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• Release edit in QTableWidget Cell

  - by Schomin

  Basically I am trying to give the enter key the same functionality as the return key has when editing a cell in a qtablewidget. If editing a cell and enter is pressed I want it to jump out of editing that cell just like return does. It feels like I've literally tried everything. I've even tried passing a return press event to qcoreapplication. It seems like if your editing a cell and you press a key to trigger an action it wont happen. That seems to be what the problem is and I'm not sure how to get around that. I've been setting up all of my keyboard shortcuts for this program as actions because it seems easier to set up. Is there another way to do this that would allow the key event to happen when editing a cell? Can anyone help out with this? Thank you in advance. Tried this. It didn't work for me. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/518447/how-can-i-tell-a-qtablewidget-to-end-editing-a-cell

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• rails 4 -- working with js format from ajax

  - by user101289

  I'm still working on learning Rails, and I have a page with team information that will get updated based on a team's icon click, which fires an ajax call to the controller to populate some tabs. I've read some good info about how to use format.js in the controller to render a partial from a js.coffee or js.erb file. The problem I'm running into is in the coffeescript I think. Right now, I'm getting some data called @schedules from the controller, and passing it to a schedule.js.coffee file that should populate a partial for each record returned and attach it to a table. // schedule.js.coffee $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> ($ '#schedule_data').append("<%= j render(partial: 'schedules/schedule', locals: { s: schedule }) %>") This throws an error `> undefined local variable or method `schedule' for #<#<Class:0x007fe535cd2900>:0x007fe535d32a30>` I tried simplifying the coffeescript to just log the output: $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> console.log(schedule) but this prints nothing. Am I missing something? I am very inexperienced with coffeescript, but it seems like I should be getting some data-- I verified that the schedule items do exist for this team item.

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• How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

  - by Jonathan

  I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

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• What to pass parameters to start an workflow through WCF

  - by Rubens Farias

  It's possible to define some start values to an workflow using WorkflowInstance.CreateWorkflow, like this: using(WorkflowRuntime runtime = new WorkflowRuntime()) { Dictionary<string, object> parameters = new Dictionary<string, object>(); parameters.Add("First", "something"); parameters.Add("Second", 42); WorkflowInstance instance = runtime.CreateWorkflow(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow), parameters); instance.Start(); waitHandle.WaitOne(); } This way, a MyStateMachineWorkflow instance is created and First and Second public properties gets that dictionary values. But I'm using WCF; so far, I managed to create a Start method which accepts that two arguments and I set that required fields by using bind on my ReceiveActivity: using (WorkflowServiceHost host = new WorkflowServiceHost(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow))) { host.Open(); ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow> factory = new ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow>("MyStateMachineWorkflow"); IMyStateMachineWorkflow proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); // set this values through binding on my ReceiveActivity proxy.Start("something", 42); } While this works, that create an anomaly: that method should be called only and exactly once. How can I start an workflow instance through WCF passing those arguments? On my tests, I just actually interact with my workflow through wire after I call that proxy method. Is there other way?

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• SugarmCRM REST API always returns "null"

  - by TuomasR

  I'm trying to test out the SugarCRM REST API, running latest version of CE (6.0.1). It seems that whenever I do a query, the API returns "null", nothing else. If I omit the parameters, then the API returns the API description (which the documentation says it should). I'm trying to perform a login, passing as parameter the method (login), input_type and response_type (json) and rest_data (JSON encoded parameters). The following code does the query: $api_target = "http://example.com/sugarcrm/service/v2/rest.php"; $parameters = json_encode(array( "user_auth" => array( "user_name" => "admin", "password" => md5("adminpassword"), ), "application_name" => "Test", "name_value_list" => array(), )); $postData = http_build_query(array( "method" => "login", "input_type" => "json", "response_type" => "json", "rest_data" => $parameters )); echo $parameters . "\n"; echo $postData . "\n"; echo file_get_contents($api_target, false, stream_context_create(array( "http" => array( "method" => "POST", "header" => "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n", "content" => $postData ) ))) . "\n"; I've tried different variations of parameters and using username instead of user_name, and all provide the same result, just a response "null" and that's it.

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• What is the correct high level schema.org microdata itemtype for a retail brand/company homepage?

  - by kpowz

  I'd like to hear which schema.org itemtype others would recommend using or have used in the case of completing a retail brand's company homepage microdata. Take for example TOMS's shoes: Example #1 - Using /Corporation as the high-level itemtype one can include a lot of great /Organization microdata, but nothing about the retail store. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Website> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Corporation> various microdata here probably including Product microdata </body> </html> NOTE: the only schema.org property specific to /Corporation is tickerSymbol & TOMS doesn't have one. Example #2 - This code would work if TOMS started their own channel of physical retail stores & each location had it's own homepage. However, for TOMS's.com, although accurate schematically & more descriptive at the face, this is incorrect microdata markup for TOMS.com, because /ShoeStore derives from /LocalBusiness - which must represent a physical place. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/Website'> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/ShoeStore'> a whole bunch of jabber here </body> </html> NOTE: Since TOMS is virtual & thus can't be a /Store this means you lose really cool properties like 'currenciesAccepted', 'paymentAccepted' & 'priceRange'. Is this just a 'sit and wait' situation until more schemas are approved for 'virtual places' or is there a validation-passing way to get the best of both worlds?

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• Pass Memory in GB Using Import-CSV Powershell to New-VM in Hyper-V Version 3

  - by PowerShell

  I created the below function to pass memory from a csv file to create a VM in Hyper-V Version 3 Function Install-VM { param ( [Parameter(Mandatory=$true)] [int64]$Memory=512MB ) $VMName = "dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng" $vmpath = "c:\2012vms" New-VM -MemoryStartupBytes ([int64]$memory*1024) -Name $VMName -Path $VMPath -Verbose } Import-Csv "C:\2012vms\Vminfo1.csv" | ForEach-Object { Install-VM -Memory ([int64]$_.Memory) } But when i try to create the VM it says mismatch between the memory parameter passed from import-csv, i receive an error as below VERBOSE: New-VM will create a new virtual machine "dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng". New-VM : 'dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng' failed to modify device 'Memory'. (Virtual machine ID CE8D36CA-C8C6-42E6-B5C6-2AA8FA15B4AF) Invalid startup memory amount assigned for 'dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng'. The minimum amount of memory you can assign to a virtual machine is '8' MB. (Virtual machine ID CE8D36CA-C8C6-42E6-B5C6-2AA8FA15B4AF) A parameter that is not valid was passed to the operation. At line:48 char:9 + New-VM -ComputerName $HyperVHost -MemoryStartupBytes ([int64]$memory*10 ... + ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ + CategoryInfo : InvalidArgument: (Microsoft.HyperV.PowerShell.VMTask:VMTask) [New-VM], VirtualizationOpe rationFailedException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : InvalidParameter,Microsoft.HyperV.PowerShell.Commands.NewVMCommand Also please not in the csv file im passing memory as 1,2,4.. etc as shown below, and converting them to MB by multiplying them with 1024 later Memory 1 Can Anyone help me out on how to format and pass the memory details to the function

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• Communication between lexer and parser

  - by FredOverflow

  Every time I write a simple lexer and parser, I stumble upon the same question: how should the lexer and the parser communicate? I see four different approaches: The lexer eagerly converts the entire input string into a vector of tokens. Once this is done, the vector is fed to the parser which converts it into a tree. This is by far the simplest solution to implement, but since all tokens are stored in memory, it wastes a lot of space. Each time the lexer finds a token, it invokes a function on the parser, passing the current token. In my experience, this only works if the parser can naturally be implemented as a state machine like LALR parsers. By contrast, I don't think it would work at all for recursive descent parsers. Each time the parser needs a token, it asks the lexer for the next one. This is very easy to implement in C# due to the yield keyword, but quite hard in C++ which doesn't have it. The lexer and parser communicate through an asynchronous queue. This is commonly known under the title "producer/consumer", and it should simplify the communication between the lexer and the parser a lot. Does it also outperform the other solutions on multicores? Or is lexing too trivial? Is my analysis sound? Are there other approaches I haven't thought of? What is used in real-world compilers? It would be really cool if compiler writers like Eric Lippert could shed some light on this issue.

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• How to implement a single instance app manager in java (CVM PhoneME)?

  - by Marcus

  Hi, I'm working on a application manager for embeded platform based on the CVM PhoneME VM. The VM is started by a C++ app which configures the CVM and then triggers the VM itself. This C++ app is called form the command line passing the main class name and the classpath of a java application. There is a main java app (lets call it Manager) which loads the app using classloaders. I want this manager to be a single instance application so it could track all running apps. In other words: The first time I start an app (app1 for instance), the VM will launch and the Manager will load the app1. In further calls to load other apps (app2, app3 and so on), the same instance of the Manager would load those apps. The manager is working fine, except for the fact that this is not a single instance. Is it possible to do what I want? I found this: http://www.knowledgesutra.com/forums/topic/59760-how-to-implement-single-instance-application-on-java/ This is almost the same I want, except for the app loading part. However, the necessary packages are not available in the CVM implementation. Thanks very much.

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• Algorithm for generating an array of non-equal costs for a transport problem optimization

  - by Carlos

  I have an optimizer that solves a transportation problem, using a cost matrix of all the possible paths. The optimiser works fine, but if two of the costs are equal, the solution contains one more path that the minimum number of paths. (Think of it as load balancing routers; if two routes are same cost, you'll use them both.) I would like the minimum number of routes, and to do that I need a cost matrix that doesn't have two costs that are equal within a certain tolerance. At the moment, I'm passing the cost matrix through a baking function which tests every entry for equality to each of the other entries, and moves it a fixed percentage if it matches. However, this approach seems to require N^2 comparisons, and if the starting values are all the same, the last cost will be r^N bigger. (r is the arbitrary fixed percentage). Also there is the problem that by multiplying by the percentage, you end up on top of another value. So the problem seems to have an element of recursion, or at least repeated checking, which bloats the code. The current implementation is basically not very good (I won't paste my GOTO-using code here for you all to mock), and I'd like to improve it. Is there a name for what I'm after, and is there a standard implementation? Example: {1,1,2,3,4,5} (tol = 0.05) becomes {1,1.05,2,3,4,5}

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• Running unittest with typical test directory structure.

  - by Major Major

  The very common directory structure for even a simple Python module seems to be to separate the unit tests into their own test directory: new_project/ antigravity/ antigravity.py test/ test_antigravity.py setup.py etc. for example see this Python project howto. My question is simply What's the usual way of actually running the tests? I suspect this is obvious to everyone except me, but you can't just run python test_antigravity.py from the test directory as its import antigravity will fail as the module is not on the path. I know I could modify PYTHONPATH and other search path related tricks, but I can't believe that's the simplest way - it's fine if you're the developer but not realistic to expect your users to use if they just want to check the tests are passing. The other alternative is just to copy the test file into the other directory, but it seems a bit dumb and misses the point of having them in a separate directory to start with. So, if you had just downloaded the source to my new project how would you run the unit tests? I'd prefer an answer that would let me say to my users: "To run the unit tests do X."

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• Remote connection to SQL Server Express fails

  - by worlds-apart89

  I have two computers that share the same Internet IP address. Using one of the computers, I can remotely connect to a SQL Server database on the other. Here is my connection string: SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=192.168.1.101\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); 192.168.1.101 is the server, SQLEXPRESSNI is the SQL Server instance name, and FirstDB is the name of the database. Now, I have another computer with a different Internet IP address. I want to connect to the server above using the third computer that does not belong to my local area network. I dont have access to that third computer at the moment, so I want to use (if possible) the client computer in LAN again. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=SharedInternetIP\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); Does not work Note that I am a beginner, so I am not quite sure what I am doing even though I know what I want to do. By passing the Internet IP to the SqlConnection object rather than the local IP address, how can I successfully connect to the server computer, using the client computer in the same network? Also note that my ultimate goal is to connect to the server with an external client, but I don't have access to that computer right now. I'd appreciate any help.

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• Web Reference Code generator template.

  - by Bluephlame

  I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

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• Best Practice for Summary Footer (and the like) in MVC

  - by benpage

  Simple question on best practice. Say I have: public class Product { public string Name { get; set; } public string Price { get; set; } public int CategoryID { get; set; } public bool IsAvailable { get; set; } } and i have a view using IEnumerable< Product as the model, and i iterate through the Products on the page and want to show the total of the prices at the end of the list, should I use: <%= Model.Sum(x=> x.Price) %> or should I use some other method? This may extend to include more involved things like: <%= Model.Where(x=> x.CategoryID == 5 && x.IsAvailable).Sum(x=> x.Price) %> and even <% foreach (Product p in Model.Where(x=> x.IsAvailable) {%> -- insert html -- <% } %> <% foreach (Product p in Model.Where(x=> !x.IsAvailable) {%> -- insert html -- <% } %> I guess this comes down to should I have that sort of code within my view, or should i be passing it to my view in ViewData? Or perhaps some other way?

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• Cannot pass null to server using jQuery AJAX. Value received at the server is the string "null".

  - by Tom

  I am converting a javascript/php/ajax application to use jQuery to ensure compatibility with browsers other than Firefox. I am having trouble passing true, false, and null values using jQuery's ajax function. Javascript code: $.ajax ( { url : <server_url>, dataType: 'json', type : 'POST', success : receiveAjaxMessage, data: { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } } ); PHP code: var_dump($_POST); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> string(4) "true" ["valueFalse"]=> string(5) "false" ["valueNull"]=> string(4) "null" } The problem is that the null, true, and false values are being converted to strings. The Javascript AJAX code currently in use passes null, true, and false correctly but only works in Firefox. Does anyone know how to solve this problem using jQuery? Here is some working code (not using jQuery) to compare with the code not-working code given above. Javascript Code: ajaxPort.send ( <server_url>, { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } ); PHP code: var_dump(json_decode(file_get_contents('php://input'), true)); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> bool(true) ["valueFalse"]=> bool(false) ["valueNull"]=> NULL } Note that the null, true, and false values are correctly received. Note also that in the second method the $_POST array is not used in the PHP code. I think this is the key to the problem, but I cannot find a way to replicate this behavior using jQuery.

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• android httpurlconnection [closed]

  - by user620451

  hi im new android developer i am trying to login to my asterisk server passing my username and password it works good but when i am trying to request anther url to the server after login i get access denied and i now the problem because the login connection has disconnected so i want a way to request to urls the first one is login to the server and the second is to do something else after login please help and thx anyway this is a part of my code i want to request this 2 url url1="http://192.168.1.7:8088/rawman?action=login&username=admin&secret=admin" url2="http://192.168.1.5:8088/rawman?action=updateconfig&reload=yes&srcfilename=users.conf&dstfilename=users.conf&Action-000000=newcat&Cat-000000=6001&Var-000000=&Value-000000=" public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); tv1 = (TextView) this.findViewById(R.id.display); ed1 = (EditText) this.findViewById(R.id.editText); bt1 = (Button) this.findViewById(R.id.submit); bt1.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view) { { try{ ServerRequest(url1); ServerRequest(url2); } catch(Exception e) { Log.v("Exception", "Exception:"+e.getMessage()); } } } }); } public String ServerRequest(String serverString) throws MalformedURLException, IOException { String newFeed=serverString; StringBuilder response = new StringBuilder(); Log.v("server","server url:"+newFeed); URL url = new URL(newFeed); HttpURLConnection httpconn = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); if(httpconn.getResponseCode()==HttpURLConnection.HTTP_OK) { BufferedReader input = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(httpconn.getInputStream()), 8192); String strLine = null; while ((strLine = input.readLine()) != null) { response.append(strLine); } input.close(); } tv1.settext(response); return response.toString(); }

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• Starting an STA thread, but with parameters to the final function

  - by DRapp

  I'm a bit weak on how some delegates behave, such as passing a method as the parameter to be invoked. While trying to do some NUnit test scripts, I have something that I need to run many test with. Each of these tests requires a GUI created and thus the need for an STA thread. So, I have something like public class MyTest { // the Delegate "ThreadStart" is part of the System.Threading namespace and is defined as // public delegate void ThreadStart(); protected void Start_STA_Thread(ThreadStart whichMethod) { Thread thread = new Thread(whichMethod); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); //Set the thread to STA thread.Start(); thread.Join(); } [Test] public void Test101() { // Since the thread issues an INVOKE of a method, I'm having it call the // corresponding "FromSTAThread" method, such as Start_STA_Thread( Test101FromSTAThread ); } protected void Test101FromSTAThread() { MySTA_RequiredClass oTmp = new MySTA_RequiredClass(); Assert.IsTrue( oTmp.DoSomething() ); } } This part all works fine... Now the next step. I now have a different set of tests that ALSO require an STA thread. However, each "thing" I need to do requires two parameters... both strings (for this case). How do I go about declaring proper delegate so I can pass in the method I need to invoke, AND the two string parameters in one shot... I may have 20+ tests to run with in this pattern and may have future of other similar tests with different parameter counts and types of parameters too. Thanks.

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• Is this overly clever or unsafe?

  - by Liberalkid

  I was working on some code recently and decided to work on my operator overloading in c++, because I've never really implemented it before. So I overloaded the comparison operators for my matrix class using a compare function that returned 0 if LHS was less than RHS, 1 if LHS was greater than RHS and 2 if they were equal. Then I exploited the properties of logical not in c++ on integers, to get all of my compares in one line: inline bool Matrix::operator<(Matrix &RHS){ return ! (compare(*this,RHS)); } inline bool Matrix::operator>(Matrix &RHS){ return ! (compare((*this),RHS)-1); } inline bool Matrix::operator>=(Matrix &RHS){ return compare((*this),RHS); } inline bool Matrix::operator<=(Matrix &RHS){ return compare((*this),RHS)-1; } inline bool Matrix::operator!=(Matrix &RHS){ return compare((*this),RHS)-2; } inline bool Matrix::operator==(Matrix &RHS){ return !(compare((*this),RHS)-2); } Obviously I should be passing RHS as a const, I'm just probably not going to use this matrix class again and I didn't feel like writing another function that wasn't a reference to get the array index values solely for the comparator operation.

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• C++ CRTP(template pattern) question

  - by aaa

  following piece of code does not compile, the problem is in T::rank not be inaccessible (I think) or uninitialized in parent template. Can you tell me exactly what the problem is? is passing rank explicitly the only way? or is there a way to query tensor class directly? Thank you #include <boost/utility/enable_if.hpp> template<class T, // size_t N, class enable = void> struct tensor_operator; // template<class T, size_t N> template<class T> struct tensor_operator<T, typename boost::enable_if_c< T::rank == 4>::type > { tensor_operator(T &tensor) : tensor_(tensor) {} T& operator()(int i,int j,int k,int l) { return tensor_.layout.element_at(i, j, k, l); } T &tensor_; }; template<size_t N, typename T = double> // struct tensor : tensor_operator<tensor<N,T>, N> { struct tensor : tensor_operator<tensor<N,T> > { static const size_t rank = N; }; I know the workaround, however am interested in mechanics of template instantiation for self-education

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• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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• Is MarshalByRefObject special?

  - by Vilx-

  .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

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• Method having an abstract class as a parameter

  - by Ferhat

  I have an abstract class A, where I have derived the classes B and C. Class A provides an abstract method DoJOB(), which is implemented by both derived classes. There is a class X which has methods inside, which need to call DoJOB(). The class X may not contain any code like B.DoJOB() or C.DoJOB(). Example: public class X { private A foo; public X(A concrete) { foo = concrete; } public FunnyMethod() { foo.DoJOB(); } } While instantiating class X I want to decide which derived class (B or C) must be used. I thought about passing an instance of B or C using the constructor of X. X kewl = new X(new C()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); //calls C.DoJOB() kewl = new X(new B()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); // calls B.DoJOB() My test showed that declaring a method with a parameter A is not working. Am I missing something? How can I implement this correctly? (A is abstract, it cannot be instantiated)

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• Terminal-based snake game: input thread manipulates output

  - by enlightened

  I'm writing a snake game for the terminal, i.e. output via print. The following works just fine: while status[snake_monad] do print to_string draw canvas, compose_all([ frame, specs, snake_to_hash(snake[snake_monad]) ]) turn! snake_monad, get_dir move! snake_monad, specs sleep 0.25 end But I don't want the turn!ing to block, of course. So I put it into a new Thread and let it loop: Thread.new do loop do turn! snake_monad, get_dir end end while status[snake_monad] do ... # no turn! here ... end Which also works logically (the snake is turning), but the output is somehow interspersed with newlines. As soon as I kill the input thread (^C) it looks normal again. So why and how does the thread have any effect on my output? And how do I work around this issue? (I don't know much about threads, even less about them in ruby. Input and output concurrently on the same terminal make the matter worse, I guess...) Also (not really important): Wanting my program as pure as possible, would it be somewhat easily possible to get the input non-blockingly while passing everything around? Thank you!

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• XPath: limit scope of result set

  - by Laramie

  Given the XML <a> <c> <b id="1" value="noob"/> </c> <b id="2" value="tube"/> <a> <c> <b id="3" value="foo"/> </c> <b id="4" value="goo"/> <b id="5" value="noob"/> <a> <b id="6" value="near"/> <b id="7" value="bar"/> </a> </a> </a> and the Xpath 1.0 query //b[@id=2]/ancestor::a[1]//b[@value="noob"] is there some way to limit the result set to the <b> elements that are ONLY the children of the immediate <a> element of the start node (//b[@id=2])? For example the Xpath above returns both node ids 1 and 5. The goal is to limit the result to just node id=1 since it is the only @value="noob" element in the same <c> group as our start node (//b[@id=2]). In English, "Starting at a node whose id is equal to 2, find all the elements whose value is "noob" that are descendants of the immediate parent c element without passing through another c element".

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• Variable length argument list - How to understand we retrieved the last argument?

  - by hkBattousai

  I have a Polynomial class which holds coefficients of a given polynomial. One of its overloaded constructors is supposed to receive these coefficients via variable argument list. template <class T> Polynomial<T>::Polynomial(T FirstCoefficient, ...) { va_list ArgumentPointer; va_start(ArgumentPointer, FirstCoefficient); T NextCoefficient = FirstCoefficient; std::vector<T> Coefficients; while (true) { Coefficients.push_back(NextCoefficient); NextCoefficient = va_arg(ArgumentPointer, T); if (/* did we retrieve all the arguments */) // How do I implement this? { break; } } m_Coefficients = Coefficients; } I know that we usually pass an extra parameter which tells the recipient method the total number of parameters, or we pass a sentimental ending parameter. But in order to keep thing short and clean, I don't prefer passing an extra parameter. Is there any way of doing this without modifying the method signature in the example?

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