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  • Pass Parameter to Subroutine in Codebehind

    - by Sanjubaba
    I'm trying to pass an ID of an activity (RefNum) to a Sub in my codebehind. I know I'm supposed to use parentheses when passing parameters to subroutines and methods, and I've tried a number of ways and keep receiving the following error: BC30203: Identifier expected. I'm hard-coding it on the front-end just to try to get it to pass [ OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ], but it's obviously wrong. :( Front-end: <asp:DetailsView ID="dvEditActivity" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="RefNum" OnDataBound="dvSectorID_DataBound" OnItemUpdated="dvEditActivity_ItemUpdated" DataSourceID="dsEditActivity" > <Fields> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <br /><span style="color:#0e85c1;font-weight:bold">Sector</span><br /><br /> <asp:CheckBoxList ID="cblistSector" runat="server" DataSourceID="dsGetSectorNames" DataTextField="SectorName" DataValueField="SectorID" OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ></asp:CheckBoxList> <%-- Datasource to populate cblistSector --%> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="dsGetSectorNames" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn %>" ProviderName="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn.ProviderName %>" SelectCommand="SELECT SectorID, SectorName from Sector ORDER BY SectorID"></asp:SqlDataSource> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> Code-behind: Sub FillSectorCBList(ByVal RefNum As String, ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Dim SectorIDs As New ListItem Dim myConnection As String = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("dbConn").ConnectionString() Dim objConn As New SqlConnection(myConnection) Dim strSQL As String = "SELECT DISTINCT A.RefNum, AS1.SectorID, S.SectorName FROM Activity A LEFT OUTER JOIN Activity_Sector AS1 ON AS1.RefNum = A.RefNum LEFT OUTER JOIN Sector S ON AS1.SectorID = S.SectorID WHERE A.RefNum = @RefNum ORDER BY A.RefNum" Dim objCommand As New SqlCommand(strSQL, objConn) objCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("RefNum", RefNum) Dim ad As New SqlDataAdapter(objCommand) Try [Code] Finally [Code] End Try objCommand.Connection.Close() objCommand.Dispose() objConn.Close() End Sub Any advice would be great. I'm not sure if I even have the right approach. Thank you!

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  • How do you send in the LayoutRoot into a RelayCommand via a EventToCommand?

    - by user298145
    Grid example with the trigger: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" DataContext="{Binding ProjectGrid, Source={StaticResource Locator}}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Loaded"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand Command="{Binding LoadedCommand, Mode=OneWay}" PassEventArgsToCommand="True"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> In my ViewModel I set the LoadedCommand like this: public RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> LoadedCommand {get;private set;} And in the ViewModel initializer I have this: public ProjectGridViewModel() { LoadedCommand = new RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs>(e => { this.DoLoaded(e); } ); } Then, in my DoLoaded I'm trying to do this: Grid _projectGrid = null; public void DoLoaded(RoutedEventArgs e) { _projectGrid = e.OriginalSource as Grid; } You can see I'm trying to get rid of my Loaded="" in my Grid in my view, and do a RelayCommand instead. The issue is the OriginalSource brings back nothing. My loaded event is running nice this way, but I need to get the Grid in via the RoutedEventArgs it seems. I tried passing in the Grid in the EventCommand with CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot}", but this just crashes VS2010 when hitting F5 and running the project. Any ideas? Or a better way to do this? I had the Loaded event run in the views C# then call the ViewModel in the Views code-behind, but I'd like to do a nicer binding. Talking to the ViewMode in the Views code-behind feels like a hack.

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  • need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

    - by railsnew
    I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

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  • PHP + MYSQLI: Variable parameter/result binding with prepared statements.

    - by Brian Warshaw
    In a project that I'm about to wrap up, I've written and implemented an object-relational mapping solution for PHP. Before the doubters and dreamers cry out "how on earth?", relax -- I haven't found a way to make late static binding work -- I'm just working around it in the best way that I possibly can. Anyway, I'm not currently using prepared statements for querying, because I couldn't come up with a way to pass a variable number of arguments to the bind_params() or bind_result() methods. Why do I need to support a variable number of arguments, you ask? Because the superclass of my models (think of my solution as a hacked-up PHP ActiveRecord wannabe) is where the querying is defined, and so the find() method, for example, doesn't know how many parameters it would need to bind. Now, I've already thought of building an argument list and passing a string to eval(), but I don't like that solution very much -- I'd rather just implement my own security checks and pass on statements. Does anyone have any suggestions (or success stories) about how to get this done? If you can help me solve this first problem, perhaps we can tackle binding the result set (something I suspect will be more difficult, or at least more resource-intensive if it involves an initial query to determine table structure).

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  • Paperclip failing to upload on specific scaffold, yet works on others

    - by Saifis
    I know there are tons of questions about paperclip, but I failed to find the answer to my problem. I know its prob just something simple, but I I'm running out of hair to pull out. I have paperclip working on other parts of my project, they work with no problem, however, a certain scaffold fails to upload, all the attributes to the uploaded file are nil. Here are the relevant information. Model: has_attached_file :foo, :styles => { :thumb => "140x140>" }, :url => "/data/:id/:style/:basename.:extension", :path => ":rails_root/public/data/:id/:style/:basename.:extension" View: <% form_for(@bar, :html => { :multipart => true }) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> ---------- <li><%= f.label :top %> <%= f.file_field :foo %></li> ---------- <ul><%= f.submit "Save" %></ul> <% end %> Also, comparing the logs to the parts that work, the :foo attribute seems to be passing different values than in the ones that work. In the logs, when the paperclip function works, it looks like this "image"=>#<File:/var/folders/M5/M5HEb+WhFxmqNDGH5s-pNE+++TI/-Tmp-/RackMultipart20100512-1302-5e2e6e-0> when it does not, it seems to pass the file name directly "foo"=>"foo_image.png" I am developing locally on MacOSX using local rails and ruby libs.

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  • Getting value from pointer

    - by Eric
    Hi, I'm having problem getting the value from a pointer. I have the following code in C++: void* Nodo::readArray(VarHash& var, string varName, int posicion, float& d) { //some code before... void* res; float num = bit.getFloatFromArray(arregloTemp); //THIS FUNCTION RETURN A FLOAT AND IT'S OK cout << "NUMBER " << num << endl; d = num; res = &num; return res } int main() { float d = 0.0; void* res = n.readArray(v, "c", 0, d); //THE VALUES OF THE ARRAY ARE: {65.5, 66.5}; float* car3 = (float*)res; cout << "RESULT_READARRAY " << *car3 << endl; cout << "FLOAT REFERENCE: " << d << endl; } The result of running this code is the following: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //CORRECT NUMBER 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 66.5 //CORRECT For some reason, when I get the value of the pointer returned by the function called readArray is incorrect. I'm passing a float variable(d) as a reference in the same function just to verify that the value is ok, and as you can see, THE FLOAT REFERENCE matches the NUMBER. If I declare the variable num(read array) as a static float, the first RESULT_READARRAY will be 65.5, that is correct, however, the next value will be the same instead of 66.5. Let me show you the result of running the code using static float variable: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 //PERFECT FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //¨PERFECT NUMBER 65.5 //THIS IS INCORRECT, IT SHOULD BE 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 Do you know how can I get the correct value returned by the function called readArray()?

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  • Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

    - by Dean P
    Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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  • Calling SDL/OpenGL from Assembly code on Linux

    - by Lie Ryan
    I'm write a simple graphic-based program in Assembly for learning purpose; for this, I intended to use either OpenGL or SDL. I'm trying to call OpenGL/SDL's function from assembly. The problem is, unlike many assembly and OpenGL/SDL tutorials I found in the internet, the OpenGL/SDL in my machine apparently doesn't use C calling convention. I wrote a simple program in C, compile it to assembly (using -S switch), and apparently the assembly code that is generated by GCC calls the OpenGL/SDL functions by passing parameters in the registers instead of being pushed to the stack. Now, the question is, how do I determine how to pass arguments to these OpenGL/SDL functions? That is, how do I figure out which argument corresponds to which registers? Obviously since GCC can compile C code to call OpenGL/SDL, so therefore there must be a way to figure out the correspondence between function arguments and registers. In C calling conventions, the rule is easy, push parameters backwards and return value in eax/rax, I can simply read their C documentation and I can easily figure out how to pass the parameters. But how about these? Is there a way to call OpenGL/SDL using C calling convention? btw, I'm using yasm, with gcc/ld as the linker on Gentoo Linux amd64.

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  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

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  • Rails Tableless Model

    - by mplacona
    I'm creating a tableless Rails model, and am a bit stuck on how I should use it. Basically I'm trying to create a little application using Feedzirra that scans a RSS feed every X seconds, and then sends me an email with only the updates. I'm actually trying to use it as an activerecord model, and although I can get it to work, it doesn't seem to "hold" data as expected. As an example, I have an initializer method that parses the feed for the first time. On the next requests, I would like to simply call the get_updates method, which according to feedzirra, is the existing object (created during the initialize) that gets updated with only the differences. I'm finding it really hard to understand how this all works, as the object created on the initialize method doesn't seem to persist across all the methods on the model. My code looks something like: def initialize feed parse here end def get_updates feedzirra update passing the feed object here end Not sure if this is the right way of doing it, but it all seems a bit confusing and not very clear. I could be over or under-doing here, but I'd like your opinion about this approach. Thanks in advance

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  • How can I pass a const array or a variable array to a function in C?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    I have a simple function Bar that uses a set of values from a data set that is passed in in the form of an Array of data structures. The data can come from two sources: a constant initialized array of default values, or a dynamically updated cache. The calling function determines which data is used and should be passed to Bar. Bar doesn't need to edit any of the data and in fact should never do so. How should I declare Bar's data parameter so that I can provide data from either set? union Foo { long _long; int _int; } static const Foo DEFAULTS[8] = {1,10,100,1000,10000,100000,1000000,10000000}; static Foo Cache[8] = {0}; void Bar(Foo* dataSet, int len);//example function prototype Note, this is C, NOT C++ if that makes a difference; Edit Oh, one more thing. When I use the example prototype I get a type qualifier mismatch warning, (because I'm passing a mutable reference to a const array?). What do I have to change for that?

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  • How do I convert an AMD module from a singleton to an instance?

    - by Jamie Ide
    I'm trying to convert a working Durandal view model module from a singleton to an instance. The original working version followed this pattern: define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = { activate: activate, companyId: null; company: ko.observable({}) }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The new version exports a function so that I get a new instance on every request... define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = function() { activate = activate; companyId = null; company = ko.observable({}); }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The error I'm getting is "object function () [...function signature...] has no method company on the line vm.company(data);. What am I doing wrong? Why can I set the property but can't access the knockout observable? How should I refactor the original code so that I get a new instance on every request? My efforts to simplify the code for this question hid the actual problem. My real code was using Q promises and calling two methods with Q.All. Since Q is in the global namespace, it couldn't resolve my viewmodel after converting to a function. Passing the view model to the methods called by Q resolved the problem.

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  • Update or Insert Row depending on whether row is present in Microsoft SQL Server 2005

    - by Srikanth
    Hi, I am passing a XML document as a input to a stored procedure in Microsoft SQL Server 2005. This is the sample XML being passed as input <Strategy StrategyID="0" TOStrategyID="8" ShutdownQtySell="1" ShutdownQtyBuy="1"> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="1" ParameterRangeFrom="0" ParameterRangeTo="20" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="4" ParameterRangeFrom="21" ParameterRangeTo="40" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="5" ParameterRangeFrom="41" ParameterRangeTo="60" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="6" ParameterRangeFrom="61" ParameterRangeTo="80" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="7" ParameterRangeFrom="81" ParameterRangeTo="100" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> </Strategy> I am able to retrieve the data using OpenXML functionality in SQL server I am using this to get the data corresponding to ParameterRange rows SELECT ParameterRangeID as iRangeID, ParameterSetID as iSetID, ParameterRangeFrom as fRangeFrom, ParameterRangeTo as fRangeTo, ParameterAutoTakeOut as bTakeoutEnabled FROM OPENXML(@idoc, '/Strategy/ParameterRange', 1) WITH (ParameterSetID int,ParameterRangeID int,ParameterRangeFrom float,ParameterRangeTo float,ParameterAutoTakeOut bit) Now, I need to insert/update these rows into a table TempRanges which has (iRangeID,iSetID) as the primary key. If there is a row with the primary key, I want to update it the latest values and If there is no row with that primary key, I need to insert into the table. How can I accomplish this inside the Stored Procedure ? Thanks, Sri

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  • JQuery set img src depending on where you click

    - by Anna
    Hello ! I used javascript for loading a picture on my website depending on which "small" photos in ul you clicked... I had something like that : <script type="text/javascript"> function viewImage(src, legende) { document.getElementById("imageBig").src = "images/photos/"+src; document.getElementById("legend").innerHTML = legende; } </script> and in html simply : things like that : <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('flute.jpg','La Reine de la Nuit au Comedia')"><img src="images/photos/carre-09.jpg" alt="" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('perichole.jpg','Manuelita - <em>La P&eacute;richole</em> &agrave; l&#8217;Op&eacute;ra Comique')"><img src="images/photos/carre-03.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('12.png','R&eacute;cital &agrave; Carnac, septembre 2008')"><img src="images/photos/carre-12.jpg" alt="Marion Baglan Carnac R&eacute;" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('01.jpg','')"><img src="images/photos/carre-01.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> so you see, I could, depending on which small photos in the unordered list you clicked, load some particular photos, by passing the src string in argument... but I decided to use Jquery to get some fade-in effect. But I can't find a way to pass an argument that would tell my JQuery function which photo to load depending on where I clicked... stuck here : $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ulPhotos').click(function() { var newSrc= $('#imageBig').attr("src", "images/photos/11.jpg"); }); }); I don't want the 11.jpg to be hardcoded, I need to pass it through argument when I click on a special li element in my ul element of id #ulPhotos... I hope I'm clear enough sorry !

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  • C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

    - by Doug
    (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

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  • How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

    - by Manas Saha
    Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

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  • ASP.NET Bind to IEnumerable

    - by JFoulkes
    Hi, I'm passing a the type IEnumerable to my view, and for each item I output a html.textbox to enter the details into. When I post this back to my controller, the collection is empty and I can't see why. public class Item { public Order Order { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public double Price { get; set; } } My Get method: public ActionResult AddItems(Order order) { Item itemOne = new Item { Order = order }; Item itemTwo = new Item { Order = order, }; IList<Item> items = new List<Item> { itemOne, itemTwo }; return View(items); } The View: <% int i = 0; foreach (var item in Model) { %> <p> <label for="Title">Item Title:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("items[" + i + "].Title") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("items[" + i + "].Title", "*")%> </p> <p> <label for="Price">Item Price:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("items[" + i + "].Price") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("items[" + i + "].Price", "*")%> </p> <% i++; } %> The POST method: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult AddItems(IEnumerable<Item> items) { try { return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(); } } At the moment i just have a breakpoint on the post method to check what i'm gettin back.

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  • .NET: How to pass value when subscribing to event and obtain it when the event is triggered (Dynamic

    - by Entrase
    The task is to create event handlers in runtime. I need the one method to be called with different parameter value for different events. The events and their number are only known in runtime. So I'm trying to generate dynamic methods, each of which will be assigned to some event, but in general they all just pass some value to an instance method and call it. It would be great if something similar could be done the easier way. I mean passing some value at subscribing stage and then obtaining it when the event is triggered. This is what I'm trying to do now: public class EventSource { public event EventHandler eventOne; public event EventHandler eventTwO; public event EventHandler eventThree; } public class EventListener { SubscribeForEvents() { BindingFlags flags = BindingFlags.IgnoreCase | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance; // Suppose we've already got EventInfo // and target source somewhere // so we can do eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate) // Now we need a delegate. int value = 42; Type tDelegate = eventInfo.EventHandlerType; // http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228976(VS.95).aspx Type returnType = GetDelegateReturnType(tDelegate); DynamicMethod listener = new DynamicMethod("", null, GetDelegateParameterTypes(tDelegate), this.GetType()); ///////// Type[] callParameters = { typeof(int) }; MethodInfo method = this.GetType().GetMethod("ToCallFromDelegate", flags); ILGenerator generator = listener.GetILGenerator(); // No success in this mess. What's wrong? generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldc_I4, value); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, method); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Pop); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); ///////////// Delegate delegate = listener.CreateDelegate(tDelegate); eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate); // When triggered, there is InvalidProgramException } void ToCallFromDelegate(int value) { doSomething(); } }

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  • How to return a value from facebook javascript connect api fucntions

    - by dezwald
    I am trying to create wrapper functions on facebook javascript connect api methods. My problem is that i can not return a value within the facebook api FB_RequireFeatures method. i want my isFBConnected() function to return true or false based on if i'm logged into facebook or not. What is happening is that when i return true it returns it to the child function, which makes sense however, my global "login" variable does not get set to true. I've tried setting a timeout to wait until the facebook connect finishes executing and still no luck. any help or other solutions are welcome! my isFBConnected wrapper function is stated below: function isFBConnected(){ var api_key = '<?=$this->apiKey?>'; var channel_path = '<?=$this->xdReceiver?>'; var host_url = '<?=$this->hostUrl?>'; var servicePathShort = '<?=$this->servicePathShort?>'; var login = false; FB_RequireFeatures(["Api"], function(){ // Create an ApiClient object, passing app's API key and // a site relative URL to xd_receiver.htm FB.Facebook.init(api_key, channel_path); var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // If FB user session exists - load stats data if(api.get_session()!=null){ if(api.get_session().uid!='' && api.get_session().uid!=undefined){ login = true; alert(api.get_session().uid); return true; } } login = false; return false; }); return false; }

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  • curl cookie not creating on success

    - by Bin
    Hi I'm using cUrl(PHP) to post a login request and store response in cookie file. In my second request I'm passing cookie in header and post data to verify it. Issue is that cookie file is not created in first succesful request results in failure for second request. Please suggest me where I'm doing wrong. $cookiefile="/var/www/html/dimdim/cook.txt"; $url_log="http://my.dimdim.com/api/auth/login"; $p_log='request={"account":"bin6k","password":"password","group":"all"}'; $url_ver="http://my.dimdim.com/api/auth/verify"; $p_ver='request={"account":"bin6k","password":"password","group":"all"}'; $ch = curl_init(); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookiefile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url_log); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $p_log); ob_start(); // prevent any output $retval=curl_exec ($ch); // execute the curl command ob_end_clean(); // stop preventing output curl_close ($ch); //print_r($retval); unset($ch); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookiefile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url_ver); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $p_log); $buf2 = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo "".htmlentities($buf2);

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  • In Javascript, is it true that function aliasing works as long as the function being aliased doesn't

    - by Jian Lin
    In Javascript, if we are aliasing a function, such as in: f = g; f = obj.display; obj.f = foo; all the 3 lines above, they will work as long as the function / method on the right hand side doesn't touch this? Since we are passing in all the arguments, the only way it can mess up is when the function / method on the right uses this? Actually, line 1 is probably ok if g is also a property of window? If g is referencing obj.display, then the same problem is there. In line 2, when obj.display touches this, it is to mean the obj, but when f() is invoked, the this is window, so they are different. In line 3, it is the same: when f() is invoked inside of obj's code, then the this is obj, while foo might be using this to refer to window if it were a property of window. (global function). So line 2 can be written as f = function() { obj.display.apply(obj, arguments) } and line 3: obj.f = function() { foo.apply(window, arguments) } Is this the correct method, and are there there other methods besides this?

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  • How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

    - by code-gijoe
    I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

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  • Is it possible to render PDF (fPDF) via a javascript?

    - by J. LaRosee
    So, I'm passing some values via jQuery to the server, which generates PDF garble. It goes something like this: $.post('/admin/printBatch', data, // Some vars and such function(data){ if(data) { var batch = window.open('','Batch Print','width=600,height=600,location=_newtab'); var html = data; // Perhaps some header info here?! batch.document.open(); batch.document.write(html); batch.document.close(); $( this ).dialog( "close" ); // jQuery UI } else { alert("Something went wrong, dawg."); } return false; }); The output file looks roughly like so: $pdf->AddPage(null, null, 'A PDF Page'); //.... $pdf->Output('', 'I'); // 'I' sends the file inline to the browser (http://fpdf.org/en/doc/output.htm) What gets rendered to the browser window: %PDF-1.3 3 0 obj <> endobj 4 0 obj <> stream ... I'm missing something major, I just know it... thoughts? Thanks, guys.

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  • Error installing FeedZirra

    - by Gautam
    Hi, I am new to Ruby on Rails. I am excited about Feed parsing but when I install FeedZirra I am getting this error. I use Windows 7 and Ruby 1.8.7. Please help. Thanks in advance. C:\Ruby187>gem sources -a http://gems.github.com http://gems.github.com added to sources C:\Ruby187>gem install pauldix-feedzirra Building native extensions. This could take a while... ERROR: Error installing pauldix-feedzirra: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension. C:/Ruby187/bin/ruby.exe extconf.rb checking for curl-config... no checking for main() in -lcurl... no *** extconf.rb failed *** Could not create Makefile due to some reason, probably lack of necessary libraries and/or headers. Check the mkmf.log file for more details. You may need configuration options. Provided configuration options: --with-opt-dir --without-opt-dir --with-opt-include --without-opt-include=${opt-dir}/include --with-opt-lib --without-opt-lib=${opt-dir}/lib --with-make-prog --without-make-prog --srcdir=. --curdir --ruby=C:/Ruby187/bin/ruby --with-curl-dir --without-curl-dir --with-curl-include --without-curl-include=${curl-dir}/include --with-curl-lib --without-curl-lib=${curl-dir}/lib --with-curllib --without-curllib extconf.rb:12: Can't find libcurl or curl/curl.h (RuntimeError) Try passing --with-curl-dir or --with-curl-lib and --with-curl-include options to extconf. Gem files will remain installed in C:/Ruby187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/taf2-curb-0 .5.4.0 for inspection. Results logged to C:/Ruby187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/taf2-curb-0.5.4.0/ext/gem_ma ke.out

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  • Java downcasting and is-A has-A relationship

    - by msharma
    HI, I have a down casting question, I am a bit rusty in this area. I have 2 clasess like this: class A{ int i; String j ; //Getters and setters} class B extends A{ String k; //getter and setter} I have a method like this, in a Utility helper class: public static A converts(C c){} Where C are objects that are retireved from the database and then converted. The problem is I want to call the above method by passing in a 'C' and getting back B. So I tried this: B bClasss = (B) Utility.converts(c); So even though the above method returns A I tried to downcast it to B, but I get a runtime ClassCastException. Is there really no way around this? DO I have to write a separate converts() method which returns a B class type? If I declare my class B like: class B { String k; A a;} // So instead of extending A it has-a A, getter and setters also then I can call my existing method like this: b.setA(Utility.converts(c) ); This way I can reuse the existing method, even though the extends relationship makes more sense. What should I do? Any help much appreciated. Thanks.

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