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  • What's the boost way to create a functor that binds out an argument

    - by Mordachai
    I have need for a function pointer that takes two arguments and returns a string. I would like to pass an adapter that wraps a function that takes one argument, and returns the string (i.e. discard one of the arguments). I can trivially build my own adapter, that takes the 2 arguments, calls the wrapped function passing just the one argument through. But I'd much rather have a simple way to create an adapter on the fly, if there is an easy way to do so in C++/boost? Here's some details to make this a bit more concrete: typedef boost::function<CString (int,int)> TooltipTextFn; class MyCtrl { public: MyCtrl(TooltipTextFn callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetCellText, this, _1, _2)) : m_callback(callback) { } // QUESTION: how to trivially wrapper GetRowText to conform to TooltipTextFn by just discarding _2 ?! void UseRowText() { m_callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetRowText, this, _1, ??); } private: CString GetCellText(int row, int column); CString GetRowText(int row); TooltipTextFn m_callback; } Obviously, I can supply a member that adapts GetRowText to take two arguments and only passes the first to GetRowText() itself. But is there already a boost binder / adapter that lets me do that?

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  • How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

    - by Manas Saha
    Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

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  • How do you send in the LayoutRoot into a RelayCommand via a EventToCommand?

    - by user298145
    Grid example with the trigger: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" DataContext="{Binding ProjectGrid, Source={StaticResource Locator}}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Loaded"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand Command="{Binding LoadedCommand, Mode=OneWay}" PassEventArgsToCommand="True"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> In my ViewModel I set the LoadedCommand like this: public RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> LoadedCommand {get;private set;} And in the ViewModel initializer I have this: public ProjectGridViewModel() { LoadedCommand = new RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs>(e => { this.DoLoaded(e); } ); } Then, in my DoLoaded I'm trying to do this: Grid _projectGrid = null; public void DoLoaded(RoutedEventArgs e) { _projectGrid = e.OriginalSource as Grid; } You can see I'm trying to get rid of my Loaded="" in my Grid in my view, and do a RelayCommand instead. The issue is the OriginalSource brings back nothing. My loaded event is running nice this way, but I need to get the Grid in via the RoutedEventArgs it seems. I tried passing in the Grid in the EventCommand with CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot}", but this just crashes VS2010 when hitting F5 and running the project. Any ideas? Or a better way to do this? I had the Loaded event run in the views C# then call the ViewModel in the Views code-behind, but I'd like to do a nicer binding. Talking to the ViewMode in the Views code-behind feels like a hack.

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  • Asp.net membership salt?

    - by chobo2
    Hi Does anyone know how Asp.net membership generates their salt key and then how they encode it(ie is it salt + password or password + salt)? I am using sha1 with my membership but I would like to recreate the same salts so the built in membership stuff could hash the stuff the same way as my stuff can. Thanks Edit 2 Never Mind I mis read it and was thinking it said bytes not bit. So I was passing in 128 bytes not 128bits. Edit I been trying to make it so this is what I have public string EncodePassword(string password, string salt) { byte[] bytes = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(password); byte[] src = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(salt); byte[] dst = new byte[src.Length + bytes.Length]; Buffer.BlockCopy(src, 0, dst, 0, src.Length); Buffer.BlockCopy(bytes, 0, dst, src.Length, bytes.Length); HashAlgorithm algorithm = HashAlgorithm.Create("SHA1"); byte[] inArray = algorithm.ComputeHash(dst); return Convert.ToBase64String(inArray); } private byte[] createSalt(byte[] saltSize) { byte[] saltBytes = saltSize; RNGCryptoServiceProvider rng = new RNGCryptoServiceProvider(); rng.GetNonZeroBytes(saltBytes); return saltBytes; } So I have not tried to see if the asp.net membership will recognize this yet the hashed password looks close. I just don't know how to convert it to base64 for the salt. I did this byte[] storeSalt = createSalt(new byte[128]); string salt = Encoding.Unicode.GetString(storeSalt); string base64Salt = Convert.ToBase64String(storeSalt); int test = base64Salt.Length; Test length is 172 what is well over the 128bits so what am I doing wrong? This is what their salt looks like vkNj4EvbEPbk1HHW+K8y/A== This is what my salt looks like E9oEtqo0livLke9+csUkf2AOLzFsOvhkB/NocSQm33aySyNOphplx9yH2bgsHoEeR/aw/pMe4SkeDvNVfnemoB4PDNRUB9drFhzXOW5jypF9NQmBZaJDvJ+uK3mPXsWkEcxANn9mdRzYCEYCaVhgAZ5oQRnnT721mbFKpfc4kpI=

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  • Calling SDL/OpenGL from Assembly code on Linux

    - by Lie Ryan
    I'm write a simple graphic-based program in Assembly for learning purpose; for this, I intended to use either OpenGL or SDL. I'm trying to call OpenGL/SDL's function from assembly. The problem is, unlike many assembly and OpenGL/SDL tutorials I found in the internet, the OpenGL/SDL in my machine apparently doesn't use C calling convention. I wrote a simple program in C, compile it to assembly (using -S switch), and apparently the assembly code that is generated by GCC calls the OpenGL/SDL functions by passing parameters in the registers instead of being pushed to the stack. Now, the question is, how do I determine how to pass arguments to these OpenGL/SDL functions? That is, how do I figure out which argument corresponds to which registers? Obviously since GCC can compile C code to call OpenGL/SDL, so therefore there must be a way to figure out the correspondence between function arguments and registers. In C calling conventions, the rule is easy, push parameters backwards and return value in eax/rax, I can simply read their C documentation and I can easily figure out how to pass the parameters. But how about these? Is there a way to call OpenGL/SDL using C calling convention? btw, I'm using yasm, with gcc/ld as the linker on Gentoo Linux amd64.

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  • SharpDevelop WIX project: MSBuild Configurations

    - by chezy525
    Using SharpDevelop, I wrote a windows service with a WIX setup project to install/auto-start it. For testing purposes, I've done a number of things I don't want to do in the release version (i.e. add an uninstall shortcut to the desktop). So, my question really boils down to this; how do you handle build configurations within a WiX project? I think I've solved most of my problems after I found this question Passing build parameters to .wxs file to dynamicaly build wix installers. And thus far I've done the following: Added a property that checks the Configuration variable <Product> ... <Property Id="DEBUG">$(var.Configuration) == 'Debug'</Property> ... Separated all of the debug files into unique components and setup as a separate feature with a condition checking the DEBUG property. <Product> ... <Feature> ... <Feature Id="DebugFiles" Level="1"> <ComponentRef Id="UninstallShortcutComponent" /> <Condition Level="0">DEBUG</Condition> </Feature> ... Then, finally, pointing to the correct file based on the configuration, using the Configuration variable <Directory> ... <Component> <File Source="..\mainProject\bin\$(var.Configuration)\main.exe" /> </Component> ... So, now my question is simplified to how to handle files that may not exist under certain build configurations (like .pdb files). Using all of the above (including pointing the file source to the ...\bin\Release\*.pdb, which I know isn't expected to exist) I get a LGHT0103 compiler error, it can't find the file.

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  • C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

    - by Doug
    (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

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  • mod_rewrite if file exists

    - by Mathieu Parent
    Hi everyone, I already have two rewrite rules that work correctly for now but some more code has to be added to work perfectly. I have a website hosted at mydomain.com and all subdom.mydomain.com are rewrited to mydomain.com/subs/subdom . My CMS has to handle the request if the file being reached does not exist, the rewrite is done like so: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/index.php?page=$1 [L] My CMS handles the next part of the parsing as usual. The problem is if a file really exists, I need to link to it without passing through my CMS, I managed to do it like this: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/$1 [L] So far it seems to work like a charm. Now I am being picky and I need to have default files that are stored in subs/default/. If the file exists in the subdomain folder, we should grab this one but if not, we need to get the file from the default subdomain. And if the file does not exist anywhere, we should be using the 404 page from the current subdomain unless there is none. I hope it describes well enough. Thank you for your time!

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  • nhibernate : Repository Session Management

    - by frosty
    At the moment my repository has 2 constructors. When i call these from my mvc website i am alway calling first constructor and thus opening a new session. Should i been passing in the session. How should i be doing this. public CompanyRepository() { _session = NHibernateHelper.OpenSession(); } public CompanyRepository(ISession session) { _session = session; } public class NHibernateHelper { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if (_sessionFactory == null) { var configuration = new Configuration(); configuration.Configure(); configuration.AddAssembly(typeof(UserProfile).Assembly); configuration.SetProperty(NHibernate.Cfg.Environment.ConnectionStringName, System.Environment.MachineName); _sessionFactory = configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); } return _sessionFactory; } } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } I'm using the Ninject IOC container ( very new to me ). I have the following container. How would i bind the ISession to the CompanyRepository. private class EStoreDependencies : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<ICompanyRepository>().To<CompanyRepository>(); Bind<IUserProfileRepository>().To<UserProfileRepository>(); Bind<IAddressRepository>().To<AddressRepository>(); Bind<IRolesService>().To<AspNetRoleProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IUserService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<ICurrentUserSerivce>().To<DefaultCurrentUserSerivce>(); Bind<IPasswordService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IStatusResponseRepository>().To<StatusResponseRepository>(); Bind<ICategoryRepository>().To<CategoryRepository>(); Bind<IProductRepository>().To<ProductRepository>(); } }

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  • NSIS patching (multiple patches in one file)

    - by Owen
    I'm able to generate patch files from one version to another using NSIS' Vpatch. Let's say I have mydll.dll version 1, and I have a patch to update it to version 2. Then I have a new version again, thus I generate another patch to update it to version 3. What bothers me though is, what if user cancels updating to version 2 and so forth. Then my latest version let's say is version 20. User decides to update to version 20. Is there a way to generate a patch that's like accumulative in nature? whereas user can jump from version any old version to the newest version (i.e ver 3 to ver 20) without passing through the versions in between? I've read this line in vpatch's documentation --- "if you want to be able to upgrade version 1 and 2 to version 3, you can put a 1 3 and 2 3 patch in one file." But how do I that? What if I alread have like 30 versions. Does that mean I have to create a patch whose arguments are old files(versions 1-29) and new file(version20)? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks...

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  • Finding Palindromes in an Array

    - by Jack L.
    For this assignemnt, I think that I got it right, but when I submit it online, it doesn't list it as correct even though I checked with Eclipse. The prompt: Write a method isPalindrome that accepts an array of Strings as its argument and returns true if that array is a palindrome (if it reads the same forwards as backwards) and /false if not. For example, the array {"alpha", "beta", "gamma", "delta", "gamma", "beta", "alpha"} is a palindrome, so passing that array to your method would return true. Arrays with zero or one element are considered to be palindromes. My code: public static void main(String[] args) { String[] input = new String[6]; //{"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} Should return true input[0] = "aay"; input[1] = "bee"; input[2] = "cee"; input[3] = "cee"; input[4] = "bee"; input[5] = "aay"; System.out.println(isPalindrome(input)); } public static boolean isPalindrome(String[] input) { for (int i=0; i<input.length; i++) { // Checks each element if (input[i] != input[input.length-1-i]){ return false; // If a single instance of non-symmetry } } return true; // If symmetrical, only one element, or zero elements } As an example, {"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} returns true in Eclipse, but Practice-It! says it returns false. What is going on?

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  • PHP + MYSQLI: Variable parameter/result binding with prepared statements.

    - by Brian Warshaw
    In a project that I'm about to wrap up, I've written and implemented an object-relational mapping solution for PHP. Before the doubters and dreamers cry out "how on earth?", relax -- I haven't found a way to make late static binding work -- I'm just working around it in the best way that I possibly can. Anyway, I'm not currently using prepared statements for querying, because I couldn't come up with a way to pass a variable number of arguments to the bind_params() or bind_result() methods. Why do I need to support a variable number of arguments, you ask? Because the superclass of my models (think of my solution as a hacked-up PHP ActiveRecord wannabe) is where the querying is defined, and so the find() method, for example, doesn't know how many parameters it would need to bind. Now, I've already thought of building an argument list and passing a string to eval(), but I don't like that solution very much -- I'd rather just implement my own security checks and pass on statements. Does anyone have any suggestions (or success stories) about how to get this done? If you can help me solve this first problem, perhaps we can tackle binding the result set (something I suspect will be more difficult, or at least more resource-intensive if it involves an initial query to determine table structure).

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  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

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  • .NET: How to pass value when subscribing to event and obtain it when the event is triggered (Dynamic

    - by Entrase
    The task is to create event handlers in runtime. I need the one method to be called with different parameter value for different events. The events and their number are only known in runtime. So I'm trying to generate dynamic methods, each of which will be assigned to some event, but in general they all just pass some value to an instance method and call it. It would be great if something similar could be done the easier way. I mean passing some value at subscribing stage and then obtaining it when the event is triggered. This is what I'm trying to do now: public class EventSource { public event EventHandler eventOne; public event EventHandler eventTwO; public event EventHandler eventThree; } public class EventListener { SubscribeForEvents() { BindingFlags flags = BindingFlags.IgnoreCase | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance; // Suppose we've already got EventInfo // and target source somewhere // so we can do eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate) // Now we need a delegate. int value = 42; Type tDelegate = eventInfo.EventHandlerType; // http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228976(VS.95).aspx Type returnType = GetDelegateReturnType(tDelegate); DynamicMethod listener = new DynamicMethod("", null, GetDelegateParameterTypes(tDelegate), this.GetType()); ///////// Type[] callParameters = { typeof(int) }; MethodInfo method = this.GetType().GetMethod("ToCallFromDelegate", flags); ILGenerator generator = listener.GetILGenerator(); // No success in this mess. What's wrong? generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldc_I4, value); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, method); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Pop); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); ///////////// Delegate delegate = listener.CreateDelegate(tDelegate); eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate); // When triggered, there is InvalidProgramException } void ToCallFromDelegate(int value) { doSomething(); } }

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  • need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

    - by railsnew
    I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

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  • Redirecting users after destroy

    - by mathee
    I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

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  • swfupload session problem destroy session

    - by saquib
    Hello Friends, I have a problem with swfupload. I am passing session_id() like this /upload-file.php?s=189477fcfa1ec7f630e70a09e1e84cae but its not maintaining session and destroying my current session (logging me out) here is code in file upload. <?php if(isset($_GET['s'])) { session_id($_GET['s']); session_start(); require_once 'admin/class/user.php'; $u = new User(); //Check for user logged in if($u->islogged() == FALSE) { header("location: index.php"); exit(); code continue ..... } because am not logged in server redirect me to the index.php this is swfupload debugger window output SWF DEBUG: ----- END SWF DEBUG OUTPUT ---- SWF DEBUG: SWF DEBUG: Event: fileDialogStart : Browsing files. Multi Select. Allowed file types: *.jpg SWF DEBUG: Select Handler: Received the files selected from the dialog. Processing the file list... SWF DEBUG: Event: fileQueued : File ID: SWFUpload_0_0 SWF DEBUG: Event: fileDialogComplete : Finished processing selected files. Files selected: 1. Files Queued: 1 SWF DEBUG: StartUpload: First file in queue SWF DEBUG: Event: uploadStart : File ID: SWFUpload_0_0 SWF DEBUG: ReturnUploadStart(): File accepted by startUpload event and readied for upload. Starting upload to /upload-file.php?s='189477fcfa1ec7f630e70a09e1e84cae' for File ID: SWFUpload_0_0 SWF DEBUG: Event: uploadProgress (OPEN): File ID: SWFUpload_0_0 SWF DEBUG: Event: uploadProgress: File ID: SWFUpload_0_0. Bytes: 317793. Total: 317793 SWF DEBUG: Event: uploadError: HTTP ERROR : File ID: SWFUpload_0_0. HTTP Status: 302. SWF DEBUG: Event: uploadComplete : Upload cycle complete. SWF DEBUG: StartUpload: First file in queue SWF DEBUG: StartUpload(): No files found in the queue.

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  • How to find Tomcat's PID and kill it in python?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    Normally, one shuts down Apache Tomcat by running its shutdown.sh script (or batch file). In some cases, such as when Tomcat's web container is hosting a web app that does some crazy things with multi-threading, running shutdown.sh gracefully shuts down some parts of Tomcat (as I can see more available memory returning to the system), but the Tomcat process keeps running. I'm trying to write a simple Python script that: Calls shutdown.sh Runs ps -aef | grep tomcat to find any process with Tomcat referenced If applicable, kills the process with kill -9 <PID> Here's what I've got so far (as a prototype - I'm brand new to Python BTW): #!/usr/bin/python # Imports import sys import subprocess # Load from imported module. if __init__ == "__main__": main() # Main entry point. def main(): # Shutdown Tomcat shutdownCmd = "sh ${TOMCAT_HOME}/bin/shutdown.sh" subprocess.call([shutdownCmd], shell=true) # Check for PID grepCmd = "ps -aef | grep tomcat" grepResults = subprocess.call([grepCmd], shell=true) if(grepResult.length > 1): # Get PID and kill it. pid = ??? killPidCmd = "kill -9 $pid" subprocess.call([killPidCmd], shell=true) # Exit. sys.exit() I'm struggling with the middle part - with obtaining the grep results, checking to see if their size is greater than 1 (since grep always returns a reference to itself, at least 1 result will always be returned, methinks), and then parsing that returned PID and passing it into the killPidCmd. Thanks in advance!

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  • Update or Insert Row depending on whether row is present in Microsoft SQL Server 2005

    - by Srikanth
    Hi, I am passing a XML document as a input to a stored procedure in Microsoft SQL Server 2005. This is the sample XML being passed as input <Strategy StrategyID="0" TOStrategyID="8" ShutdownQtySell="1" ShutdownQtyBuy="1"> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="1" ParameterRangeFrom="0" ParameterRangeTo="20" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="4" ParameterRangeFrom="21" ParameterRangeTo="40" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="5" ParameterRangeFrom="41" ParameterRangeTo="60" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="6" ParameterRangeFrom="61" ParameterRangeTo="80" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="7" ParameterRangeFrom="81" ParameterRangeTo="100" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> </Strategy> I am able to retrieve the data using OpenXML functionality in SQL server I am using this to get the data corresponding to ParameterRange rows SELECT ParameterRangeID as iRangeID, ParameterSetID as iSetID, ParameterRangeFrom as fRangeFrom, ParameterRangeTo as fRangeTo, ParameterAutoTakeOut as bTakeoutEnabled FROM OPENXML(@idoc, '/Strategy/ParameterRange', 1) WITH (ParameterSetID int,ParameterRangeID int,ParameterRangeFrom float,ParameterRangeTo float,ParameterAutoTakeOut bit) Now, I need to insert/update these rows into a table TempRanges which has (iRangeID,iSetID) as the primary key. If there is a row with the primary key, I want to update it the latest values and If there is no row with that primary key, I need to insert into the table. How can I accomplish this inside the Stored Procedure ? Thanks, Sri

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  • How do I convert an AMD module from a singleton to an instance?

    - by Jamie Ide
    I'm trying to convert a working Durandal view model module from a singleton to an instance. The original working version followed this pattern: define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = { activate: activate, companyId: null; company: ko.observable({}) }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The new version exports a function so that I get a new instance on every request... define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = function() { activate = activate; companyId = null; company = ko.observable({}); }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The error I'm getting is "object function () [...function signature...] has no method company on the line vm.company(data);. What am I doing wrong? Why can I set the property but can't access the knockout observable? How should I refactor the original code so that I get a new instance on every request? My efforts to simplify the code for this question hid the actual problem. My real code was using Q promises and calling two methods with Q.All. Since Q is in the global namespace, it couldn't resolve my viewmodel after converting to a function. Passing the view model to the methods called by Q resolved the problem.

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  • JQuery set img src depending on where you click

    - by Anna
    Hello ! I used javascript for loading a picture on my website depending on which "small" photos in ul you clicked... I had something like that : <script type="text/javascript"> function viewImage(src, legende) { document.getElementById("imageBig").src = "images/photos/"+src; document.getElementById("legend").innerHTML = legende; } </script> and in html simply : things like that : <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('flute.jpg','La Reine de la Nuit au Comedia')"><img src="images/photos/carre-09.jpg" alt="" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('perichole.jpg','Manuelita - <em>La P&eacute;richole</em> &agrave; l&#8217;Op&eacute;ra Comique')"><img src="images/photos/carre-03.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('12.png','R&eacute;cital &agrave; Carnac, septembre 2008')"><img src="images/photos/carre-12.jpg" alt="Marion Baglan Carnac R&eacute;" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('01.jpg','')"><img src="images/photos/carre-01.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> so you see, I could, depending on which small photos in the unordered list you clicked, load some particular photos, by passing the src string in argument... but I decided to use Jquery to get some fade-in effect. But I can't find a way to pass an argument that would tell my JQuery function which photo to load depending on where I clicked... stuck here : $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ulPhotos').click(function() { var newSrc= $('#imageBig').attr("src", "images/photos/11.jpg"); }); }); I don't want the 11.jpg to be hardcoded, I need to pass it through argument when I click on a special li element in my ul element of id #ulPhotos... I hope I'm clear enough sorry !

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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  • Rails Tableless Model

    - by mplacona
    I'm creating a tableless Rails model, and am a bit stuck on how I should use it. Basically I'm trying to create a little application using Feedzirra that scans a RSS feed every X seconds, and then sends me an email with only the updates. I'm actually trying to use it as an activerecord model, and although I can get it to work, it doesn't seem to "hold" data as expected. As an example, I have an initializer method that parses the feed for the first time. On the next requests, I would like to simply call the get_updates method, which according to feedzirra, is the existing object (created during the initialize) that gets updated with only the differences. I'm finding it really hard to understand how this all works, as the object created on the initialize method doesn't seem to persist across all the methods on the model. My code looks something like: def initialize feed parse here end def get_updates feedzirra update passing the feed object here end Not sure if this is the right way of doing it, but it all seems a bit confusing and not very clear. I could be over or under-doing here, but I'd like your opinion about this approach. Thanks in advance

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  • How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

    - by marue
    I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

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