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  • How do I execute a sql statement through a variable (dyname sql) that tries to do an insert into a variable table?

    - by Testifier
    If I do what I wanna do with a TEMPORARY TABLE, it works fine: DECLARE @CTRFR VARCHAR(MAX) SET @CTRFR = 'select blah blah blah' -- <-- very long select statement. this returns a 0 or some greater number. Please note! --> I NEED THIS NUMBER. IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo][#CTRFRResult]') AND type IN ( N'U' ) ) DROP TABLE [dbo].[#CTRFRResult] CREATE TABLE #CTRFRResult ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into #CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR EXEC(@CTRFR) The above works fine. The problem is that several databases are using the same TEMP table. Therefore I need to use a VARIABLE table (instead of a temporary table). What I have below is not working because it says that the table must be declared. DECLARE @CTRFRResult TABLE ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into @CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR -- I think the issue is here. EXEC(@CTRFR) Setting @CTRFR to 'insert into...' is not working because I'm assuming the table name is out of scope. How would I go about mimicking the temporary table code using a variable table?

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  • saving mySql row checkpoint in table ?

    - by Keet
    hello, I am having a wee problem, and I am sure there is a more convenient/simpler way to achieve the solution, but all searches are throw in up a blanks at the moment ! I have a mysql db that is regularly updated by php page [ via a cron job ] this adds or deletes entries as appropriate. My issue is that I also need to check if any details [ie the phone number or similar] for the entry have changed, but doing this at every call is not possible [ not only does is seem to me to be overkill, but I am restricted by a 3rd party api call limit] Plus this is not critical info. So I was thinking it might be best to just check one entry per page call, and iterate through the rows/entires with each successive page call. What would be the best way of doing this, ie keeping track of which entry/row in the table that the should be checked next? I have 2 ideas of how to implement this: 1 ) The id of current row could be save to a file on the server [ surely not the best way] 2) an extra boolean field [check] is add to the table, set to True on the first entry and false to all other. Then on each page call it; finds 'where check = TRUE' runs the update check on this row, 'set check = FALSE' 'set [the next row] check = TRUE' Si this the best way to do this, or does anyone have any better sugestion ? thanks in advance ! .k PS sorry about the title

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  • Data Structure / Hash Function to link Sets of Ints to Value

    - by Gaminic
    Given n integer id's, I wish to link all possible sets of up to k id's to a constant value. What I'm looking for is a way to translate sets (e.g. {1, 5}, {1, 3, 5} and {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}) to unique values. Guarantees: n < 100 and k < 10 (again: set sizes will range in [1, k]). The order of id's doesn't matter: {1, 5} == {5, 1}. All combinations are possible, but some may be excluded. All sets and values are constant and made only once. No deletes or inserts, no value updates. Once generated, the only operations taking place will be look-ups. Look-ups will be frequent and one-directional (given set, look up value). There is no need to sort (or otherwise organize) the values. Additionally, it would be nice (but not obligatory) if "neighboring" sets (drop one id, add one id, swap one id, etc) are easy to reach, as well as "all sets that include at least this set". Any ideas?

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  • learning C++ from java, trying to make a linked list.

    - by kyeana
    I just started learning c++ (coming from java) and am having some serious problems with doing anything :P Currently, i am attempting to make a linked list, but must be doing something stupid cause i keep getting "void value not ignored as it ought to be" compile errors (i have it marked where it is throwing it bellow). If anyone could help me with what im doing wrong, i would be very grateful :) Also, I am not used to having the choice of passing by reference, address, or value, and memory management in general (currently i have all my nodes and the data declared on the heap). If anyone has any general advice for me, i also wouldn't complain :P Key code from LinkedListNode.cpp LinkedListNode::LinkedListNode() { //set next and prev to null pData=0; //data needs to be a pointer so we can set it to null for //for the tail and head. pNext=0; pPrev=0; } /* * Sets the 'next' pointer to the memory address of the inputed reference. */ void LinkedListNode::SetNext(LinkedListNode& _next) { pNext=&_next; } /* * Sets the 'prev' pointer to the memory address of the inputed reference. */ void LinkedListNode::SetPrev(LinkedListNode& _prev) { pPrev=&_prev; } //rest of class Key code from LinkedList.cpp #include "LinkedList.h" LinkedList::LinkedList() { // Set head and tail of linked list. pHead = new LinkedListNode(); pTail = new LinkedListNode(); /* * THIS IS WHERE THE ERRORS ARE. */ *pHead->SetNext(*pTail); *pTail->SetPrev(*pHead); } //rest of class

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  • Translate an IQueryable instance to LINQ syntax in a string

    - by James Dunne
    I would like to find out if anyone has existing work surrounding formatting an IQueryable instance back into a LINQ C# syntax inside a string. It'd be a nice-to-have feature for an internal LINQ-to-SQL auditing framework I'm building. Once my framework gets the IQueryable instance from a data repository method, I'd like to output something like: This LINQ query: from ce in db.EiClassEnrollment join c in db.EiCourse on ce.CourseID equals c.CourseID join cl in db.EiClass on ce.ClassID equals cl.ClassID join t in db.EiTerm on ce.TermID equals t.TermID join st in db.EiStaff on cl.Instructor equals st.StaffID where (ce.StudentID == studentID) && (ce.TermID == termID) && (cl.Campus == campusID) select new { ce, cl, t, c, st }; Generates the following LINQ-to-SQL query: DECLARE @p0 int; DECLARE @p1 int; DECLARE @p2 int; SET @p0 = 777; SET @p1 = 778; SET @p2 = 779; SELECT [t0].[ClassEnrollmentID], ..., [t4].[Name] FROM [dbo].[ei_ClassEnrollment] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[ei_Course] AS [t1] ON [t0].[CourseID] = [t1].[CourseID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[ei_Class] AS [t2] ON [t0].[ClassID] = [t2].[ClassID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[ei_Term] AS [t3] ON [t0].[TermID] = [t3].[TermID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[ei_Staff] AS [t4] ON [t2].[Instructor] = [t4].[StaffID] WHERE ([t0].[StudentID] = @p0) AND ([t0].[TermID] = @p1) AND ([t2].[Campus] = @p2) I already have the SQL output working as you can see. I just need to find a way to get the IQueryable to translate into a string representing its original LINQ syntax (with an acceptable translation loss). I'm not afraid of writing it myself, but I'd like to see if anyone else has done this first.

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  • Html.Editor() helper in ASP.NET MVC 3 does not work as expected with array in model

    - by SlimShaggy
    In my ASP.NET MVC 3 application I have classes like the following: public class Localization<T> { public int VersionID { get; set; } public T Value { get; set; } ... } public class Localizable<T> { public Localization<T>[] Name { get; set; } ... } Then, I have the following view: @model dynamic ... @for (int i = 0; i < VersionCount; i++) { ... @Html.Editor(string.Format("Name[{0}.Value", i)) ... } Now, when I display this view, passing a subclass of Localizable<string> as the model, the textboxes for the strings are rendered, but they are empty. If I replace @Html.Editor(string.Format("Name[{0}.Value", i)) with @InputExtensions.TextBox(Html, string.Format("Name[{0}].Value", i), Model.Name[i].Value), the textboxes are correctly filled with values from the model. However, using TextBox instead of Editor is not an option for me, because I want to use different editor templates for different types of T. So, what am I doing wrong, or is it a bug in MVC, and is there any workaround?

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  • How do I implement IEnumerable?

    - by Stacey
    I have a class that contains a static number of objects. This class needs to be frequently 'compared' to other classes that will be simple List objects. public partial class Sheet { public Item X{ get; set; } public Item Y{ get; set; } public Item Z{ get; set; } } the items are obviously not going to be "X" "Y" "Z", those are just generic names for example. The problem is that due to the nature of what needs to be done, a List won't work; even though everything in here is going to be of type Item. It is like a checklist of very specific things that has to be tested against in both code and runtime. This works all fine and well; it isn't my issue. My issue is iterating it. For instance I want to do the following... List<Item> UncheckedItems = // Repository Logic Here. UncheckedItems contains all available items; and the CheckedItems is the Sheet class instance. CheckedItems will contain items that were moved from Unchecked to Checked; however due to the nature of the storage system, items moved to Checked CANNOT be REMOVED from Unchecked. I simply want to iterate through "Checked" and remove anything from the list in Unchecked that is already in "Checked". So naturally, that would go like this with a normal list. foreach(Item item in Unchecked) { if( Checked.Contains(item) ) Unchecked.Remove( item ); } But since "Sheet" is not a 'List', I cannot do that. So I wanted to implement IEnumerable so that I could. Any suggestions? I've never implemented IEnumerable directly before and I'm pretty confused as to where to begin.

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  • License key pattern detection?

    - by Ricket
    This is not a real situation; please ignore legal issues that you might think apply, because they don't. Let's say I have a set of 200 known valid license keys for a hypothetical piece of software's licensing algorithm, and a license key consists of 5 sets of 5 alphanumeric case-insensitive (all uppercase) characters. Example: HXDY6-R3DD7-Y8FRT-UNPVT-JSKON Is it possible (or likely) to extrapolate other possible keys for the system? What if the set was known to be consecutive; how do the methods change for this situation, and what kind of advantage does this give? I have heard of "keygens" before, but I believe they are probably made by decompiling the licensing software rather than examining known valid keys. In this case, I am only given the set of keys and I must determine the algorithm. I'm also told it is an industry standard algorithm, so it's probably not something basic, though the chance is always there I suppose. If you think this doesn't belong in Stack Overflow, please at least suggest an alternate place for me to look or ask the question. I honestly don't know where to begin with a problem like this. I don't even know the terminology for this kind of problem.

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  • IIS redirect url for virtual directory

    - by Jouni
    Hello, How i can set redirect url for virtual directory in iis 7.0.I have installed lates url rewrite module 2. ? I could explain my problem with exsample. I have website on my iis 7.0 server: www.mysite.com I desided to create virtual directory sales under my site which is pointing to website root directory.Now I need create redirect url for the vdir. The vdir is pointing same virtual root directory as my site root is The big idea is that i can write on browser www.mysite/sales and i will automaticly redirect to url www.mysite.com?productid=200. I tried to make redirect with rewite url for vdir(not website), but I always get this error message : cannot add duplicate colletion entry of type 'rule' with unique key key attribute 'name' set to "test".This happens when i am pointing for virtual vdir and try to add rule. I can add rules to website level,but rules doesn work. I mean url www.mysite/sales gives me follwing error. I know that key is unique I checked it from web.config. This kind of feature was really easy use in IIS 6.0, just point vdir with your mouse and set properties--a redirect to url. Please some one explain what is right way to do it in IIS 7.0

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  • Syntax Problems of if Statement (php)

    - by MxmastaMills
    I need a little help with an if statement in php. I'm trying to set a variable called offset according to a page that I am loading in WordPress. Here's the variable: $offset = ($paged * 6); What it does is it loads the first page, which is: http://example.com/blog and $offset is thus set to 0 because $paged is referring to the appending number on the URL. The second page, for example is: http://example.com/blog/2/ which makes $offset set to 12. The problem is, I need the second page to define $offset as 6, the third page to define $offset as 12, etc. I tried using: $offset = ($paged * 6 - 6) which works except on the first page. On the first page it defines $offset as -6. SO, I wanted to create an if statement that says if $paged is equal to 0 then $offset is equal to 0, else $offset is equal to ($paged * 6 - 6). I struggle with syntax, even though I understand what needs to be done here. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Sessions not sticking linux server

    - by Jacob Windsor
    I have just moved the dev site over to my linux server for production but the sessions don't seem to be sticking for very long. I am guessing it is the server settings and not the php because it does the same thing with the plesk panel. Whenever a script is executed the sessions seems to get unset. I see nothing in the error log so not sure what it is. It all worked fine on wamp. Anyway I uploaded the php.ini file which was in the wamp server as it had all the settings i needed and all was working on localhost. Not sure what the problem is and this is the final thing that I have to sort out before going into production. And just too add the sessions are being started as they last for a little bit just don't stick around long. Here is the relevent part of my login script just in case there is something wrong with the code: // if login is ok then we add a cookie if($flag == 0) { $pass = htmlspecialchars(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['pass'])); $username = htmlspecialchars(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['username'])); $_SESSION['username']=$username; $_SESSION['password']=$pass;

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  • While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

    - by Mahn
    I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

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  • base class , inheritate class sizeof()

    - by user1279988
    why sizeof(X) is 4 and sizeof(Y) is 8? and another question, in class X, only the int(i) count as sizeof() 4? member function does take any memory space? Plz tell me, thanks! class X { int i; public: X() { i = 0; } void set(int ii) { i = ii; } int read() const { return i; } int permute() { return i = i * 47; } }; class Y : public X { int i; // Different from X's i public: Y() { i = 0; } int change() { i = permute(); // Different name call return i; } void set(int ii) { i = ii; X::set(ii); // Same-name function call } }; cout << "sizeof(X) = " << sizeof(X) << endl; cout << "sizeof(Y) = "

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  • C# Custom user settings class not saving

    - by Zenox
    I have the following class: [Serializable] [XmlRoot ( ElementName = "TextData", IsNullable = false)] public class TextData { private System.Drawing.Font fontColor; [XmlAttribute ( AttributeName = "Font" )] public System.Drawing.Font Font { get; set; } [XmlAttribute ( AttributeName = "FontColor" )] public System.Drawing.Color FontColor { get; set; } [XmlAttribute ( AttributeName = "Text" )] public string Text { get; set; } public TextData ( ) { } // End of TextData } // End of TextData And Im attempting to save it with the following code: // Create our font dialog FontDialog fontDialog = new FontDialog ( ); fontDialog.ShowColor = true; // Display the dialog and check for an ok if ( DialogResult.OK == fontDialog.ShowDialog ( ) ) { // Save our changes for the font settings if ( null == Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData ) { Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData = new TextData ( ); } Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData.Font = fontDialog.Font; Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData.FontColor = fontDialog.Color; Properties.Settings.Default.Save ( ); } Everytime I load the the application, the Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData is still null. Saving does not seem to take effect. I read on another post that the class must be public and it is. Any ideas why this would not be working properly?

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  • Strange lazy load problem

    - by JooLio
    public class QuickQuoteTemplate { ... public virtual IList<QuickQuoteTemplateItem> InnerItems { get; set; } ... } public class QuickQuoteTemplateItem { ... public virtual IList<QuickQuoteTemplateItem> InnerItems { get; set; } ... } <class name="QuickQuoteTemplate" table="SA_QUICK_QUOTE_TEMPLATE"> ... <bag name="InnerItems" lazy="false" inverse="true" cascade="delete" > <key column="PARENT_QQ_TEMPLATE_ID" ></key> <one-to-many class="QuickQuoteTemplateItem" /> </bag> ... </class> <class name="QuickQuoteTemplateItem" table="SA_QUICK_QUOTE_TEMPLATE_ITEMS"> ... <bag name="InnerItems" lazy="false" inverse="false" cascade="delete"> <key column="PARENT_ITEM_ID" /> <one-to-many class="QuickQuoteTemplateItem" /> </bag> ... </class> InnerItems collections is set as no lazy, but after disposing the ISession instance, quickQuote.InnerItems is crying "failed to lazily initialize a collection, no session or session was closed". I've even tried to call InnerItems before the session is closed by myself. It successfully retrieves, but after disposing of the session it becomes not initialized.

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  • PHP cache header override

    - by Soyo
    I've been through over 100 answers here, lots to try, NOTHING working?? Have a PHP based site. I need caching OFF for all .php files EXCEPT A SELECT FEW. So, in .htaccess, I have the following: ExpiresActive On # Eliminate caching for certain dynamic files <FilesMatch "\.(php|cgi|pl)$"> ExpiresDefault A0 Header set Cache-Control "no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate, max-age=0, proxy-revalidate, no-transform" Header set Pragma "no-cache" </FilesMatch> Using Firebug, I see the following: Cache-Control no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate, max-age=0, proxy-revalidate, no-transform Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type text/html Date Sun, 02 Sep 2012 19:22:27 GMT Expires Sun, 02 Sep 2012 19:22:27 GMT Keep-Alive timeout=3, max=100 Pragma no-cache Server Apache Transfer-Encoding chunked X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.17 Hey, Looks great! BUT, I have a couple .php pages I need some very short caching on. I thought the simple answer was having this added to the very top of each php page in which I want caching enabled: <?php header("Cache-Control: max-age=360"); ?> Nope. Then I tried various versions of the above. Nope. Then I tried meta http-equiv variations. Nope. Then I tried variations of the .htaccess code along with the above variations, such as limiting it to: # Eliminate caching for certain dynamic files <FilesMatch "\.(php|cgi|pl)$"> Header set Cache-Control "no-cache, max-age=0" </FilesMatch> Nope. It seems nothing I do will allow a single .php to be cache enabled with the .htaccess code in place, short of removing the statements from the .htaccess file altogether. Where am I going wrong? What do I have to do to get individual php pages to be cacheable while the rest remain off?? Thank you for any thoughts.

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  • Header redirect and Session start() generating errors

    - by RPK
    I am using following code. I get errors: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /home/public_html/mc/cpanel/Source/verifylogin.php:11) Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cookie - headers already sent by (output started at /home/public_html/mv/cpanel/Source/verifylogin.php:11) Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at /home/public_html/mv/cpanel/Source/verifylogin.php:11) <?php error_reporting(E_ALL^ E_NOTICE); ob_start(); require("../Lib/dbaccess.php"); $inQuery = "SELECT mhuserid, mhusername FROM cpanelusers WHERE mhusername = '". $_POST['UserName'] ."' AND mhpassword = '". hash('sha512', $_POST['Password']) ."'"; try { $Result = dbaccess::GetRows($inQuery); echo $Result; $NumRows = mysql_num_rows($Result); if ($NumRows > 0) { header("Location: http://www.example.com/cpanel/mainwindow.php"); session_start(); } else { header("Location: http://www.example.com/cpanel/"); echo "Last login attempt failed."; exit; } } catch(exception $e) { } ob_clean(); ?>

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  • Flash Builder 4 "includeIn" property causing design view error

    - by Chris
    I am creating a custom TextInput component that will define an "error" state. I have extended the TextInput class to change the state to "error" if the errorString property's length is greater than 0. In the skin class, I have defined an "error" state, and added some logic to detect the size and position of the error icon. However, if I have this code at the same time I use the "includeIn" property in the bitmap image tag, I get a design view error. If I either A) Only include that code with no "includeIn" property set, it works or B) dont include the code to set the icon size and position and only use the "includeIn" property, it works. Any ideas what could be causing the design view problem when I use both the "includeIn" property and the icon size/position code at the same time? TextInput Class: package classes { import spark.components.TextInput; public class TextInput extends spark.components.TextInput { [SkinState("error")]; public function TextInput() { super(); } override public function set errorString( value:String ):void { super.errorString = value; invalidateSkinState(); } override protected function getCurrentSkinState():String { if (errorString.length>0) { return "error"; } return super.getCurrentSkinState(); } } } TextInput Skin File: override protected function updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth:Number, unscaledHeight:Number):void { //THIS IS THE CODE THAT SEEMS TO BE CAUSING THE PROBLEM if(getStyle("iconSize") == "large") { errorIcon.right = -12; errorIcon.source = new errorIconLg(); } else { errorIcon.right = -5; errorIcon.source = new errorIconSm(); } super.updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth, unscaledHeight); } </fx:Script> <s:states> <s:State name="normal"/> <s:State name="disabled"/> <s:State name="error"/> </s:states> //If I remove the problem code above or if I take out the includeIn //property here, it works <s:BitmapImage id="errorIcon" verticalCenter="0" includeIn="error" /> </s:SparkSkin>

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  • Facebook API - Detect if session is active OR NOT active

    - by Tom Doe
    I'm sure I'm simply overlooking something in the Facebook API docs. Basically, after I've loaded the FB Graph, I need to know if the session is active... I cannot simply assume they're logged out and simply re-render if they're logged in once the 'auth.statusChange' event is triggered. I need to know right off the bat. Below is the code that I've used. Most importantly the FB.getLoginStatus/getAuthResponse/getAccessToken don't work like I'd expect; essentially where it indicates, when invoked, whether they're logged in or out. (function(d) { // Create fb-root var fb_root = document.createElement('div'); fb_root.id = "fb-root"; document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild( fb_root ); // Load FB Async var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk', ref = d.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; ref.parentNode.insertBefore(js, ref); // App config-data var config = { appId : XXXX, cookie: true, status: true, frictionlessRequests: true }; window.fbAsyncInit = function() { // This won't work. // I can't assume they're logged out and rely on this to tell me they're logged in. FB.Event.subscribe('auth.statusChange', function(response) {}); // Init FB.init(config); // These do not inidicate if the user is logged out :( FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { }); FB.getAuthResponse(function(response) { }); FB.getAccessToken(function(response) { }); }; }(document)); Any help is much appreciated. :)

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  • How can I get a default value in some instances but not others?

    - by Connor Wagner
    I am making an iPhone app and want to use an 'if' statement and a boolean to set default values in some instances but not others... is this possible? Are there alternative options if it is not possible? In the MainViewController.m I have: @interface MainViewController (){ BOOL moveOver; } [...] - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; _label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%i", computerSpeed]; } } [...] - (void)flipsideViewControllerDidFinish:(FlipsideViewController *)controller { [self dismissViewControllerAnimated:YES completion:nil]; moveOver = true; } The problem that it is redefined when the ViewDidLoad runs... I need a statement that will not redefine when the ViewDidLoad runs. I have something that I feel like is much closer to working... In the ViewDidLoad I have: if (playToInt != 10 || computerMoveSpeed != 3) { moveOver = TRUE; } which connects to my created method, gameLoop. It has if (moveOver == false) { computerMoveSpeed = 3; playToInt = 10; } I have tried putting the code in the gameLoop into the ViewDidLoad, but it had the same effect. When moveOver was false, the computerMoveSpeed and the playToInt were both seemingly 0. I have two UITextFields and typed 10 and 3 in them... does this not set it to the default? It seems to set the default to 0 for both, how do I change this? THIS IS A DIFFERENT ISSUE THAN THE THREE BOOLEAN VALUES QUESTION

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  • Flex Setting form height dynamically

    - by Daryl
    I'm not sure if this is possible, is there a way to get the <mx:Form> to set its own height based on the position of an element within it? For example something like this: <mx:Form height="{submitBtn.y + submitBtn.height}"> <mx:FormItem>... </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem>... </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem>... </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem> <s:Button id="submitBtn" label="Submit" /> </mx:FormItem> </mx:Form> where the form height is dynamically set based on submitBtn's y position and its height. I tried using Alert.show to show these values and turned out submitBtn.y = 0 and submitBtn.height = 21. height sounds reasonable, but I know the y of submitBtn can't be 0 since it's below several other Is it possible to set the form height dynamically?

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  • iPad Simulator Multitouch Cursors Don't Show Up When Window is Scaled 100%

    - by Joel
    I have the iPhone SDK 3.2 installed and been working on an iPad application. However, the iPad simulator doesn't show the two gray multitouch "cursors" when I hold down the ALT/OPTION button and move the mouse around. This only happens when the simulator scale size is set to 100%. If I have it set to 50% they show up. When I have it set to be an iPhone, they show up. It's only iPad 100% size. The multitouch still works fine, I just can't see where I'm "touching". I've trying closing the simulator completely, changing from the iPhone and back again. Resizing. All sorts of stuff. Has anyone else seen this problem? Anyone have any suggestions for fixing this? I've googled and searched SOF for anyone else having this problem, but I kinda wonder if it's just me. If it makes a difference I have a Mac Mini 1.83 GHz Intel Core 2 Duo with Snow Leopard 10.6.3 installed. Thanks.

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  • More than one unique key for HashMap problem (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    This question is a continuation of this thread: In short: To solve my problem, I want to use Map<Set<String>, String>. However, after I sort my data entries in Excel, remove the unnecessary parameters, and the following came out: flow content ==> content content flow content ==> content depth distance flow content ==> content depth within flow content ==> content depth within distance flow content ==> content within flow content ==> content within distance I have more than one unique key for the hashmap if that is the case. How do I go around this... anyone have any idea? I was thinking of maybe Map<Set <String>, List <String>> so that I can do something like: Set <flow content>, List <'content content','content depth distance','content depth within ', ..., 'content within distance'> But because I am parsing the entries line by line I can't figure out the way how to store values of the same repeated keys (flow content) into the same list and add it to the map. Anyone have a rough logic on how can this be done in Java? Thanks in advance.

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  • need help understanding a function.

    - by Adam McC
    i had previously asked for help writing/improving a function that i need to calculate a premium based on differing values for each month. the premium is split in to 12 months and earned on a percentage for each month. so if the policy start in march and we are in jan we will have earned 10 months worth. so i need to add up the monthly earning to give us the total earned. wach company wil have differeing earnings values for each month. my original code is Here. its ghastly and slow hence the request for help. and i was presented with the following code. the code works but returns stupendously large figures. begin set @begin=datepart(month,@outdate) set @end=datepart(month,@experiencedate) ;with a as ( select *, case calmonth when 'january' then 1 when 'february' then 2 when 'march' then 3 when 'april' then 4 when 'may' then 5 when 'june' then 6 when 'july' then 7 when 'august' then 8 when 'september' then 9 when 'october' then 10 when 'november' then 11 when 'december' then 12 end as Mnth from tblearningpatterns where clientname=@client and earningpattern=@pattern ) , b as ( select earningvalue, Mnth, earningvalue as Ttl from a where Mnth=@begin union all select a.earningvalue, a.Mnth, cast(b.Ttl*a.earningvalue as decimal(15,3)) as Ttl from a inner join b on a.Mnth=b.Mnth+1 where a.Mnth<=@end ) select @earningvalue= Ttl from b inner join ( select max(Mnth) as Mnth from b ) c on b.Mnth=c.Mnth option(maxrecursion 12) SET @earnedpremium = @earningvalue*@premium end can someone please help me out?

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  • CouchDB- basic grouping question

    - by dnolen
    I have a user document which has a group field. This field is an array of group ids. I would like to write a view that returns (groupid as key) - (array of user docs as val). This mapping operation seems like a good beginning. function(doc) { var type = doc.type; var groups = doc.groups; if(type == "user" && groups.length > 0) { for(var i = 0; i < groups.length; i++) { emit(groups[i], doc); } } } But there's obviously something very wrong with my attempt at a reduce: function(key, values, rereduce) { var set = []; var seen = []; for(var i = 0; i < values.length; i++) { var _id = values[i]._id; if(seen.indexOf(_id) == -1) { seen.push(_id); set.push(values[i]); } } return set; } I'm running CouchDB 0.10dev. Any help appreciated.

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