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  • Updating section in ConfigParser (or an alternative)

    - by lyrae
    I am making a plugin for another program and so I am trying to make thing as lightweight as possible. What i need to do is be able to update the name of a section in the ConfigParser's config file. [project name] author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 I then have text fields where user can edit project's name, author, email and year. I don't think changing [project name] is possible, so I have thought of two solutions: 1 -Have my config file like this: [0] projectname: foobar author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 that way i can change project's name just like another option. But the problem is, i would need the section # to be auto incremented. And to do this i would have to get every section, sort of, and figure out what the next number should be. The other option would be to delete the entire section and its value, and re-add it with the updated values which would require a little more work as well, such as passing a variable that holds the old section name through functions, etc, but i wouldn't mind if it's faster. Which of the two is best? or is there another way? I am willing to go with the fastest/lightweight solution possible, doesn't matter if it requires more work or not.

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  • Communication between lexer and parser

    - by FredOverflow
    Every time I write a simple lexer and parser, I stumble upon the same question: how should the lexer and the parser communicate? I see four different approaches: The lexer eagerly converts the entire input string into a vector of tokens. Once this is done, the vector is fed to the parser which converts it into a tree. This is by far the simplest solution to implement, but since all tokens are stored in memory, it wastes a lot of space. Each time the lexer finds a token, it invokes a function on the parser, passing the current token. In my experience, this only works if the parser can naturally be implemented as a state machine like LALR parsers. By contrast, I don't think it would work at all for recursive descent parsers. Each time the parser needs a token, it asks the lexer for the next one. This is very easy to implement in C# due to the yield keyword, but quite hard in C++ which doesn't have it. The lexer and parser communicate through an asynchronous queue. This is commonly known under the title "producer/consumer", and it should simplify the communication between the lexer and the parser a lot. Does it also outperform the other solutions on multicores? Or is lexing too trivial? Is my analysis sound? Are there other approaches I haven't thought of? What is used in real-world compilers? It would be really cool if compiler writers like Eric Lippert could shed some light on this issue.

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  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

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  • SugarmCRM REST API always returns "null"

    - by TuomasR
    I'm trying to test out the SugarCRM REST API, running latest version of CE (6.0.1). It seems that whenever I do a query, the API returns "null", nothing else. If I omit the parameters, then the API returns the API description (which the documentation says it should). I'm trying to perform a login, passing as parameter the method (login), input_type and response_type (json) and rest_data (JSON encoded parameters). The following code does the query: $api_target = "http://example.com/sugarcrm/service/v2/rest.php"; $parameters = json_encode(array( "user_auth" => array( "user_name" => "admin", "password" => md5("adminpassword"), ), "application_name" => "Test", "name_value_list" => array(), )); $postData = http_build_query(array( "method" => "login", "input_type" => "json", "response_type" => "json", "rest_data" => $parameters )); echo $parameters . "\n"; echo $postData . "\n"; echo file_get_contents($api_target, false, stream_context_create(array( "http" => array( "method" => "POST", "header" => "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n", "content" => $postData ) ))) . "\n"; I've tried different variations of parameters and using username instead of user_name, and all provide the same result, just a response "null" and that's it.

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  • Starting an STA thread, but with parameters to the final function

    - by DRapp
    I'm a bit weak on how some delegates behave, such as passing a method as the parameter to be invoked. While trying to do some NUnit test scripts, I have something that I need to run many test with. Each of these tests requires a GUI created and thus the need for an STA thread. So, I have something like public class MyTest { // the Delegate "ThreadStart" is part of the System.Threading namespace and is defined as // public delegate void ThreadStart(); protected void Start_STA_Thread(ThreadStart whichMethod) { Thread thread = new Thread(whichMethod); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); //Set the thread to STA thread.Start(); thread.Join(); } [Test] public void Test101() { // Since the thread issues an INVOKE of a method, I'm having it call the // corresponding "FromSTAThread" method, such as Start_STA_Thread( Test101FromSTAThread ); } protected void Test101FromSTAThread() { MySTA_RequiredClass oTmp = new MySTA_RequiredClass(); Assert.IsTrue( oTmp.DoSomething() ); } } This part all works fine... Now the next step. I now have a different set of tests that ALSO require an STA thread. However, each "thing" I need to do requires two parameters... both strings (for this case). How do I go about declaring proper delegate so I can pass in the method I need to invoke, AND the two string parameters in one shot... I may have 20+ tests to run with in this pattern and may have future of other similar tests with different parameter counts and types of parameters too. Thanks.

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  • Method having an abstract class as a parameter

    - by Ferhat
    I have an abstract class A, where I have derived the classes B and C. Class A provides an abstract method DoJOB(), which is implemented by both derived classes. There is a class X which has methods inside, which need to call DoJOB(). The class X may not contain any code like B.DoJOB() or C.DoJOB(). Example: public class X { private A foo; public X(A concrete) { foo = concrete; } public FunnyMethod() { foo.DoJOB(); } } While instantiating class X I want to decide which derived class (B or C) must be used. I thought about passing an instance of B or C using the constructor of X. X kewl = new X(new C()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); //calls C.DoJOB() kewl = new X(new B()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); // calls B.DoJOB() My test showed that declaring a method with a parameter A is not working. Am I missing something? How can I implement this correctly? (A is abstract, it cannot be instantiated)

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  • jQuery - Creating a dynamic content loader using $.get()

    - by Kenny Bones
    Hello everybody! (hello dr.Nick) :) So I posted a question yesterday about a content loader plugin for jQuery I thought I'd use, but didn't get it to work. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2469291/jquery-could-use-a-little-help-with-a-content-loader Although it works now, I see some disadvantages to it. It requires heaploads of files where the content is in. Since the code essentially picks up the url in the href link and searches that file for a div called #content What I would really like to do is to collect all of these files into a single file and give each div/container it's unique ID and just pick up the content from those. So i won't need so many separate files laying around. Nick Craver thought I should use $.get()instead since it's got a descent callback. But I'm not that strong in js at all.. And I don't even know what this means. I'm basically used to Visual Basic and passing of arguments, storing in txt files etc. Which is really not suitable for this purpose. So what's the "normal" way of doing things like this? I'm pretty sure I'm not the only one who's thought of this right? I basically want to get content from a single php file that contains alot of divs with unique IDs. And without much hassle, fade out the existing content in my main page, pick up the contents from the other file and fade it into my main page.

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  • XPath: limit scope of result set

    - by Laramie
    Given the XML <a> <c> <b id="1" value="noob"/> </c> <b id="2" value="tube"/> <a> <c> <b id="3" value="foo"/> </c> <b id="4" value="goo"/> <b id="5" value="noob"/> <a> <b id="6" value="near"/> <b id="7" value="bar"/> </a> </a> </a> and the Xpath 1.0 query //b[@id=2]/ancestor::a[1]//b[@value="noob"] is there some way to limit the result set to the <b> elements that are ONLY the children of the immediate <a> element of the start node (//b[@id=2])? For example the Xpath above returns both node ids 1 and 5. The goal is to limit the result to just node id=1 since it is the only @value="noob" element in the same <c> group as our start node (//b[@id=2]). In English, "Starting at a node whose id is equal to 2, find all the elements whose value is "noob" that are descendants of the immediate parent c element without passing through another c element".

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  • Remote connection to SQL Server Express fails

    - by worlds-apart89
    I have two computers that share the same Internet IP address. Using one of the computers, I can remotely connect to a SQL Server database on the other. Here is my connection string: SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=192.168.1.101\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); 192.168.1.101 is the server, SQLEXPRESSNI is the SQL Server instance name, and FirstDB is the name of the database. Now, I have another computer with a different Internet IP address. I want to connect to the server above using the third computer that does not belong to my local area network. I dont have access to that third computer at the moment, so I want to use (if possible) the client computer in LAN again. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=SharedInternetIP\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); Does not work Note that I am a beginner, so I am not quite sure what I am doing even though I know what I want to do. By passing the Internet IP to the SqlConnection object rather than the local IP address, how can I successfully connect to the server computer, using the client computer in the same network? Also note that my ultimate goal is to connect to the server with an external client, but I don't have access to that computer right now. I'd appreciate any help.

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  • Why Does My Vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> Mysteriously Get Cleared?

    - by Eric
    Hello everyone, I am making a program that reads and stores data from Windows EventLog files (.evt) in C++. I am using the calls OpenBackupEventLog(ServerName, FileName) and ReadEventLog(...). Also using this: PEVENTLOGRECORD Anyway, without supplying all of the code, here is the basic idea: 1. I get a handle to the .evt file using OpenBackupEventLog() and passing in a file name. 2. I then use ReadEventLog() to fill up a buffer with an unknown number of EventLog messages. 3. I traverse through the buffer and add each message to a vector 4. I keep filling up buffers (repeat steps 2 and 3) until I reach the end of the file. Here is my code for filling the vector: vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> allRecords; while(_status == ERROR_SUCCESS) { if(!ReadEventLog(...)) CheckStatus(); else FillVectorFromBuffer(allRecords) } // Function FillVectorFromBuffer FillVectorFromBuffer(vector(PEVENTLOGRECORD) &allRecords) { int bytesExamined = 0; PBYTE pRecord = (PBYTE)_lpBuffer; // This is one of the params in ReadEventLog() while(bytesExamined < _pnBytesRead) // Another param from ReadEventLog { PEVENTLOGRECORD currentRecord = (PEVENTLOGRECORD)(pRecord); allRecords.push_back(currentRecord); pRecord += currentRecord->Length; bytesExamined += currentRecord->Length; } } Anyway, whenever I run this, it will get all the EventLogs in the file, and the vector will have everything I want it to. But as soon as this line: if(!ReadEventLog()) gets called and returns true (aka ReadEventLog() returns false), then every field in my vector gets set to zero. The vector will still contain the correct number of elements, it's just that all of the fields in the PEVENTLOGRECORD struct are now zero. Anyone with better debugging experience have any ideas? Thanks.

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  • What to pass parameters to start an workflow through WCF

    - by Rubens Farias
    It's possible to define some start values to an workflow using WorkflowInstance.CreateWorkflow, like this: using(WorkflowRuntime runtime = new WorkflowRuntime()) { Dictionary<string, object> parameters = new Dictionary<string, object>(); parameters.Add("First", "something"); parameters.Add("Second", 42); WorkflowInstance instance = runtime.CreateWorkflow(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow), parameters); instance.Start(); waitHandle.WaitOne(); } This way, a MyStateMachineWorkflow instance is created and First and Second public properties gets that dictionary values. But I'm using WCF; so far, I managed to create a Start method which accepts that two arguments and I set that required fields by using bind on my ReceiveActivity: using (WorkflowServiceHost host = new WorkflowServiceHost(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow))) { host.Open(); ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow> factory = new ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow>("MyStateMachineWorkflow"); IMyStateMachineWorkflow proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); // set this values through binding on my ReceiveActivity proxy.Start("something", 42); } While this works, that create an anomaly: that method should be called only and exactly once. How can I start an workflow instance through WCF passing those arguments? On my tests, I just actually interact with my workflow through wire after I call that proxy method. Is there other way?

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  • Web Reference Code generator template.

    - by Bluephlame
    I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

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  • Running unittest with typical test directory structure.

    - by Major Major
    The very common directory structure for even a simple Python module seems to be to separate the unit tests into their own test directory: new_project/ antigravity/ antigravity.py test/ test_antigravity.py setup.py etc. for example see this Python project howto. My question is simply What's the usual way of actually running the tests? I suspect this is obvious to everyone except me, but you can't just run python test_antigravity.py from the test directory as its import antigravity will fail as the module is not on the path. I know I could modify PYTHONPATH and other search path related tricks, but I can't believe that's the simplest way - it's fine if you're the developer but not realistic to expect your users to use if they just want to check the tests are passing. The other alternative is just to copy the test file into the other directory, but it seems a bit dumb and misses the point of having them in a separate directory to start with. So, if you had just downloaded the source to my new project how would you run the unit tests? I'd prefer an answer that would let me say to my users: "To run the unit tests do X."

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  • android httpurlconnection [closed]

    - by user620451
    hi im new android developer i am trying to login to my asterisk server passing my username and password it works good but when i am trying to request anther url to the server after login i get access denied and i now the problem because the login connection has disconnected so i want a way to request to urls the first one is login to the server and the second is to do something else after login please help and thx anyway this is a part of my code i want to request this 2 url url1="http://192.168.1.7:8088/rawman?action=login&username=admin&secret=admin" url2="http://192.168.1.5:8088/rawman?action=updateconfig&reload=yes&srcfilename=users.conf&dstfilename=users.conf&Action-000000=newcat&Cat-000000=6001&Var-000000=&Value-000000=" public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); tv1 = (TextView) this.findViewById(R.id.display); ed1 = (EditText) this.findViewById(R.id.editText); bt1 = (Button) this.findViewById(R.id.submit); bt1.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view) { { try{ ServerRequest(url1); ServerRequest(url2); } catch(Exception e) { Log.v("Exception", "Exception:"+e.getMessage()); } } } }); } public String ServerRequest(String serverString) throws MalformedURLException, IOException { String newFeed=serverString; StringBuilder response = new StringBuilder(); Log.v("server","server url:"+newFeed); URL url = new URL(newFeed); HttpURLConnection httpconn = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); if(httpconn.getResponseCode()==HttpURLConnection.HTTP_OK) { BufferedReader input = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(httpconn.getInputStream()), 8192); String strLine = null; while ((strLine = input.readLine()) != null) { response.append(strLine); } input.close(); } tv1.settext(response); return response.toString(); }

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  • Is MarshalByRefObject special?

    - by Vilx-
    .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

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  • Problem with "moveable-only types" in VC++ 2010

    - by Luc Touraille
    I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 Professional RC to try it out and test the few C++0x features that are implemented in VC++ 2010. I instantiated a std::vector of std::unique_ptr, without any problems. However, when I try to populate it by passing temporaries to push_back, the compiler complains that the copy constructor of unique_ptr is private. I tried inserting an lvalue by moving it, and it works just fine. #include <utility> #include <vector> int main() { typedef std::unique_ptr<int> int_ptr; int_ptr pi(new int(1)); std::vector<int_ptr> vec; vec.push_back(std::move(pi)); // OK vec.push_back(int_ptr(new int(2)); // compiler error } As it turns out, the problem is neither unique_ptr nor vector::push_back but the way VC++ resolves overloads when dealing with rvalues, as demonstrated by the following code: struct MoveOnly { MoveOnly() {} MoveOnly(MoveOnly && other) {} private: MoveOnly(const MoveOnly & other); }; void acceptRValue(MoveOnly && mo) {} int main() { acceptRValue(MoveOnly()); // Compiler error } The compiler complains that the copy constructor is not accessible. If I make it public, the program compiles (even though the copy constructor is not defined). Did I misunderstand something about rvalue references, or is it a (possibly known) bug in VC++ 2010 implementation of this feature?

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  • Variable length argument list - How to understand we retrieved the last argument?

    - by hkBattousai
    I have a Polynomial class which holds coefficients of a given polynomial. One of its overloaded constructors is supposed to receive these coefficients via variable argument list. template <class T> Polynomial<T>::Polynomial(T FirstCoefficient, ...) { va_list ArgumentPointer; va_start(ArgumentPointer, FirstCoefficient); T NextCoefficient = FirstCoefficient; std::vector<T> Coefficients; while (true) { Coefficients.push_back(NextCoefficient); NextCoefficient = va_arg(ArgumentPointer, T); if (/* did we retrieve all the arguments */) // How do I implement this? { break; } } m_Coefficients = Coefficients; } I know that we usually pass an extra parameter which tells the recipient method the total number of parameters, or we pass a sentimental ending parameter. But in order to keep thing short and clean, I don't prefer passing an extra parameter. Is there any way of doing this without modifying the method signature in the example?

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  • PHP using a passed value to open a dir, not working

    - by HadoukenGr
    This is my code <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <title>Gallery</title> <script src="js/jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script src="js/lightbox.js"></script> <link href="css/lightbox.css" rel="stylesheet" /> </head> <body> <?php $value=$_GET["value"]; $handle = opendir("content/$value/gallery/"); while($file = readdir($handle)) { if($file !== '.' && $file !== '..') { do_something; } } ?> </body> </html> Passing value "?a??????", gives Warning: opendir(content/?a??????/gallery/): failed to open dir: No such file or directory. But if i do this : $handle = opendir("content/?a??????/gallery/"); it works fine. Something to do with character encoding? How could i solve this? Thank you.

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  • deserializing multiple types from a stream

    - by clanier9
    I have a card game program, and so far, the chat works great back and forth over the TCPClient streams between host and client. I want to make it do this with serializing and deserializing so that I can also pass cards between host and client. I tried to create a separate TCPClient stream for the passing of cards but it didn't work and figured it may be easier to keep one TCPClient stream that gets the text messages as well as cards. So I created a class, called cereal, which has the properties for the cards that will help me rebuild the card from an embedded database of cards on the other end. Is there a way to make my program figure out whether a card has been put in the stream or if it's just text in the stream so I can properly deserialize it to a string or to a cereal? Or should I add a string property to my cereal class and when that property is filled in after deserializing to the cereal, i'll know it's just text (if that field is empty after deserializing i'll know it's a card)? I'm thinking a try catch, where it tries to deserialize to a string, and if it fails it will catch and cast as a cereal. Or am I just way off base with this and should choose another route? I'm using visual studio 2011, am using a binaryformatter, and am new to serializing/deserializing.

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  • Keeping Linq to SQL alive when using ViewModels (ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Kohan
    I have recently started using custom ViewModels (For example, CustomerViewModel) public class CustomerViewModel { public IList<Customer> Customers{ get; set; } public int ProductId{ get; set; } public CustomerViewModel(IList<Customer> customers, int productId) { this.Customers= customers; this.ProductId= productId; } public CustomerViewModel() { } } ... and am now passing them to my view instead of the Entities themselves (for example, var Custs = repository.getAllCusts(id) ) as it seems good practice to do so. The problem i have encountered is that when using ViewModels; by the time it has got to the the view i have lost the ability to lazy load on customers. I do not believe this was the case before using them. Is it possible to retain the ability of Lazy Loading while still using ViewModels? Or do i have to eager load using this method? Thanks, Kohan.

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  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

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  • Cannot pass null to server using jQuery AJAX. Value received at the server is the string "null".

    - by Tom
    I am converting a javascript/php/ajax application to use jQuery to ensure compatibility with browsers other than Firefox. I am having trouble passing true, false, and null values using jQuery's ajax function. Javascript code: $.ajax ( { url : <server_url>, dataType: 'json', type : 'POST', success : receiveAjaxMessage, data: { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } } ); PHP code: var_dump($_POST); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> string(4) "true" ["valueFalse"]=> string(5) "false" ["valueNull"]=> string(4) "null" } The problem is that the null, true, and false values are being converted to strings. The Javascript AJAX code currently in use passes null, true, and false correctly but only works in Firefox. Does anyone know how to solve this problem using jQuery? Here is some working code (not using jQuery) to compare with the code not-working code given above. Javascript Code: ajaxPort.send ( <server_url>, { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } ); PHP code: var_dump(json_decode(file_get_contents('php://input'), true)); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> bool(true) ["valueFalse"]=> bool(false) ["valueNull"]=> NULL } Note that the null, true, and false values are correctly received. Note also that in the second method the $_POST array is not used in the PHP code. I think this is the key to the problem, but I cannot find a way to replicate this behavior using jQuery.

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  • How to achieve interaction between GUI class with logic class

    - by volting
    Im new to GUI programming, and haven't done much OOP. Im working on a basic calculator app to help me learn GUI design and to brush up on OOP. I understand that anything GUI related should be kept seperate from the logic, but Im unsure how to implement interaction between logic an GUI classes when needed i.e. basically passing variables back and forth... Im using TKinter and when I pass a tkinter variable to my logic it only seems to hold the string PY_VAR0. def on_equal_btn_click(self): self.entryVariable.set(self.entryVariable.get() + "=") calculator = Calc(self.entryVariable) self.entryVariable.set(calculator.calculate()) Im sure that im probably doing something fundamentally wrong and probabaly really stupid, I spent a considerable amount of time experimenting (and searching for answers online) but Im getting no where. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, V The Full Program (well just enough to show the structure..) import Tkinter class Gui(Tkinter.Tk): def __init__(self,parent): Tkinter.Tk.__init__(self,parent) self.parent = parent self.initialize() def initialize(self): self.grid() self.create_widgets() """ grid config """ #self.grid_columnconfigure(0,weight=1,pad=0) self.resizable(False, False) def create_widgets(self): """row 0 of grid""" """Create Text Entry Box""" self.entryVariable = Tkinter.StringVar() self.entry = Tkinter.Entry(self,width=30,textvariable=self.entryVariable) self.entry.grid(column=0,row=0, columnspan = 3 ) self.entry.bind("<Return>", self.on_press_enter) """create equal button""" equal_btn = Tkinter.Button(self,text="=",width=4,command=self.on_equal_btn_click) equal_btn.grid(column=3, row=0) """row 1 of grid""" """create number 1 button""" number1_btn = Tkinter.Button(self,text="1",width=8,command=self.on_number1_btn_click) number1_btn.grid(column=0, row=1) . . . def on_equal_btn_click(self): self.entryVariable.set(self.entryVariable.get() + "=") calculator = Calc(self.entryVariable) self.entryVariable.set(calculator.calculate()) class Calc(): def __init__(self, equation): self.equation = equation def calculate(self): #TODO: parse string and calculate... return self.equation if __name__ == "__main__": app = Gui(None) app.title('Calculator') app.mainloop()

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