Search Results

Search found 15665 results on 627 pages for 'inno setup'.

Page 542/627 | < Previous Page | 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549  | Next Page >

  • Sourcing a shell script, while running with sudo

    - by WishCow
    I would like to write a shell script that sets up a mercurial repository, and allow all users in the group "developers" to execute this script. The script is owned by the user "hg", and works fine when ran. The problem comes when I try to run it with another user, using sudo, the execution halts with a "permission denied" error, when it tries to source another file. The script file in question: create_repo.sh #!/bin/bash source colors.sh REPOROOT="/srv/repository/mercurial/" ... rest of the script .... Permissions of create_repo.sh, and colors.sh: -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 551 2011-01-07 10:20 colors.sh -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 1137 2011-01-07 11:08 create_repo.sh Sudoers setup: %developer ALL = (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh What I'm trying to run: user@nebu:~$ id uid=1000(user) gid=1000(user) groups=4(adm),20(dialout),24(cdrom),46(plugdev),105(lpadmin),113(sambashare),116(admin),1000(user),1001(developer) user@nebu:~$ sudo -l Matching Defaults entries for user on this host: env_reset User user may run the following commands on this host: (ALL) ALL (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh: line 3: colors.sh: Permission denied So the script is executed, but halts when it tries to include the other script. I have also tried using: user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /bin/bash /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh Which gives the same result. What is the correct way to include another shell script, if the script may be ran with a different user, through sudo?

    Read the article

  • delegate method throws runtime "unrecognized selector" error when switching back from one UIViewCont

    - by chimgrrl
    Ok, I've spend like half day on this and it's killing me. So I've got 3 view controllers transitioning from one another, something like this: I call the UploadDecisionViewController after destroying the previous View Controller: [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; [self performSelector:@selector(showUDModalView) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5]; In my showUDModalView method: - (void)showUDModalView { UploadDecisionViewController *udcontroller = [[UploadDecisionViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"UploadDecisionViewController" bundle:nil]; udcontroller.delegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:udcontroller animated:YES]; [udcontroller release]; } The UploadDecisionViewController shows up no problem. The UploadDecisionViewController has a button, which when clicked I want it to transition to the FileUploadViewController. I setup a UploadDecisionDelegate, threw a method in there to handle the button clicking: Inside UploadDecisionDelegate protocol (UploadDecisionViewController.h): @protocol UploadDecisionDelegate //let UOnliveViewController know that a button was selected - (void)UploadDecisionViewController:(UploadDecisionViewController *)controller madeChoice:(NSString *)whichDirection; @end Then inside my IBAction method when the button is clicked, I have this: - (IBAction)decisionSelected:(id)sender { [delegate UploadDecisionViewController:self madeChoice:@"upload"];//crashing at this line } When I run this, at this line above it is throwing a runtime exception: 2010-06-09 12:48:59.561 UOnlive[4735:207] *** -[UIView UploadDecisionViewController:madeChoice:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b65420 2010-06-09 12:48:59.562 UOnlive[4735:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView UploadDecisionViewController:madeChoice:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b65420' 2010-06-09 12:48:59.563 UOnlive[4735:207] Stack: ( 33502299, 2495698185, 33884219, 33453686, 33306306, 20618, 2982917, 3390286, 3399023, 3394235, 3087839, 2996168, 3022945, 40156505, 33287040, 33283144, 40150549, 40150746, 3026863, 11700, 11554 ) Let me throw in the delegate method implemented also: - (void)UploadDecisionViewController:(UploadDecisionViewController *)controller madeChoice:(NSString *)whichDirection { NSLog(@"it got to here 245"); [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; if (yesOrNo) { //open up the FileUploadViewController and proceed to upload [self performSelector:@selector(showFUModalView) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5]; } } Can someone tell me what the heck is going on? Thanks a bunch for the help...

    Read the article

  • RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

    - by epitka
    I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

    Read the article

  • How to disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5 (asp net mvc3)

    - by troebr
    I'm struggling with my IIS setup regarding caching, here's a brief description of my problem: I'm making a site for mobile and non-mobile, sharing the same controllers. IE: mysite/page will serve either mysite/page.cshtml, or mysite/M/page.cshtml, depending on the device. Here's the catch, it worked fine with my local and integration environment (cassiini and iis 6), but on another machine (2008r2/iis 7.5), apparently there is an aggressive server-side caching policy: If I access the website from a desktop machine, I have the correct pages (desktop version) If now I use my mobile phone to access the site, I will have the desktop version, (which implies a server-side cache, my phone is not using the same network). On the contrary, if I were to restart the server and access the site using my phone first, then I will get the mobile version on my desktop (only for the pages I already visited of course). I tried 2 solutions so far: Disabling OutputCache from my Web.config: <httpModules> [..] <remove name="OutputCache" /> </httpModules> And unchecking "Enable output cache" in "Output Caching" for my site in IIS. What's bugging me is that I do not have this problem with my other server (iis 6.0), although caching is enabled on this one, which leads me to think it is related to iis 7 caching addition. My question is simple: how does one disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5? Thanks in advance for your iis lights!

    Read the article

  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

    Read the article

  • Django: Serving a Download in a Generic View

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I want to serve a couple of mp3s from a folder in /home/username/music. I didn't think this would be such a big deal but I am a bit confused on how to do it using generic views and my own url. urls.py url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), The example I am following is found in the generic view section of the Django documentations: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/generic-views/ (It's all the way at the bottom) I am not 100% sure on how to tailor this to my needs. Here is my views.py def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) response = object_detail( request, object_id = song_id, mimetype = "audio/mpeg", ) response['Content-Disposition'= "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response I am actually at a loss of how to convey that I want it to spit out my mp3 instead of what it does now which is to output a .mp3 with all of the current pages html contained. Should my template be my mp3? Do I need to setup apache to serve the files or is Django able to retrieve the mp3 from the filesystem(proper permissions of course) and serve that? If it do need to configure Apache how do I tell Django that? Thanks in advanced. These files are all on the HD so I don't need to "generate" anything on the spot and I'd like to prevent revealing the location of these files if at all possible. A simple /song/1234/download would be fantastic.

    Read the article

  • redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

    - by Jim Sp
    I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

    Read the article

  • Global javascript variable not accessible in jquery change event

    - by Dan
    I have to be missing something simple, but I'm really not sure what. I'm not a JS veteran, so this may be an easy answer - sure hope so :). I have a button that, when clicked, gets JSON data. When a drop-down is changed, I check to see if there is data, if there is, I want to clear it out as the drop-down indicates what data to retrieve when the button is clicked The Code: var selected, $locDialog; var locations = []; $(function() { // Save the selected Name selected = $("#selected option:selected").val(); // Setup Dialog for Locations $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false }); // If user changes the selected // 1. Prompt for confirmation // 2. If users confirms, clear data $('#selected').change(function() { if (locations) { var confirmed = confirm("Oh Rly?"); if (confirmed) { // Clear data var locations; } } }); // When user clicks "Location" Button.. $('.loc-select button').click(function() { if (!locations) { $.getJSON("/Controller/JSONAction", { selectedId: selected, pageNum: 1, pageSize: 100 }, function(data) { locations = data; $.each(locations, function(index, loc) { var $tr = $('<tr/>') .append($('<td/>') .append('<input type="checkbox" name="TEST-'+index+'" value="'+loc.Id+'"/>')) .append('<td>' + loc.Name + '</td>'); $("#location-dialog table tbody").append($tr); }); }); } $locDialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); }); Here's the thing, Inside the .click(...) callback, I can see locations is []. Now, when I am in the .change(...) callback, I see locations is undefined. Any help/insight, as always, is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Where do objects merge/join data in a 3-tier model?

    - by BerggreenDK
    Its probarbly a simple 3-tier problem. I just want to make sure we use the best practice for this and I am not that familiary with the structures yet. We have the 3 tiers: GUI: ASP.NET for Presentation-layer (first platform) BAL: Business-layer will be handling the logic on a webserver in C#, so we both can use it for webforms/MVC + webservices DAL: LINQ to SQL in the Data-layer, returning BusinessObjects not LINQ. DB: The SQL will be Microsoft SQL-server/Express (havent decided yet). Lets think of setup where we have a database of [Persons]. They can all have multiple [Address]es and we have a complete list of all [PostalCode] and corresponding citynames etc. The deal is that we have joined a lot of details from other tables. {Relations}/[tables] [Person]:1 --- N:{PersonAddress}:M --- 1:[Address] [Address]:N --- 1:[PostalCode] Now we want to build the DAL for Person. How should the PersonBO look and when does the joins occure? Is it a business-layer problem to fetch all citynames and possible addressses pr. Person? or should the DAL complete all this before returning the PersonBO to the BAL ? Class PersonBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public List<AddressBO> {get;set;} // Question #1 } // Q1: do we retrieve the objects before returning the PersonBO and should it be an Array instead? or is this totally wrong for n-tier/3-tier?? Class AddressBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string StreetName {get;set;} public int PostalCode {get;set;} // Question #2 } // Q2: do we make the lookup or just leave the PostalCode for later lookup? Can anyone explain in what order to pull which objects? Constructive criticism is very welcome. :o)

    Read the article

  • My UITableView has duplicated rows

    - by Mark
    Im not sure why, but my UITableView, which isnt anything fancy, is showing repeating rows when it shouldnt be. It seems that the rows that get added when the user scrolls (i.e. the rows that are off the screen to start with) are getting the data for the wrong row index. Its almost like when a new cell is de-queued, it's using a cell that 'was' used, but wasn't cleaned up correctly. Do you need to 'clean up' cells that are de-queue so that new cells dont use cells that are already created? my code is as below: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CustomCellIdentifier = @"CustomCellIdentifier"; MyDayCell *cell = (MyDayCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: CustomCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"MyDayCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id oneObject in nib) if ([oneObject isKindOfClass:[MyDayCell class]]) cell = (MyDayCell *)oneObject; } NSUInteger section = [indexPath section]; NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; NSArray *thisSectionItems = (NSArray*)[self.listData objectForKey: [[NSNumber alloc] initWithInt:section]]; MyDayDetails *rowData = [thisSectionItems objectAtIndex:row]; //setup my cells data here... return cell; } Is there anything wrong with this code? has anyone seen anything like this before?

    Read the article

  • Why are Facebook Likes Insisting on using Wrong Product Image...?

    - by Joan Kent
    Firstly, I'm not a web developer so please be patient. I have read the other posts but I think i have everything covered. My website http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk includes the like button on the product pages. However, I've found that certain product pages are using the incorrect image when a user likes the page. For example - http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pots/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund I think this may have been down to an original incorrect setup which is now corrected. However, the problem remains... The only thing I have to go on :- if i use the facebook url linter (developers.facebook.com/tools/debug) on the above product page, I receive the following error :- Object at URL 'http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund' of type '213689662010141:product' is invalid because the domain 'www.joaniesgifts.co.uk' is not allowed for the application id '213689662010141' which owns the specified object type. If you are the owner of this application, you can verify your configured 'Site Domain' at developers.facebook.com/apps/213689662010141. (I have verified my site's domain) Everything else appears fine except it is also showing the wrong image!! However, under Raw Open Graph Document Information it has the correct link! If I then click graph api - graph.facebook.com/10150450766583352 it again shows the wrong image was linked! I've no idea what else to do - can you help me? Kind Regards, Joan PS Graph API shows the incorrect image after a scrape only minutes ago { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund", "type": "website", "title": "Terramundi Money Pot - Holiday Fund", "image": [ { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/index.php?route=product\u00252Fproduct\u00252Fcaptcha" } ], "updated_time": "2011-11-11T18:54:38+0000", "id": "10150450766583352" }

    Read the article

  • How to maintain long-lived python projects w.r.t. dependencies and python versions ?

    - by Gyom
    short version: how can I get rid of the multiple-versions-of-python nightmare ? long version: over the years, I've used several versions of python, and what is worse, several extensions to python (e.g. pygame, pylab, wxPython...). Each time it was on a different setup, with different OSes, sometimes different architectures (like my old PowerPC mac). Nowadays I'm using a mac (OSX 10.6 on x86-64) and it's a dependency nightmare each time I want to revive script older than a few months. Python itself already comes in three different flavours in /usr/bin (2.5, 2.6, 3.1), but I had to install 2.4 from macports for pygame, something else (cannot remember what) forced me to install all three others from macports as well, so at the end of the day I'm the happy owner of seven (!) instances of python on my system. But that's not the problem, the problem is, none of them has the right (i.e. same set of) libraries installed, some of them are 32bits, some 64bits, and now I'm pretty much lost. For example right now I'm trying to run a three-year-old script (not written by me) which used to use matplotlib/numpy to draw a real-time plot within a rectangle of a wxwidgets window. But I'm failing miserably: py26-wxpython from macports won't install, stock python has wxwidgets included but also has some conflict between 32 bits and 64 bits, and it doesn't have numpy... what a mess ! Obviously, I'm doing things the wrong way. How do you usally cope with all that chaos ?

    Read the article

  • Presenting collection of structures of strings in grid or similar in WPF - Example? Ideas?

    - by Andrew
    Hi, I have a collection of structures. The structure is just some strings. Example public struct ReportLine { public string Name; public string Address; public string Phone; ...// about 10 other strings } I can't change this part. What I want to do is display it in a simple grid or simlar in WPF. My only requirements are: a) need column headers b) rows must alternate in color c) columns big enough to hold largest datum (which is not know until run time) Can someone point me to an example to get me started? Is the GridView the way to go? Or DataGrid? Or perhaps just the grid? I have the book Pro WPF in C# 2008 and it covers binding ListBox's to collections, but the collections always seem to be collections of one field (ex. a collection of 40 names). Here I have a collection (an array in fact) of a structure. How do I setup the databinding? As you can see, I'm new to this and probably would most benefit from a reference to an article. I've found articles covering collections of 1 field, but no examples covering binding to an array of structures. Also, my intitial research indicates c) can't be easily done, if you demand that the column is big enough for all the data in that column, not just the visible data. Thanks, dave

    Read the article

  • Can I get the item type from a BindingSource?

    - by Preston
    I would like to get the Type of item that a BindingSource is hooked up to or configured for. The BindingSource.DataSource property can be set to an object, list, or type. If it is a Type, it obviously does not have an bound item yet, but I would still like to get the Type. For a List, I need the item Type, not the list type. There is a method BindingSource.GetItemProperties, that accomplishes most of what I need. It gets the PropertyDescriptors for the Type, list item, or object specified by the DataSource and DataMember. The reason I ask, is that I have some components that I would like to re-use, but they are currently setup to work off of an item Type. The Type is mainly used to get PropertyInfos and then build a UI, but PropertyInfo and PropertyDescriptor is not exactly the same, so it is not immediately apparent that they can be reworked to use a PropertyDescriptor collection instead. Then there is cascading refactoring of everything already using these components and that adds up to a lot of work that I would rather not do. I've looked through the API docs for for a good way to do this, but so far I have not had any luck. Am I missing something or is this just something I can not or should not be doing?

    Read the article

  • Static Variables somehow maintaining state?

    - by gfoley
    I am working on an existing project, setup by another coder. I'm having some trouble understanding how state is being maintained between pages. There is a Class library which has some helper objects. Mostly these objects are just used for there static methods and rarely instantiated or inherited. This is an example class I'm testing with. public sealed class Application { public static string Test; } Now when i run something like the following in the base class of my page, I would expect the result to be "1: 2:Test" all the time (note that "1" is empty), but strangly its only this way the first time it is run. Then every time afterwards its "1:Test 2:Test". Somehow its maintaining the state of the static variable between pages and being refreshed?? Response.Write("1:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); SharedLibrary.Application.Test = "Test"; Response.Write(" 2:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); I need to create more classes like this, but want to understand why this is occurring in the first place. Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • UIButton stops responding after going into landscape mode - iPhone

    - by casey
    I've been trying different things the last few days and I've run out of ideas so I'm looking for help. The situation is that I'm displaying my in-app purchasing store view after the user clicks a button. Button pressed, view is displayed. The store shows fine. Inside this view, I have a few labels with descriptions of the product, and then below them I have the price and a Buy button which triggers the in-app purchase. Problem is when I rotate the phone to landscape, that Buy button no longer responds, weird. Works fine in portrait. The behavior in landscape when the I touch the button is nothing. It doesn't appear to press down and be selected or anything, just not responding to my touches. But then when I rotate back to portrait or even upside down portrait, it works fine. Here is the rough structure of my view in IB, all the rotating and layout is setup in IB. I set the autoresizing in IB so that everything looks ok in landscape and the Buy button expands horizontally a little bit. The only layout manipulation I do in my code is after loading, I set the content size of the scroll view. File Owner with view set to the scrollView / scrollView ----/ view --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ uibutton (Buy) After orientation changes I printed out the userInteractionEnabled property of the scrollView and the button, and they were both TRUE at all orientations. Ideas? Or maybe some other way of displaying a buy button that won't be nonfunctional? I've already begun a branch that plays with a toolbar and placing the buy button there, but I can't seem to get the bar to stay in place while scrolling.

    Read the article

  • how to allow unamed user in svn authz file?

    - by dtrosset
    I have a subversion server running with apache. It authenticates users using LDAP in apache configuration and uses SVN authorizations to limit user access to certain repositories. This works perfectly. Apache DAV svn SVNParentPath /srv/svn SVNListParentPath Off SVNPathAuthz Off AuthType Basic AuthName "Subversion Repository" AuthBasicProvider ldap AuthLDAPBindDN # private stuff AuthLDAPBindPassword # private stuff AuthLDAPURL # private stuff Require valid-user AuthzSVNAccessFile /etc/apache2/dav_svn.authz Subversion [groups] soft = me, and, all, other, developpers Adding anonymous access from one machine Now, I have a service I want to setup (rietveld, for code reviews) that needs to have an anonymous access to the repository. As this is a web service, accesses are always done from the same server. Thus I added apache configuration to allow all accesses from this machine. This did not work until I add an additional line in the authorization file to allow read access to user -. Apache <Limit GET PROPFIND OPTIONS REPORT> Order allow,deny Allow from # private IP address Satisfy Any </Limit> Subversion [Software:/] @soft = rw - = r # <-- This is the added line For instance, before I add this, all users were authenticated, and thus had a name. Now, some accesses are done without a user name! I found this - user name in the apache log files. But does this line equals to * = r that I absolutely do not want to enable, or does it only allows the anonymous unnamed user (that is allowed access only from the rietveld server)?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

    Read the article

  • Problem with circular definition in Scheme

    - by user8472
    I am currently working through SICP using Guile as my primary language for the exercises. I have found a strange behavior while implementing the exercises in chapter 3.5. I have reproduced this behavior using Guile 1.4, Guile 1.8.6 and Guile 1.8.7 on a variety of platforms and am certain it is not specific to my setup. This code works fine (and computes e): (define y (integral (delay dy) 1 0.001)) (define dy (stream-map (lambda (x) x) y)) (stream-ref y 1000) The following code should give an identical result: (define (solve f y0 dt) (define y (integral (delay dy) y0 dt)) (define dy (stream-map f y)) y) (solve (lambda (x) x) 1 0.001) But it yields the error message: standard input:7:14: While evaluating arguments to stream-map in expression (stream-map f y): standard input:7:14: Unbound variable: y ABORT: (unbound-variable) So when embedded in a procedure definition, the (define y ...) does not work, whereas outside the procedure in the global environment at the REPL it works fine. What am I doing wrong here? I can post the auxiliary code (i.e., the definitions of integral, stream-map etc.) if necessary, too. With the exception of the system-dependent code for cons-stream, they are all in the book. My own implementation of cons-stream for Guile is as follows: (define-macro (cons-stream a b) `(cons ,a (delay ,b)))

    Read the article

  • Apache gettext windows does not work/translate

    - by Prashant Kandathil
    I am new to gettext. Here is my setup: /Apache 2.2 PHP 5.3.6 Windows 7/ I have following code in the Apache/htdocs/test/index.php <?php $language = 'de_DE'; $translatefile = 'messages'; setlocale(LC_ALL, $language); putenv("LANG=".$language); bindtextdomain($translatefile, 'C:/locale'); textdomain($translatefile); echo gettext("Hello World!"); ?> I used PoEdit to generate the necessary translations under locale/de_DE/LC_MESSAGES/messsages.po & messages.mo The charset I used was UTF-8 When I visit http://localhost/test, the result is Hello World! when it should be Hall Welt! As a test, I opened command prompt and navigated to the test folder. Then I typed in php index.php The result that appeared in the console was Hall Welt! I am not sure why it is not working with Apache.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET web form Routing issue via UNC Path

    - by Slash
    I create a IIS 7.0 website via UNC path to load .aspx to dynamic compile files and runs. however, it's running perfect. I always use IIS URL Rewrite module 2 to rewrite my site URL n' its perfect, too. Today, I wanna use System.Web.Routing to implement url rewrite but I encountered difficulties... When I wrote code in Global.asax: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("TEST", "AAA/{prop}", "~/BBB/CCC.aspx"); And it just CANNOT reDirect to /BBB/CCC.aspx When I type the URL(like: xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx) in browser directly, it runs normally that I want. (so it proof CCC.aspx is in right path.) thus, I copy all of the code and open VS2010 running with IIS 7.5 Express locally, it works perfect! e.g: in browser URL I type xx.xx.xx.xx/AAA/1234, it will turn to page xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx (Works perfect!) Why??? help me plz. thanks. Update: I think I should consider not UNC path to make it error! when I move all code to physical disk and setup IIS 7.0 to monitor this Folder, it still not works! But the same code run in VS2010 + IIS 7.5 Express it works!? so strange!

    Read the article

  • Rails ActionCaching with Memcached fragment hit but action gets called anyway

    - by baldtrol
    Hi stackoverflow. I'm running into something strange. I'm using memcached with a caches_action setup. I'm doing this in 4 different controllers. In two of them, it works flawlessly (so far), though admittedly those two controllers are less complicated than the two in which it doesn't seem to work. I'm doing something like this: caches_action :index, :expires_in => 6.hours, :cache_path => Proc.new {|controller| controller.send(:generate_cache_path) }, :layout => false, :if => Proc.new { |c| c.request.format.js? } The intention behind the above is to cache some results that are dependent on the params. my :generate_cache_path method just takes into account some params and session vars and creates a unique key for memcached. I can see in memcached -vv that this is working. What's weird is that I get my request from the rails app for a given key, and I see memcached (with -vv) get the request and send back the response. But then my action runs anyway, and a new value is then set for the same key, even when all the same params are given. I can watch it happen. In the controllers where everything is working, the request is made for the fragment, it gets it, and the action in the controller is halted, and the fragment is passed back. These lines come from the exact same request: Cached fragment hit: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js And then: Cached fragment miss: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js I don't know what to make of it, or if I'm doing something stupid. Any help or ideas where I could start looking for trouble would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Having trouble hiding keyboard using invisible button which sits on top of uiscrollview

    - by phil
    I have 3 items in play... 1) UIView sits at the base of the hierarchy and contains the UIScrollview. 2) UIScrollview that is presenting a lengthy user form. 3) An invisible button on the UIScrollview that I'm using to provide "hide the keyboard" features. Notice in the code below that I'm registering to be notified when the keyboard is going to appear and again when it's going to disappear. These are working great. My problem is seemingly one of "layers". See below where I insert the button into the view atIndex:0. This causes the button to be activated and "stuffed" behind the scrollview so that when you click on it, the scrollview grabs the touch and the button is unaware. There is no way to "reach" the button and suppress the keyboard. However, if I insert atIndex:1, the button gets super imposed on top of the text entry fields and so any touch at all is acted upon by the button, which immediately suppresses the keyboard and then disappears. How do I insert the button on top of the UIScrollview but behind the UITextfields that sit there? other logistics: I have a -(void) hidekeyboard function that I have setup with the UIButtion as an IBAction(). And I have the UIButton connected to "files owner" via a ctrl-drag/drop. (Do I need both of those conventions?) This code in ViewDidLoad()... [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserverForName:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil queue:nil usingBlock:^(NSNotification *notification){ [self.view insertSubview:self.keyboardDismissalButton atIndex:0]; }];

    Read the article

  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549  | Next Page >