getText() instead of getID() all it returns is the data in the labelDate. How do I retrieve all the labels as listed below? TextView labelDATE = new TextView(this); TextView labelCP = new TextView(this); TextView labelBG = new TextView(this); TextView labelQA = new TextView(this); TextView labelCN = new TextView(this); TextView labelKT = new TextView(this); TextView[] tvArray = {labelDATE, labelCP, labelBG, labelQA, labelCN, labelKT}; labelDATE.setText(re.getTime()); labelCP.setText(re.getCP()); labelBG.setText(re.getBG()); labelQA.setText(re.getQA()); labelCN.setText(re.getCN()); labelKT.setText(re.getKT()); for (TextView tv : tvArray) { tv.setTextColor(Color.WHITE); tv.setId(200+count); tr.setOnClickListener(this); tr.addView(tv); } //add this to the table row tl.addView(tr, new TableLayout.LayoutParams(LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT,LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); public void onClick(View v) { if (v instanceof TableRow) { TableRow row = (TableRow) v; TextView child = (TextView) row.getChildAt(0); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(this, String.valueOf(child.getId()), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT); toast.show(); } } I can supply all the code for the grid creation if required. Thanks for any help.

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• JQuery, Load() contents with plugins

  - by Galas

  I know this is not a completely new question, but none of the answers solved my problem... I have built a little menu that uses load() to load image galleries (as external html files) into a specified div ("content"). The said galleries make use of a JQuery plugin (SlideJS). Now I know that load() does not work for script tags and that I need to use $.getscript in the callback function in order to run the scripts, but it does not work. I have two .js files that need to be loaded: one is the plugin itself and another one is a smaller script with a preloader and the animations for the captions. I can't seem to merge them together; if I put them into the same document, the script won't run. So I tried just using $.getscript to load the two files. I tried using two callbacks as suggested in other answer (I know it's not ideal...): $("#proposal").click(function(){ $(this).addClass('selected'); $("a:not(:#proposal)").removeClass('selected'); $("#content").load("works/proposal/proposal.html", function(){ $.getScript("js/slide.js", function (){ $.getScript("js/slidepage.js"); }); }); }); and I tried a variable (read about it in some other faq, not sure if the syntax is correct) $("#proposal").click(function(){ $(this).addClass('selected'); $("a:not(:#proposal)").removeClass('selected'); $("#content").load("works/proposal/proposal.html", function(){ var scripts = ['js/slide.js','js/slidepage.js']; $.getScript(scripts); }); }); So none of these work. What am I doing wrong? I'm just starting on jquery and my js knowledge is very limited. Should I just merge the two .js files together using minify or something? One of them is already minified, but I've tried with a non-minified version and it does not work either. Can anyone suggest any other solution around this problem? I thought of just having the div embedded in the main document and just showing it on click, but I'll have at least 4 galleries with about 8 to 10 images each... its a lot of images to load in the main page, so I don't think its the best way. if you need me to post any more code, please ask! Thanks in advance for all your help!

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• What is the best approach in SQL to store multi-level descriptions?

  - by gime

  I need a new perspective on how to design a reliable and efficient SQL database to store multi-level arrays of data. This problem applies to many situations but I came up with this example: There are hundreds of products. Each product has an undefined number of parts. Each part is built from several elements. All products are described in the same way. All parts would require the same fields to describe them (let's say: price, weight, part name), all elements of all parts also have uniform design (for example: element code, manufacturer). Plain and simple. One element may be related to only part, and each part is related to one product only. I came up with idea of three tables: Products: -------------------------------------------- prod_id prod_name prod_price prod_desc 1 hoover 120 unused next Parts: ---------------------------------------------------- part_id part_name part_price part_weight prod_id 3 engine 10 20 1 and finally Elements: --------------------------------------- el_id el_code el_manufacturer part_id 1 BFG12 GE 3 Now, select a desired product, select all from PARTS where prod_id is the same, and then select all from ELEMENTS where part_id matches - after multiple queries you've got all data. I'm just not sure if this is the right approach. I've got also another idea, without ELEMENTS table. That would decrease queries but I'm a bit afraid it might be lame and bad practice. Instead of ELEMENTS table there are two more fields in the PARTS table, so it looks like this: part_id, part_name, part_price, part_weight, prod_id, part_el_code, part_el_manufacturer they would be text type, and for each part, information about elements would be stored as strings, this way: part_el_code | code_of_element1; code_of_element2; code_of_element3 part_el_manufacturer | manuf_of_element1; manuf_of_element2; manuf_of_element3 Then all we need is to explode() data from those fields, and we get arrays, easy to display. Of course this is not perfect and has some limitations, but is this idea ok? Or should I just go with the first idea? Or maybe there is a better approach to this problem? It's really hard to describe it in few words, and that means it's hard to search for answer. Also, understanding the principles of designing databases is not that easy as it seems.

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• Need help with tweaking a Dropdown with three options, user selects one - a hidden div appears with correct fields

  - by Jack

  Hello Again, I posted a question on here and got an answer within minutes I'm hoping the wizards on here can help me again. Okay so I'm using a script I found online to try and add this function to a shopping cart form. Here's the setup. I have a payment method dropdown with Visa, Mastercard and Bank Withdrawal as the options. For the credit cards I have one hidden div with a certain set of fields, and for the bank I have another hidden div. Each of the divs have named ID's - #payCredit and #payBank The css for both have margin: 0px and display: none; Here's a peice of javascript I used successfuly on a shipping address checkbox `function toggleLayer( whichLayer ) { var elem, vis; if( document.getElementById ) // this is the way the standards work elem = document.getElementById( whichLayer ); else if( document.all ) // this is the way old msie versions work elem = document.all[whichLayer]; else if( document.layers ) // this is the way nn4 works elem = document.layers[whichLayer]; vis = elem.style; // if the style.display value is blank we try to figure it out here if(vis.display==''&&elem.offsetWidth!=undefined&&elem.offsetHeight!=undefined) vis.display = (elem.offsetWidth!=0&&elem.offsetHeight!=0)?'block':'none'; vis.display = (vis.display==''||vis.display=='block')?'none':'block'; }` I was hoping I could change it slightly to meet my needs. Here's the dropdown <label>Payment Method:</label> <select name="payment" id="payment" class="dropdown3" style="width:8em"> <option selected="selected">Select</option> <option value="Visa" onclick="javascript:toggleLayer('payCredit');">Visa</option> <option value="MasterCard" onclick="javascript:toggleLayer('payCredit');">Mastercard</option> <option value="Direct" onclick="javascript:toggleLayer('payBank');">Direct Withdraw</option> </select></li> The current result is that it kinda works. I can open the dropdown and select Visa and it appears, if I select Visa again it disappears, if I select Visa and then select bank, both appear. You can see what i'm working on here - http://test.sharevetcare.com/bestfriends/cart3.html

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• When i add a bitmap to an array list the last element is duplicated in previous indexes

  - by saxofone2

  I'm trying to implement a personal way of undo/redo in a finger paint-like app. I have in synthesis three objects: the Main class (named ScorePadActivity), the relative Main Layout (with buttons, menus, etc, as well as a View object where I create my drawings), and a third object named ArrayList where i'm writing the undo/redo code. The problem is, when I press the undo button nothing happens, but if I draw anything again "one-time" and press undo, the screen is updated. If I draw many times, to see any changes happen on screen I have to press the undo button the same number of times I have drawn. Seems like (as in title) when I add a bitmap to the array list the last element is duplicated in previous indexes, and for some strange reason, everytime I press the Undo Button, the system is ok for one time, but starts to duplicate until the next undo. The index increase is verified with a series of System.out.println inserted in code. Now when I draw something on screen, the array list is updated with the code inserted after the invocation of touchup(); method in motionEvent touch_up(); } this.arrayClass.incrementArray(mBitmap); mPath.rewind(); invalidate(); and in ArrayList activity; public void incrementArray(Bitmap mBitmap) { this._mBitmap=mBitmap; _size=undoArray.size(); undoArray.add(_size, _mBitmap); } (All Logs removed for clear reading) The undo button in ScorePadActivity calls the undo method in View activity: Button undobtn= (Button)findViewById(R.id.undo); undobtn.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { mView.undo(); } }); in View activity: public void undo() { this.mBitmap= arrayClass.undo(); mCanvas = new Canvas(mBitmap); mPath.rewind(); invalidate(); } that calls the relative undo method in ArrayList activity: public Bitmap undo() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub _size=undoArray.size(); if (_size>1) { undoArray.remove(_size-1); _size=undoArray.size(); _mBitmap = ((Bitmap) undoArray.get(_size-1)).copy(Bitmap.Config.ARGB_8888,true); } return _mBitmap; } return mBitmap and invalidate: Due to my bad English I have made a scheme to make the problem more clear: I have tried with HashMap, with a simple array, I have tried to change mPath.rewind(); with reset();, new Path(); etc but nothing. Why? Sorry for the complex answer, i want give you a great thanks in advance. Best regards

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• Delete duplicate rows, do not preserve one row

  - by Radley

  I need a query that goes through each entry in a database, checks if a single value is duplicated elsewhere in the database, and if it is - deletes both entries (or all, if more than two). Problem is the entries are URLs, up to 255 characters, with no way of identifying the row. Some existing answers on Stackoverflow do not work for me due to performance limitations, or they use uniqueid which obviously won't work when dealing with a string. Long Version: I have two databases containing URLs (and only URLs). One database has around 3,000 urls and the other around 1,000. However, a large majority of the 1,000 urls were taken from the 3,000 url database. I need to merge the 1,000 into the 3,000 as new entries only. For this, I made a third database with combined URLs from both tables, about 4,000 entries. I need to find all duplicate entries in this database and delete them (Both of them, without leaving either). I have followed the query of a few examples on this site, but whenever I try to delete both entries it ends up deleting all the entries, or giving sql errors. Alternatively: I have two databases, each containing the separate database. I need to check each row from one database against the other to find any that aren't duplicates, and then add those to a third database. Edit: I've got my own PHP solution which is pretty hacky, but works. I cannot answer my own question for 8 hours because I'm new, so here it is for now: I went with a PHP script to accomplish this, as I'm more familiar with PHP than MySQL. This generates a simple list of urls that only exist in the target database, but not both. If you have more than 7,000 entries to parse this may take awhile, and you will need to copy/paste the results into a text file or expand the script to store them back into a database. I'm just doing it manually to save time. Note: Uses MeekroDB <pre> <?php require('meekrodb.2.1.class.php'); DB::$user = 'root'; DB::$password = ''; DB::$dbName = 'testdb'; $all = DB::query('SELECT * FROM old_urls LIMIT 7000'); foreach($all as $row) { $test = DB::query('SELECT url FROM new_urls WHERE url=%s', $row['url']); if (!is_array($test)) { echo $row['url'] . "\n"; }else{ if (count($test) == 0) { echo $row['url'] . "\n"; } } } ?> </pre>

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• JQuery within a partial view not being called

  - by XN16

  I have a view that has some jQuery to load a partial view (via a button click) into a div in the view. This works without a problem. However within the partial view I have a very similar bit of jQuery that will load another partial view into a div in the first partial view, but this isn't working, it almost seems like the jQuery in the first partial view isn't being loaded. I have tried searching for solutions, but I haven't managed to find an answer. I have also re-created the jQuery function in a @Ajax.ActionLink which works fine, however I am trying to avoid the Microsoft helpers as I am trying to learn jQuery. Here is the first partial view which contains the jQuery that doesn't seem to work, it also contains the @Ajax.ActionLink that does work: @model MyProject.ViewModels.AddressIndexViewModel <script> $(".viewContacts").click(function () { $.ajax({ url: '@Url.Action("CustomerAddressContacts", "Customer")', type: 'POST', data: { addressID: $(this).attr('data-addressid') }, cache: false, success: function (result) { $("#customerAddressContactsPartial-" + $(this).attr('data-addressid')) .html(result); }, error: function () { alert("error"); } }); return false; }); </script> <table class="customers" style="width: 100%"> <tr> <th style="width: 25%"> Name </th> <th style="width: 25%"> Actions </th> </tr> </table> @foreach (Address item in Model.Addresses) { <table style="width: 100%; border-top: none"> <tr id="[email protected]"> <td style="width: 25%; border-top: none"> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Name) </td> <td style="width: 25%; border-top: none"> <a href="#" class="viewContacts standardbutton" data-addressid="@item.AddressID">ContactsJQ</a> @Ajax.ActionLink("Contacts", "CustomerAddressContacts", "Customer", new { addressID = item.AddressID }, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "customerAddressContactsPartial-" + @item.AddressID, HttpMethod = "POST" }, new { @class = "standardbutton"}) </td> </tr> </table> <div id="[email protected]"></div> } If someone could explain what I am doing wrong here and how to fix it then I would be very grateful. Thanks very much.

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• Can I Have Polymorphic Containers With Value Semantics in C++11?

  - by John Dibling

  This is a sequel to a related post which asked the eternal question: Can I have polymorphic containers with value semantics in C++? The question was asked slightly incorrectly. It should have been more like: Can I have STL containers of a base type stored by-value in which the elements exhibit polymorphic behavior? If you are asking the question in terms of C++, the answer is "no." At some point, you will slice objects stored by-value. Now I ask the question again, but strictly in terms of C++11. With the changes to the language and the standard libraries, is it now possible to store polymorphic objects by value in an STL container? I'm well aware of the possibility of storing a smart pointer to the base class in the container -- this is not what I'm looking for, as I'm trying to construct objects on the stack without using new. Consider if you will (from the linked post) as basic C++ example: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Parent { public: Parent() : parent_mem(1) {} virtual void write() { cout << "Parent: " << parent_mem << endl; } int parent_mem; }; class Child : public Parent { public: Child() : child_mem(2) { parent_mem = 2; } void write() { cout << "Child: " << parent_mem << ", " << child_mem << endl; } int child_mem; }; int main(int, char**) { // I can have a polymorphic container with pointer semantics vector<Parent*> pointerVec; pointerVec.push_back(new Parent()); pointerVec.push_back(new Child()); pointerVec[0]->write(); pointerVec[1]->write(); // Output: // // Parent: 1 // Child: 2, 2 // But I can't do it with value semantics vector<Parent> valueVec; valueVec.push_back(Parent()); valueVec.push_back(Child()); // gets turned into a Parent object :( valueVec[0].write(); valueVec[1].write(); // Output: // // Parent: 1 // Parent: 2 }

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• Check Avaibility of a page before loading using jquery/ajax

  - by overcomer

  Is it possible check the Accessibility of a page before loading it? I have a form, running on mobile device using wireless connection. The problem is: not always this connection is avaible and i would like to alert the user when is doing a submit or an unload of the page. The problem is that the page contains elements doing redirect like this: <input type="button" value="MyText" onClick="script1;script2;...window.location='mylocation" /> If the user click on this button and the server is not achievable, i will recive some undesiderable errors. Also if I want to generalize my script i do not know the value of "mylocation" previously. The page contains elements to submit the Form also: <input type="submit" name="SUBMIT" value="MyValue" onClick="return eval('validationForm()')" /> For the submitting I'm using the ajaxForm plugin and it works quite well. This is a snippet of code: Thanks to your answer I found the solution to the problem. That's the code: function checkConnection(u,s){ $.ajax({ url:u, cache:false, timeout:3000, error: function(jqXHR, textStatus) { alert("Request failed: " + textStatus ); }, success: function() { eval(s); } }); } $(document).ready(function() { // part of the function that checks buttons with redirect // for any input that contain a redirect on onClick attribute ("window.locarion=") $("input[type=button]").each(function(){ var script = $(this).attr("onClick"); var url = ""; var position = script.indexOf("window.location") ; if (position >= 0) { // case of redirect url = script.substring(position+17, script.lenght); url = url.split("\'")[0]; url = "\'"+url+"\'"; // that's my url script = "\""+script+"\""; // that's the complete script $(this).attr("onClick","checkConnection("+url+","+script+")"); } }); // part of the function that checks the submit buttons (using ajaxForm plugin) var is_error = false; var options = { error: function() { if (alert("Error Message")==true) { } is_error = true; }, target: window.document, replaceTarget: is_error, timeout: 3000 }; $("#myForm").ajaxForm(options); }); I hope that this will be usefull.

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• C# Different class objects in one list

  - by jeah_wicer

  I have looked around some now to find a solution to this problem. I found several ways that could solve it but to be honest I didn't realize which of the ways that would be considered the "right" C# or OOP way of solving it. My goal is not only to solve the problems but also to develop a good set of code standards and I'm fairly sure there's a standard way to handle this problem. Let's say I have 2 types of printer hardwares with their respective classes and ways of communicating: PrinterType1, PrinterType2. I would also like to be able to later on add another type if neccessary. One step up in abstraction those have much in common. It should be possible to send a string to each one of them as an example. They both have variables in common and variables unique to each class. (One for instance communicates via COM-port and has such an object, while the other one communicates via TCP and has such an object). I would however like to just implement a List of all those printers and be able to go through the list and perform things as "Send(string message)" on all Printers regardless of type. I would also like to access variables like "PrinterList[0].Name" that are the same for both objects, however I would also at some places like to access data that is specific to the object itself (For instance in the settings window of the application where the COM-port name is set for one object and the IP/port number for another). So, in short something like: In common: Name Send() Specific to PrinterType1: Port Specific to PrinterType2: IP And I wish to, for instance, do Send() on all objects regardless of type and the number of objects present. I've read about polymorphism, Generics, interfaces and such, but I would like to know how this, in my eyes basic, problem typically would be dealt with in C# (and/or OOP in general). I actually did try to make a base class, but it didn't quite seem right to me. For instance I have no use of a "string Send(string Message)" function in the base class itself. So why would I define one there that needs to be overridden in the derived classes when I would never use the function in the base class ever in the first place? I'm really thankful for any answers. People around here seem very knowledgeable and this place has provided me with many solutions earlier. Now I finally have an account to answer and vote with too. EDIT: To additionally explain, I would also like to be able to access the objects of the actual printertype. For instance the Port variable in PrinterType1 which is a SerialPort object. I would like to access it like: PrinterList[0].Port.Open() and have access to the full range of functionality of the underlaying port. At the same time I would like to call generic functions that work in the same way for the different objects (but with different implementations): foreach (printer in Printers) printer.Send(message)

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• Database advantages? Access, MySQL, msSQL, or any others?

  - by JimZ

  Dear all Stackoverflowers, I just started to learn programming and now I'm putting this question online based on a quote: no question is silly My work needs to develop a order system based on web, which wants a database system. Since using Excel for years as a general office user, I naturally turn this to Access. However, most people say Access is very limited comparing to MySQL or MSSQL, or any other more professional database system. But after developing some functions for my company's order system, I really find Access can fulfill my request. And I also tried MSSQL to develop, which I found it not quite convenient to use. I have searched in stackoverflow and find no general answer about my doubt. Now I am sincerely hoping some experienced and professional developers could clear my doubts. Now I'm listing some Access advantages, which I don't think other database system have. I hope you could help me also find these advantages in others. 1. Access is portable, I can just copy a xxx.accdb file to my company and continue with development. 2. Access is easy to generate helpful table, for example, it will automatically generate a field that can automatically count, could be used as primary key value. 3. it is more compatable with Excel, to display and filter data. 4. importantly, it nerely needs no environment to setup, just needs MS Office to be installed. ............others However, I also find some points that MSSQL is advantaged: 1. security reasons 2. easy to backup, ( just use BACKUP..... sql statement to do it) 3. can edit stored procedure to save some functions to database ...............others specifically, I wish some friends could tell me how to make other database portable? since I usually work both at home and in office. It's a headache to move MSSQL work to my office, since the version of MSSQL is not the same. Thank you all and best regards, :)

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• Is it possible to start (and stop) a thread inside a DLL?

  - by Jerry Dodge

  I'm pondering some ideas for building a DLL for some common stuff I do. One thing I'd like to check if it's possible is running a thread inside of a DLL. I'm sure I would be able to at least start it, and have it automatically free on terminate (and make it forcefully terminate its self) - that I can see wouldn't be much of a problem. But once I start it, I don't see how I can continue communicating with it (especially to stop it) mainly because each call to the DLL is unique (as far as my knowledge tells me) but I also know very little of the subject. I've seen how in some occasions, a DLL can be loaded at the beginning and released at the end when it's not needed anymore. I have 0 knowledge or experience with this method, other than just seeing something related to it, couldn't even tell you what or how, I don't remember. But is this even possible? I know about ActiveX/COM but that is not what I want - I'd like just a basic DLL that can be used across languages (specifically C#). Also, if it is possible, then how would I go about doing callbacks from the DLL to the app? For example, when I start the thread, I most probably will assign a function (which is inside the EXE) to be the handler for the events (which are triggered from the DLL). So I guess what I'm asking is - how to load a DLL for continuous work and release it when I'm done - as opposed to the simple method of calling individual functions in the DLL as needed. In the same case - I might assign variables or create objects inside the DLL. How can I assure that once I assign that variable (or create the object), how can I make sure that variable or object will still be available the next time I call the DLL? Obviously it would require a mechanism to Initialize/Finalize the DLL (I.E. create the objects inside the DLL when the DLL is loaded, and free the objects when the DLL is unloaded). EDIT: In the end, I will wrap the DLL inside of a component, so when an instance of the component is created, DLL will be loaded and a corresponding thread will be created inside the DLL, then when the component is free'd, the DLL is unloaded. Also need to make sure that if there are for example 2 of these components, that there will be 2 instances of the DLL loaded for each component. Is this in any way related to the use of an IInterface? Because I also have 0 experience with this. No need to answer it directly with sample source code - a link to a good tutorial would be great.

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